FAA Part 107 Remote Pilot Knowledge Test — Questions and Answers
Question 1: How often should you perform a preflight inspection of your sUAS to ensure it is in a condition for safe operation?
- Before each flight (Correct answer)
- Monthly
- Annually
- Weekly
Correct answer: Before each flight
FAA Part 107 mandates that a preflight inspection must be performed before each flight. This ensures the sUAS is in a condition for safe operation, identifying any potential mechanical, electrical, or structural issues. This diligent practice is critical for preventing accidents, ensuring airworthiness, and maintaining the safety of the operation.
Question 2: What aerodynamic principle allows a multirotor sUAS to accelerate into forward flight from a hover?
- Tilting the aircraft forward converts a portion of rotor thrust from vertical lift into horizontal propulsion (Correct answer)
- The landing gear extends to create a rearward aerodynamic drag surface
- Increased motor speed creates a low-pressure zone that pulls the aircraft forward
- Differential thrust between front and rear rotors pushes air backward
Correct answer: Tilting the aircraft forward converts a portion of rotor thrust from vertical lift into horizontal propulsion
By pitching nose-down, the total thrust vector tilts forward — dividing into a vertical component (lift) and a horizontal component (forward thrust) to produce acceleration.
Question 3: (Refer to TAF: KABC 121730Z 1218/1318 15012KT P6SM BKN030 FM130200 18010KT P6SM SCT040) What weather is forecast for 0300Z on the 13th?
- Wind from 180 degrees at 10 knots, scattered clouds at 4,000 feet. (Correct answer)
- Wind from 180 degrees at 12 knots, broken clouds at 3,000 feet.
- Wind from 150 degrees at 12 knots, visibility 6 statute miles.
- Wind from 150 degrees at 12 knots, broken clouds at 3,000 feet.
Correct answer: Wind from 180 degrees at 10 knots, scattered clouds at 4,000 feet.
The `FM130200` group indicates a rapid change (FROM) occurring at 0200 Zulu on the 13th. The forecast weather after this time is wind from 180 degrees at 10 knots, visibility greater than 6 statute miles, and scattered clouds at 4,000 feet AGL.
Question 4: For night operations, the anti-collision lights on a small unmanned aircraft must be visible for at least how many statute miles?
- 10 statute miles
- 3 statute miles (Correct answer)
- 5 statute miles
- 1 statute mile
Correct answer: 3 statute miles
According to 14 CFR Part 107, a small unmanned aircraft must have anti-collision lighting that is visible for at least 3 statute miles. The lights should have a flash rate sufficient to avoid a collision.
Question 5: What is 'translational lift' and when does it occur in sUAS operations?
- Improved rotor efficiency that occurs as the sUAS transitions from hover into forward flight, entering undisturbed air (Correct answer)
- Lift generated by horizontal tail surfaces during forward flight
- Lift generated by the aircraft fuselage shape during high-speed forward flight
- A sudden loss of lift when crossing between two different air masses
Correct answer: Improved rotor efficiency that occurs as the sUAS transitions from hover into forward flight, entering undisturbed air
As the aircraft moves forward, rotors continuously encounter undisturbed air rather than recirculating their own downwash, making each revolution more efficient and producing more lift for the same power.
Question 6: What is the maximum blood alcohol concentration (BAC) allowed for a Remote Pilot operating a sUAS?
- 0.08%
- 0.04% (Correct answer)
- 0.02%
- 0.00%
Correct answer: 0.04%
Under FAA Part 107, a Remote Pilot is prohibited from operating a sUAS if their blood alcohol concentration (BAC) is 0.04% or greater. This strict limit is in place to ensure the pilot's cognitive abilities and judgment are unimpaired, which is crucial for safe aviation operations. Adhering to this standard helps prevent accidents caused by alcohol impairment.
Question 7: What is the aerodynamic effect of propeller blade damage such as chips, cracks, or nicks on sUAS flight?
