FANZCA Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield FANZCA facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which statistical method is most appropriate to assess inter-rater reliability between two FANZCA examiners scoring the same candidate's viva performance? → Cohen's kappa
2. The Anaesthesia Non-Technical Skills (ANTS) framework is primarily used to assess: → Cognitive, social, and personal resource management skills of anaesthetists
3. Which intraoperative monitor is most useful for detecting cerebral ischaemia during carotid endarterectomy performed under general anaesthesia? → Near-infrared spectroscopy (NIRS)
4. Which communication framework is most commonly recommended for structured clinical handover in Australian and New Zealand perioperative settings? → ISBAR (Identify, Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation)
5. Which ANZCA publication serves as the primary source of College news, policy updates, and professional information for members? → The ANZCA Bulletin
6. Which of the following is a key principle of the ANZCA Safe Anaesthesia Liaison Group (SALG) reporting framework? → Anonymous reporting promotes a just culture and improves system-level safety
7. In perioperative anesthetic management, which strategy is recommended for patients at high risk of postoperative nausea and vomiting (PONV)? → Multimodal prophylaxis including TIVA with propofol, ondansetron, and dexamethasone
8. When documenting an unexpected intraoperative event such as a difficult airway in the anesthetic record, what is the most critical element to include? → A clear chronological account of interventions and patient response
9. Which of the following is essential for all documentation entries? → Date, time, signature, and credentials of the person documenting
10. During cardiopulmonary bypass, which pH management strategy involves adjusting PaCO2 for the patient's hypothermic temperature? → pH-stat
11. What is the primary purpose of professional regulation in the FANZCA field? → To protect the public by ensuring practitioners meet minimum competency standards
12. Which component of the STOPBANG questionnaire is NOT included in the original validated tool? → Alcohol consumption
13. Which parameter most reliably indicates return of adequate neuromuscular function before tracheal extubation using quantitative monitoring? → Train-of-four ratio (TOF ratio) ≥ 0.9
14. What is the primary purpose of the written examination in the Fellowship program? → To assess theoretical knowledge of anaesthesia.
15. A child weighing 20 kg requires endotracheal intubation. Using the Cole formula, what is the correct uncuffed ETT size? → 5.0 mm
16. What is the SOAP format used for in documentation? → Organizing clinical notes into Subjective, Objective, Assessment, and Plan sections
17. What is the primary purpose of workplace-based assessments (WBAs) in ANZCA training? → To provide formative feedback and document trainee competence in clinical settings
18. A patient's arterial line waveform shows pulsus paradoxus. Which condition is most likely? → Cardiac tamponade
19. Under New Zealand's Health and Disability Commissioner Act, patients have the right to refuse treatment under which specific right? → Right 7
20. Which assessment tool used in FANZCA training is specifically designed to evaluate a trainee's ability to manage an evolving simulated anaesthetic crisis? → The Anaesthesia Crisis Resource Management (ACRM) scenario assessment
21. A consultant anaesthetist wishes to act as a supervisor of training for ANZCA. Which prerequisite is mandatory before taking on this role? → Completion of ANZCA's supervisor of training workshop
22. ANZCA PS55 provides guidance on which emerging area of anaesthesia practice? → Environmental sustainability in anaesthesia
23. When should documentation of a service or intervention be completed? → As soon as possible after the service is provided
24. Which methodology uses the Plan-Do-Study-Act cycle? → Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI)
25. During FANZCA hot case evaluation, a candidate presents findings clearly but proposes an unsafe management plan. How should examiners weight this performance? → Fail the station due to the safety-critical error regardless of presentation quality
26. When performing an interscalene brachial plexus block, which structure is most at risk of injury from needle placement? → Phrenic nerve
27. Which pharmacokinetic parameter best describes the relationship between drug dose and plasma concentration at steady state? → Clearance
28. In the context of informed consent quality improvement, which outcome measure would BEST evaluate whether consent processes are truly patient-centered? → Patient-reported understanding of risks and alternatives after consent consultation
29. What kind of support does the College offer to its Fellows in terms of professional development? → Workshops, seminars, and online learning.
30. What is the relationship between theory and practice? → Theory informs practice, and practice tests and refines theory