FACEM Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield FACEM facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

120 questions
180 min time limit
70.00% to pass
  1. A registrar asks how to best prepare for the FACEM clinical examination. Which strategy is most strongly supported by evidence? → Deliberate practice with structured clinical cases, peer feedback, and mock OSCE stations
  2. A systematic review finds significant heterogeneity (I² = 75%) among included studies. The most appropriate response is to: → Explore sources of heterogeneity and use a random-effects model
  3. A patient presents with QRS widening to 160ms after tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose. What is the most appropriate immediate treatment? → Sodium bicarbonate 1–2 mEq/kg IV bolus
  4. When should documentation of a service or intervention be completed? → As soon as possible after the service is provided
  5. When is it appropriate to modify a standard clinical procedure? → When patient-specific factors require adaptation based on clinical judgment
  6. In a patient with suspected elevated intracranial pressure requiring RSI, which agent is preferred to blunt the haemodynamic response to laryngoscopy? → Fentanyl given 3 minutes prior
  7. In a clinical trial, allocation concealment refers to: → Preventing foreknowledge of the next assignment before enrolment
  8. What is the Mangled Extremity Severity Score (MESS) used to predict in traumatic limb injury? → Likelihood of successful limb salvage
  9. Why is it important to check for drug allergies before administration? → To prevent potentially life-threatening allergic reactions
  10. A patient in the ED deteriorates and requires aerosol-generating procedures (AGPs). Which of the following is NOT classified as an AGP? → Manual chest compressions during cardiac arrest
  11. In a cohort study, the incidence rate ratio compares: → Rate of disease in exposed versus unexposed over time
  12. An emergency physician suspects a colleague is impaired by alcohol while on shift. What is the most appropriate immediate action? → Notify hospital administration and remove the colleague from clinical duties
  13. Which educational framework underpins the FACEM training curriculum, emphasizing competency-based progression? → Miller's pyramid of clinical competence
  14. Which of the following is the correct approach when a clinical note contains a factual error? → Draw a single line through the error, initial and date it, then add a correction
  15. A hospital's backup generator fails during a disaster. Which patient population requires IMMEDIATE priority for manual support or transfer? → Ventilator-dependent ICU patients
  16. What is the correct order for donning personal protective equipment (PPE)? → Gown, mask, goggles, gloves
  17. What is the most sensitive bedside test for ruling out pulmonary embolism in low-to-moderate pre-test probability patients? → D-dimer
  18. A patient on warfarin develops bleeding after starting fluconazole. The most likely mechanism is: → Fluconazole inhibits CYP2C9, reducing warfarin metabolism
  19. Which action is essential during any procedure involving sharps? → Using designated sharps containers and following universal precautions
  20. In the management of status epilepticus, which is the second-line agent if benzodiazepines fail to terminate seizures? → Levetiracetam or valproate IV
  21. A 60-year-old male presents with acute confusion, fever 38.8°C, HR 110, and a petechial rash progressing to purpura. Which immediate action is most critical? → Administer intravenous antibiotics immediately without delay
  22. A senior emergency physician observes a junior colleague make a clinical error that did not harm the patient. The most appropriate response is: → Address the error privately with the junior colleague and provide constructive feedback
  23. The duration of action of a single bolus dose of propofol is primarily determined by: → Redistribution from the CNS to peripheral tissues
  24. How does the Fellowship measure success in advocacy and leadership? → Success is measured by improvements in care, policy, and leadership networks.
  25. A tearful patient says 'I just want to know if I'm going to die.' How should the emergency physician respond? → Acknowledge the emotion and explore what they mean before providing information
  26. What is the purpose of transmission-based precautions? → To provide additional protection for patients with specific infections
  27. Which enzyme is primarily responsible for the metabolism of succinylcholine in plasma? → Plasma cholinesterase (pseudocholinesterase)
  28. What is the correct sequence for a physical assessment? → Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
  29. After a patient death, which communication approach is most appropriate when speaking with the bereaved family? → Sit with the family, use plain language, allow silence, and express condolences sincerely
  30. A patient presents after a bite from another human. Which pathogen is the primary concern driving the choice of prophylactic antibiotics? → Eikenella corrodens