- Blade damage causes increased lift due to additional disturbed airflow patterns
- Blade damage causes vibration, reduces thrust efficiency, and can lead to catastrophic failure mid-flight (Correct answer)
- Minor blade damage has no measurable effect on flight performance
- Damaged blades only affect operations above 200 feet AGL
Correct answer: Blade damage causes vibration, reduces thrust efficiency, and can lead to catastrophic failure mid-flight
Even minor blade damage creates aerodynamic imbalance that produces vibrations stressing motor bearings, reducing sensor accuracy, and risking catastrophic structural failure during flight.
Question 8: The term 'arm' in weight and balance calculations refers to the:
- Horizontal distance from the reference datum. (Correct answer)
- The product of weight and distance.
- Total weight of the aircraft.
- The maximum weight an item can be.
Correct answer: Horizontal distance from the reference datum.
In weight and balance terminology, the 'arm' is the horizontal distance from the reference datum to the center of gravity of an item. The 'moment' is then calculated by multiplying the weight of the item by its arm.
Question 9: What is a primary requirement for a small UAS to be operated over people under Category 4?
- It must be operated by a pilot with at least 100 hours of flight time.
- It must have an airworthiness certificate issued under Part 21. (Correct answer)
- It must be made entirely of frangible materials.
- It must weigh less than 55 pounds and have a parachute system.
Correct answer: It must have an airworthiness certificate issued under Part 21.
Category 4 is for drones that do not meet the kinetic energy or weight limits of Categories 1, 2, or 3. To qualify, these drones must undergo a rigorous FAA certification process and receive an airworthiness certificate under Part 21, similar to manned aircraft.
Question 10: A key distinction between Category 2 and Category 3 operations over people is that...
- Category 2 drones must have a remote pilot with an advanced rating.
- Category 3 drones can be flown over open-air assemblies, but Category 2 drones cannot.
- Category 2 drones can operate at night, but Category 3 drones cannot.
- Category 3 drones must not have any exposed rotating parts that could cause skin lacerations. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Category 3 drones must not have any exposed rotating parts that could cause skin lacerations.
Both Category 2 and Category 3 are based on impact kinetic energy limits, with Category 3 allowing for a higher impact energy. However, a critical safety requirement for Category 3 is that the drone must be designed to prevent lacerations from exposed rotating parts, a requirement not explicitly placed on Category 2 drones.
Question 11: What is a likely consequence of operating an sUAS with a center of gravity (CG) that is too far forward?
- Higher stalling speed. (Correct answer)
- Decreased longitudinal stability.
- Lower cruising speed.
- Difficulty recovering from a spin.
Correct answer: Higher stalling speed.
A forward CG makes the aircraft nose-heavy, which increases longitudinal stability. However, it requires more tail-down force to maintain level flight, which increases the total lift required from the wing and results in a higher stalling speed.
Question 12: Under the rules for Operations Over Moving Vehicles, a remote pilot is generally prohibited from...
- flying a Category 1 drone over a moving vehicle.
- operating within a closed-access site over company vehicles.
- maintaining sustained flight over a moving vehicle. (Correct answer)
- briefly crossing over a road with moving cars.
Correct answer: maintaining sustained flight over a moving vehicle.
While transient flight over moving vehicles is permitted for certain categories of drones, sustained flight is not. Sustained flight includes hovering over, flying back and forth over, or circling the same moving vehicle, which poses a greater risk.
Question 13: How does wind shear affect sUAS flight operations?
- Small UAS are too light to be significantly affected by wind shear
- A sudden change in wind speed or direction can cause rapid attitude changes and potential loss of control (Correct answer)
- Wind shear only affects fixed-wing aircraft above 1,000 feet AGL
- Wind shear improves sUAS stability by providing consistent airflow to the rotors
Correct answer: A sudden change in wind speed or direction can cause rapid attitude changes and potential loss of control
Abrupt wind shear can instantly change the relative wind acting on all rotors simultaneously, causing attitude excursions that the flight controller may not recover from quickly enough.
Question 14: How does operating in hot, humid summer conditions affect sUAS endurance compared to cool, dry conditions?
- Temperature and humidity only affect fixed-wing aircraft endurance, not multirotors
- Hot, humid conditions improve endurance because warm air provides more lift
- Endurance improves in hot conditions because lithium batteries perform better at higher temperatures
- Hot, humid conditions reduce endurance because lower air density requires higher RPMs for the same lift (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Hot, humid conditions reduce endurance because lower air density requires higher RPMs for the same lift
High temperature and humidity reduce air density (increase density altitude), requiring motors to spin faster and consume more power per minute, shortening total flight time.
Question 15: What happens to a remote pilot's Part 107 privileges if they fail to complete recurrent training within 24 calendar months?
- Their certificate is automatically revoked
- Their privilege to act as remote PIC lapses until training is completed (Correct answer)
- They must apply for an entirely new certificate
- They must retake the initial knowledge test at a testing center
Correct answer: Their privilege to act as remote PIC lapses until training is completed
If recurrent training is not completed within 24 months, the remote pilot's privileges lapse and they cannot legally act as remote PIC until training is finished.
Question 16: What effect does high density altitude have on the performance of a small unmanned aircraft?
- Performance is not affected by density altitude.
- Performance is decreased due to reduced propeller efficiency. (Correct answer)
- Performance is only affected by the aircraft's weight.
- Performance is increased due to less air resistance.
Correct answer: Performance is decreased due to reduced propeller efficiency.
High density altitude means the air is less dense. This reduces propeller efficiency, decreases lift, and diminishes engine power output, all of which lead to reduced overall performance.
Question 17: What is the primary danger associated with thunderstorms for an sUAS?
- High density altitude.
- Low ceilings and poor visibility.
- Radio frequency interference.
- Extreme turbulence and wind shear. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Extreme turbulence and wind shear.
While all listed options are hazards, the most significant and immediate danger from thunderstorms is the extreme turbulence and wind shear associated with updrafts, downdrafts (microbursts), and gust fronts. These can easily cause a loss of control.
Question 18: Which weather product is a report of current surface weather observations, rather than a forecast?
- GFA (Graphical Forecasts for Aviation).
- METAR (Aviation Routine Weather Report). (Correct answer)
- PIREP (Pilot Report).
- TAF (Terminal Aerodrome Forecast).
Correct answer: METAR (Aviation Routine Weather Report).
A METAR is a routine weather report that provides current surface weather conditions observed at a specific time and location (an airport). A TAF, in contrast, is a forecast of expected weather conditions.
Question 19: How do thermal updrafts and convective activity during midday hours affect sUAS flight stability?
- Thermal updrafts create localized vertical air movement and turbulence that can cause unpredictable attitude changes (Correct answer)
- Thermal activity has no measurable effect on sUAS below 55 lbs
- Thermals improve sUAS stability by providing consistent upward lift
- Convective activity only affects operations above 1,000 feet AGL
Correct answer: Thermal updrafts create localized vertical air movement and turbulence that can cause unpredictable attitude changes
Surface heating creates localized columns of rising warm air (thermals) surrounded by cooler descending air, generating pockets of turbulence and vertical air movement that can destabilize an sUAS.
Question 20: What is the maximum groundspeed permitted for a sUAS under Part 107?
- 60 knots (69 mph)
- 87 knots (100 mph) (Correct answer)
- 50 knots (57 mph)
- 100 knots (115 mph)
Correct answer: 87 knots (100 mph)
Part 107 limits sUAS groundspeed to a maximum of 87 knots, which equals 100 miles per hour.
Question 21: When a sectional chart shows an obstacle at 1200 (450), and the surrounding terrain elevation is 750 feet MSL, what is the height of the obstacle above the ground?
- 750 feet
- 1650 feet
- 1200 feet
- 450 feet (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 450 feet
The number in parentheses always indicates the height of the obstacle in feet Above Ground Level (AGL). The number outside the parentheses (1200) is the height in Mean Sea Level (MSL), which is calculated as terrain elevation (750 ft) plus the AGL height (450 ft).
Question 22: What does a small magenta flag symbol on a sectional chart indicate?
- A prominent visual checkpoint for VFR navigation. (Correct answer)
- A location of an ultralight flight park.
- A military training route.
- A designated parachute jumping area.
Correct answer: A prominent visual checkpoint for VFR navigation.
A magenta flag on a sectional chart marks a VFR (Visual Flight Rules) checkpoint. These are prominent geographical features that can be used by pilots to visually identify their position.
Question 23: According to Part 107, which of these scenarios is permissible without a waiver?
- Flying over people who are inside a stationary, covered vehicle. (Correct answer)
- Flying over your neighbor who is sunbathing in their backyard.
- Flying over spectators at a high school football game.
- Flying over a concert crowd to get an establishing shot.
Correct answer: Flying over people who are inside a stationary, covered vehicle.
The regulations for operations over people do not apply if the people are located under a covered structure or inside a stationary vehicle that can provide reasonable protection from a falling drone. This is because the vehicle itself acts as a protective barrier.
Question 24: On a sectional chart, what does the symbol of a tower with a number like 1549 (1249) represent?
- The obstacle's top is at 1549 feet MSL, and its height is 1249 feet AGL. (Correct answer)
- The obstacle's top is at 1549 feet MSL, and its base is at 1249 feet MSL.
- The obstacle's height is 1549 feet AGL and 1249 feet MSL.
- The obstacle is a group of towers with the tallest being 1549 feet MSL.
Correct answer: The obstacle's top is at 1549 feet MSL, and its height is 1249 feet AGL.
The top number (1549) represents the height of the obstacle's top in feet above Mean Sea Level (MSL). The number in parentheses (1249) represents the height of the obstacle in feet Above Ground Level (AGL).
Question 25: In the airport data block on a sectional chart, what does the letter "L" next to the runway length indicate?
- The airport has lighting available. (Correct answer)
- The airport has low-intensity runway lighting.
- The runway is less than 8,069 feet long.
- The airport is a Left-hand traffic pattern airport.
Correct answer: The airport has lighting available.
The "L" in the airport data block indicates that the airport has lighting facilities. An asterisk (*) next to the "L" signifies that the lighting operates on a limited schedule or requires pilot activation.
Question 26: A remote pilot flying at night may experience the autokinetic illusion, which is when a:
- bright light is mistaken for an aircraft on a collision course.
- series of ground lights is mistaken for the runway.
- stationary light appears to move when stared at for a prolonged period. (Correct answer)
- distant object is perceived as being closer than it actually is.
Correct answer: stationary light appears to move when stared at for a prolonged period.
The autokinetic illusion occurs when a static light source, such as a star or a drone's light, is stared at in the dark and appears to move or wander. Pilots must be aware of this illusion to avoid becoming disoriented or misjudging the drone's position.
Question 27: A temperature inversion can create a hazard for sUAS operations primarily because it can lead to:
- Increased air density and better performance.
- Significant wind shear and poor visibility. (Correct answer)
- Decreased propeller efficiency regardless of altitude.
- The rapid formation of cumulonimbus clouds.
Correct answer: Significant wind shear and poor visibility.
A temperature inversion creates a very stable layer of air that can trap smoke, dust, and other pollutants, leading to very poor visibility. It can also be a source of significant low-level wind shear.
Question 28: What is 'ground effect' as it applies to multirotor sUAS operations?
- Vibration felt by the aircraft when landing on uneven terrain
- Reduced battery consumption due to lower altitude air pressure
- Turbulence created by flying close to the surface
- Increased rotor efficiency caused by reduced induced drag when flying close to the ground (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Increased rotor efficiency caused by reduced induced drag when flying close to the ground
Ground effect occurs when rotor downwash is interrupted by the ground surface, reducing induced drag and increasing lift efficiency within approximately one rotor diameter of the surface.
Question 29: Why is it important for remote pilots to maintain situational awareness?
- To navigate using visual line-of-sight
- To ensure their UAS operates within the GPS coordinates
- To understand and respond to the dynamic environment around them (Correct answer)
- To manage battery life efficiently
Correct answer: To understand and respond to the dynamic environment around them
Maintaining situational awareness is crucial for remote pilots because it allows them to understand and respond effectively to the dynamic environment around them. This involves continuously perceiving, comprehending, and projecting the status of the UAS, other aircraft, weather, terrain, and any potential hazards. High situational awareness enables timely and informed decision-making, significantly enhancing flight safety.
Question 30: What is the primary reason a remote pilot should allow their eyes 30 minutes to adapt to the darkness before a night flight?
- To improve night vision by allowing the rods in the eyes to become more sensitive to low light. (Correct answer)
- To reduce the risk of temporary blindness from the controller screen.
- To comply with a specific FAA mandate on pre-flight preparation time.
- To ensure the drone's anti-collision lights appear brighter.
Correct answer: To improve night vision by allowing the rods in the eyes to become more sensitive to low light.
The human eye uses two types of cells: cones for color and detail in bright light, and rods for vision in low light. It takes approximately 30 minutes for the rods to reach their maximum sensitivity, a process called dark adaptation, which is crucial for effective night vision.
Question 31: At an airport with a UNICOM frequency, what is its primary purpose?
- To provide air traffic control services.
- To provide airport advisory information from a non-government, ground-based station. (Correct answer)
- To communicate with military aircraft only.
- To broadcast automated weather information.
Correct answer: To provide airport advisory information from a non-government, ground-based station.
UNICOM (Universal Communications) is a non-government air/ground communication station which may provide airport information, such as weather, wind direction, and recommended runway. It is an advisory service, not a control service.
Question 32: (Refer to METAR: KXYZ 121853Z AUTO 18015G25KT 3SM -RA BKN008 OVC012 13/12 A2992) What is the reported ceiling?
- There is no ceiling reported.
- 1,200 feet AGL.
- 3 statute miles.
- 800 feet AGL. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 800 feet AGL.
A ceiling is defined as the height of the lowest layer of clouds reported as broken (BKN) or overcast (OVC). In this METAR, the lowest such layer is `BKN008`, which corresponds to a ceiling at 800 feet AGL.
Question 33: How does increasing altitude above sea level affect the relationship between true airspeed and indicated airspeed?
- True airspeed decreases relative to indicated airspeed as altitude increases
- Indicated airspeed is greater than true airspeed at higher altitudes
- True airspeed is greater than indicated airspeed at higher altitudes (Correct answer)
- True airspeed equals indicated airspeed at all altitudes
Correct answer: True airspeed is greater than indicated airspeed at higher altitudes
At higher altitudes with less dense air, the aircraft must move faster (true airspeed) to achieve the same dynamic pressure reading (indicated airspeed) as at sea level.
Question 34: What is the primary aerodynamic concern when operating an sUAS near large buildings or other tall structures?
- Reflections from building surfaces that interfere with optical flow sensors
- Increased air density near structures that reduces rotor efficiency
- Mechanical turbulence and unpredictable wind gusts caused by airflow disruption around the structures (Correct answer)
- Magnetic interference that disrupts compass sensors
Correct answer: Mechanical turbulence and unpredictable wind gusts caused by airflow disruption around the structures
Buildings disrupt smooth laminar airflow and create mechanical turbulence, eddies, and unpredictable gusts on the leeward side that can cause sudden and severe attitude excursions.
Question 35: Which statement is true regarding the use of vision aids for night drone operations?
- Night vision goggles (NVGs) are required for all Part 107 night flights.
- Sunglasses with yellow lenses are recommended to enhance contrast.
- The remote pilot must be able to see the drone with their own natural vision, without the aid of NVGs. (Correct answer)
- The remote pilot must not use any vision aids, relying only on unaided vision.
Correct answer: The remote pilot must be able to see the drone with their own natural vision, without the aid of NVGs.
While vision aids like binoculars can be used momentarily to scan the airspace, the remote pilot must maintain visual line of sight (VLOS) with the drone using their own natural, unassisted vision. Night vision goggles cannot be used as the primary means of maintaining VLOS.
Question 36: What are the characteristics of a stable air mass?
- Smooth air, poor visibility, and stratiform clouds. (Correct answer)
- Turbulent air, good visibility, and cumuliform clouds.
- Showery precipitation, strong surface winds, and good visibility.
- Thunderstorms, turbulence, and hail.
Correct answer: Smooth air, poor visibility, and stratiform clouds.
In a stable air mass, vertical air movement is resisted. This results in smooth air, poor visibility due to trapped haze and pollutants, and stratiform clouds with steady, continuous precipitation.
Question 37: Which of the following is an appropriate self-announcement on the CTAF for a drone operation?
- Springfield Traffic, drone operation, 2 miles northwest of the airport at 300 feet, Springfield Traffic. (Correct answer)
- Mayday, mayday, drone in the pattern.
- Drone one, taking off now.
- Manned aircraft, be advised of drone activity.
Correct answer: Springfield Traffic, drone operation, 2 miles northwest of the airport at 300 feet, Springfield Traffic.
A proper CTAF call includes the name of the airport you are near, your aircraft type (drone/UAS), your location relative to the airport, your altitude, and ends with the airport name again. This provides clear and concise information to other pilots.
Question 38: Under Part 107, what is the maximum groundspeed at which a sUAS can be operated?
- 87 knots (Correct answer)
- 100 knots
- 120 knots
- 50 knots
Correct answer: 87 knots
Under Part 107, the maximum groundspeed at which a sUAS can be operated is 87 knots (approximately 100 mph). This speed restriction is a safety measure designed to ensure that remote pilots have sufficient time to react to unexpected events and maintain control of the aircraft. It also helps prevent sUAS from posing an undue hazard to other airspace users due to excessive speed.
Question 39: How many sUAS may a single remote pilot operate simultaneously under Part 107?
- One at a time (Correct answer)
- As many as safely manageable
- Up to three with visual observers
- Two simultaneously
Correct answer: One at a time
Part 107 requires a remote pilot to operate only one sUAS at a time to ensure proper control and undivided attention.
Question 40: What system provides near real-time airspace authorization for UAS operations in controlled airspace?
- NOTAM
- LAANC (Correct answer)
- TFR portal
- PIREP system
Correct answer: LAANC
The Low Altitude Authorization and Notification Capability (LAANC) provides automated, near real-time airspace authorizations for UAS in controlled airspace.
Question 41: How is a private airport depicted on a sectional chart?
- As a blue circle with an "R" inside.
- As a magenta circle with an "R" inside. (Correct answer)
- As a solid blue circle.
- As an open magenta circle with the letter "Pvt" next to the airport name.
Correct answer: As a magenta circle with an "R" inside.
A private airport is shown as a circle with an "R" in the middle, depicted in magenta. The "R" signifies that it is a restricted or private airport, and prior permission is required for use.
Question 42: The acronym CTAF stands for:
- Control Tower Air Frequency
- Central Terminal Area Frequency
- Common Tower Advisory Frequency
- Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Common Traffic Advisory Frequency
CTAF stands for Common Traffic Advisory Frequency. It is the frequency used by pilots to communicate their positions and intentions near non-towered airports.
Question 43: Who is primarily responsible for ensuring an sUAS is loaded correctly and operated within weight and balance limitations?
- The owner of the sUAS.
- The Federal Aviation Administration (FAA).
- The sUAS manufacturer.
- The Remote Pilot in Command (PIC). (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The Remote Pilot in Command (PIC).
According to 14 CFR Part 107, the Remote Pilot in Command (PIC) is directly responsible for, and is the final authority on, the safe operation of the sUAS. This includes preflight checks of loading, weight, and balance.
Question 44: To operate a small UAS over people under Category 1, what two conditions must be met?
- The drone must have Remote ID and weigh less than 4.4 pounds.
- The drone must weigh 0.55 pounds or less and have no exposed rotating parts that could lacerate human skin. (Correct answer)
- The drone must be flown below 100 feet AGL and only over people involved in the operation.
- The drone must weigh 1.0 pound or less and have propeller guards.
Correct answer: The drone must weigh 0.55 pounds or less and have no exposed rotating parts that could lacerate human skin.
Category 1 operations have the least stringent requirements because the drones are very light. The drone must have a maximum takeoff weight of 0.55 pounds (250 grams) or less, and it must not contain any exposed rotating parts that could cut skin upon impact.
Question 45: Under Part 107, a person may NOT act as remote PIC or visual observer while:
- Under the influence of alcohol or any drug that affects their faculties (Correct answer)
- Using prescription eyeglasses or contact lenses
- Consuming caffeine within 8 hours of flight
- Taking any over-the-counter medication
Correct answer: Under the influence of alcohol or any drug that affects their faculties
Part 107 prohibits acting as remote PIC or visual observer while impaired by alcohol, drugs, or any substance that adversely affects the person's faculties.
Question 46: An sUAS is loaded with its center of gravity (CG) at the most aft limit. What flight characteristic should the remote pilot expect?
- The sUAS will be excessively stable.
- The sUAS will be unstable and difficult to recover from a stall. (Correct answer)
- The sUAS will require less power for level flight.
- The sUAS will be less maneuverable.
Correct answer: The sUAS will be unstable and difficult to recover from a stall.
An aft CG reduces longitudinal stability, making the aircraft tail-heavy and twitchy in the pitch axis. This instability makes it very difficult to recover from a stall, as the aircraft may not have enough elevator authority to lower the nose.
Question 47: In the event of a near-miss with a manned aircraft, what action should a Remote Pilot take?
- File a report with the National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB)
- Only report if instructed by an FAA official
- Report the incident to the FAA as soon as possible (Correct answer)
- Ignore the incident if no damage occurred
Correct answer: Report the incident to the FAA as soon as possible
In the event of a near-miss with a manned aircraft, the Remote Pilot should report the incident to the FAA as soon as possible. While specific reporting criteria exist for serious injury or significant property damage, any incident involving a near-miss with manned aircraft is a serious safety concern that warrants immediate attention. Prompt reporting allows the FAA to investigate, identify potential risks, and implement measures to prevent future occurrences, thereby enhancing overall airspace safety.
Question 48: What role does communication play in mitigating human factors issues in unmanned aircraft operations?
- Reducing the complexity of flight planning
- Ensuring that the aircraft is always visible to the operator
- Limiting the use of automation
- Facilitating clear and effective information exchange between team members and other stakeholders (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Facilitating clear and effective information exchange between team members and other stakeholders
Clear and effective communication is crucial for mitigating human factors issues in sUAS operations. It ensures that all team members, including the Remote Pilot in Command (RPIC) and Visual Observers (VOs), share critical information, understand their roles, and are aware of potential hazards. This proactive information exchange reduces misunderstandings, prevents errors, and enhances overall operational safety and coordination.
Question 49: How does increased payload weight primarily affect the hover efficiency of a multirotor sUAS?
- It improves hover efficiency by stabilizing the aircraft
- It has no effect on hover efficiency below maximum takeoff weight
- It reduces power consumption because added weight pushes air down more effectively
- It reduces hover efficiency by requiring higher RPMs, increasing power consumption and reducing flight time (Correct answer)
Correct answer: It reduces hover efficiency by requiring higher RPMs, increasing power consumption and reducing flight time
Heavier weight requires more thrust, demanding higher motor RPMs that consume more battery power, directly reducing hover endurance and overall flight time.
Question 50: Which combination of conditions would lead to the highest density altitude?
- High altitude, high temperature, and high humidity. (Correct answer)
- Low altitude, high temperature, and low humidity.
- Low altitude, low temperature, and low humidity.
- High altitude, low temperature, and low humidity.
Correct answer: High altitude, high temperature, and high humidity.
Density altitude increases with higher elevation, higher temperatures, and higher humidity. Therefore, a hot, humid day at a high-elevation airport will produce the highest density altitude and the worst aircraft performance.
Question 51: Under Part 107, transporting hazardous materials with a sUAS is:
- Prohibited unless an FAA waiver is obtained (Correct answer)
- Always prohibited with absolutely no exceptions
- Allowed in Class G airspace with proper packaging
- Allowed for government agencies without restriction
Correct answer: Prohibited unless an FAA waiver is obtained
The carriage of hazardous materials by sUAS is prohibited under Part 107 unless the FAA has specifically granted a waiver for that operation.
Question 52: What is a potential effect of operating an sUAS above its maximum gross weight?
- Reduced maneuverability and endurance. (Correct answer)
- Improved maneuverability.
- Lower stalling speed.
- Increased flight time.
Correct answer: Reduced maneuverability and endurance.
Operating an aircraft above its maximum gross weight requires more power to generate the necessary lift, which significantly reduces flight time and endurance. The increased mass also makes the aircraft less responsive to control inputs.
Question 53: How can a strong tailwind affect an sUAS during high-speed forward flight?
- A strong tailwind reduces relative airspeed over the rotors, decreasing control effectiveness and lift efficiency (Correct answer)
- Tailwinds cool the motors by increasing airflow, improving overall efficiency
- A tailwind always improves performance by adding to ground speed
- Tailwinds have no aerodynamic effect on multirotor sUAS
Correct answer: A strong tailwind reduces relative airspeed over the rotors, decreasing control effectiveness and lift efficiency
Rotor lift and control authority depend on relative airspeed — a strong tailwind reduces the relative wind over the rotors, degrading lift efficiency and pitch/roll control response.
Question 54: When flying an sUAS, structural icing is most likely to form when:
- Flying through visible moisture at temperatures at or below freezing. (Correct answer)
- The relative humidity is 100%, regardless of temperature.
- Flying at any altitude above the freezing level.
- The temperature is below freezing and the air is dry.
Correct answer: Flying through visible moisture at temperatures at or below freezing.
For structural ice to form, two conditions must be met: the aircraft must be flying through visible moisture (like clouds or freezing rain), and the temperature of the aircraft surface must be at or below freezing (0°C).
Question 55: For the purposes of Part 107, "night" is defined as the time between:
- 30 minutes after sunset to 30 minutes before sunrise.
- Sunset and sunrise.
- 10:00 PM and 6:00 AM local time.
- The end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.
Part 107 defines night as the time from the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight, as published in the Air Almanac. This is a more precise definition than simply sunset to sunrise.
Question 56: If a new payload is added to an sUAS, what must the Remote PIC do before flight?
- Assume the flight characteristics will not change.
- Fly a brief test flight in a congested area.
- Recalculate weight and balance to ensure it is within limits. (Correct answer)
- Notify the FAA of the modification.
Correct answer: Recalculate weight and balance to ensure it is within limits.
Any change to the aircraft's loading, such as adding a new camera or sensor, requires the Remote PIC to verify that the total weight and the new center of gravity are within the manufacturer's specified limits. This is a critical preflight action.
Question 57: What is the standard direction for turns in a traffic pattern at an airport?
- Turns away from the airport
- Right turns
- Turns toward the airport
- Left turns (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Left turns
Unless otherwise specified, all turns in an airport traffic pattern are made to the left. Any right-hand patterns will be explicitly noted in the Chart Supplement or on the sectional chart.
Question 58: Before a remote pilot can conduct night operations, what must they do?
- Complete an initial aeronautical knowledge test or recurrent training covering night operations. (Correct answer)
- Equip the drone with infrared cameras.
- Log at least 3 hours of night flight time in a simulator.
- Obtain a specific night operations waiver from the FAA.
Correct answer: Complete an initial aeronautical knowledge test or recurrent training covering night operations.
The FAA updated the rules to allow night operations without a waiver, provided the remote pilot completes an updated initial knowledge test or the recurrent online training that covers topics related to night operations. This ensures the pilot is knowledgeable about night-specific risks and procedures.
Question 59: Why do most multirotor sUAS use counter-rotating propellers on opposite arms?
- They cancel out the reactive torque effect, preventing the aircraft body from spinning (Correct answer)
- Counter-rotating propellers are significantly quieter than same-direction propellers
- They reduce electrical interference between adjacent motors
- Counter-rotating propellers generate more total lift per unit of power
Correct answer: They cancel out the reactive torque effect, preventing the aircraft body from spinning
Each spinning rotor creates reactive torque that would rotate the aircraft body opposite to the rotor's direction; counter-rotating pairs cancel these torques to maintain yaw stability.
Question 60: For the purpose of Part 107 operations over people, the flight is not considered to be 'over' people if...
- the people are wearing protective headwear.
- the people have given their consent to be flown over.
- the drone passes over them so quickly that it is not sustained. (Correct answer)
- the drone is at least 200 feet above the people.
Correct answer: the drone passes over them so quickly that it is not sustained.
The FAA clarifies that a brief, transient passage over a person is not the focus of the rule. The rule applies to sustained flight over people, such as hovering or circling. A drone that passes over a person for a brief moment is not considered to be operating 'over' them in the context of this rule.
FAA Part 107 Remote Pilot Knowledge Test
The FAA Part 107 Remote Pilot Knowledge Test certifies individuals to operate small unmanned aircraft systems (sUAS) commercially under 55 lbs, covering regulations, airspace, weather, operations, and aeronautical decision-making.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds