Test of Essential Academic Skills (TEAS) — Questions and Answers
Question 1: The ship moaned in the storm as she battled the ocean's waves. What kind of metaphorical expression is this?
- Exaggeration
- Metaphor
- Simile
- Personification (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Personification
Personification is a literary device where human qualities or actions are attributed to inanimate objects or abstract ideas. In the sentence, the ship is described as 'moaning' and 'battling,' which are actions and emotions typically associated with humans. This technique gives life to the ship and creates a more vivid and engaging image for the reader.
Question 2: Jonathan Swift’s dark view of humanity is expressed in his novel Gulliver’s Travels(1726). Swift believed that society, which is meant to protect people from inequality and injustice, actually encourages the worst evils, promotes immorality, and allows injustices to occur. In Gulliver’s Travels, Swift asks whether “civilization” is only an elaborate cover for the lowest forms of human behavior. Swift raises this question through satire, a literary form which he brings to perfection in Gulliver’s Travels. Following in the great tradition of classical satirists, Swift uses Gulliver’s Travels to point out the underlying ridiculousness of the society around him. In one section of Gulliver’s Travels, for example, Gulliver describes his native England to the king of a land of giants. Gulliver talks enthusiastically to the giant king about the class system, laws, constitution, military glory, and history of his homeland. After carefully listening to Gulliver’s speech, however, the king proceeds to point out the many shortcomings of Gulliver’s native land. Gulliver is unable to come up with adequate responses to the criticism. He can only stand there in embarrassed silence as the king eventually concludes that the institutions of the human world should be condemned. The author uses quotation marks around the word “civilization” in the first paragraph to convey
- wit
- skepticism (Correct answer)
- studiousness
- anger
Correct answer: skepticism
The use of quotation marks around 'civilization' in the context of Swift asking if it's 'only an elaborate cover for the lowest forms of human behavior' indicates doubt or questioning of the term's true meaning or value. This punctuation suggests that the concept of civilization, as commonly understood, might not be what it appears, conveying a sense of skepticism about its genuine nature.
Question 3: What does 'omniscient' mean based on its Latin roots?
- Knowing one thing
- Knowing the future
- Knowing everything (Correct answer)
- Knowing nothing
Correct answer: Knowing everything
'Omni' means 'all' and 'scient' means 'knowing,' so omniscient means all-knowing.
Question 4: Simplify: (3x²y)(4xy³)
- 7x³y⁴
- 12x³y⁴ (Correct answer)
- 7x²y³
- 12x²y³
Correct answer: 12x³y⁴
Multiply coefficients (3×4=12) and add exponents for like bases: x^(2+1)=x³, y^(1+3)=y⁴.
Question 5: Evaluate the expression x² - 2x when x = 3.
- 3 (Correct answer)
- 15
- 9
- 6
Correct answer: 3
3² - 2(3) = 9 - 6 = 3.
Question 6: What is the value of 3/4 + 2/3?
- 5/7
- 6/7
- 17/12 (Correct answer)
- 5/12
Correct answer: 17/12
Convert to a common denominator of 12: 9/12 + 8/12 = 17/12.
Question 7: Solve for x: |x - 5| = 3
- x = -2 or x = -8
- x = 8 only
- x = 2 only
- x = 2 or x = 8 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: x = 2 or x = 8
The absolute value equation |x - 5| = 3 has two solutions: x - 5 = 3 (x = 8) or x - 5 = -3 (x = 2).
Question 8: A car travels 315 miles on 10.5 gallons of gas. What is the car's fuel efficiency in miles per gallon?
- 28 mpg
- 30 mpg (Correct answer)
- 25 mpg
- 32 mpg
Correct answer: 30 mpg
Divide distance by gallons: 315 ÷ 10.5 = 30 miles per gallon.
Question 9: Which type of muscle tissue is found in the walls of the digestive tract and blood vessels?
- Striated muscle
- Smooth muscle (Correct answer)
- Skeletal muscle
- Cardiac muscle
Correct answer: Smooth muscle
Smooth muscle is involuntary and non-striated, found in hollow organs like the intestines, stomach, bladder, and blood vessel walls. Cardiac muscle is found only in the heart, and skeletal muscle is responsible for voluntary movement.
Question 10: Which revision BEST corrects the dangling modifier in the following sentence? 'The nurse administered the medication after being examined.'
- The patient was administered medication by the nurse after being examined.
- After being examined, the medication was administered by the nurse.
- The nurse administered the medication after the patient was examined. (Correct answer)
- The medication was administered after the nurse examined.
Correct answer: The nurse administered the medication after the patient was examined.
The original sentence implies the nurse was examined, which is illogical. Option A clarifies that the patient was examined by making the patient the explicit subject of that clause.
Question 11: Which word correctly completes the sentence: 'The doctor's _____ manner reassured the anxious patient'?
- effectual
- affable (Correct answer)
- affect
- effect
Correct answer: affable
'Affable' means friendly and easy to talk to, fitting the context of a reassuring manner.
Question 12: What is 30% of 250?
- 75 (Correct answer)
- 65
- 70
- 80
Correct answer: 75
30% of 250 = 0.30 × 250 = 75.
Question 13: Read: 'The new hospital director cut the physical therapy department's budget by 25% while simultaneously approving a $2 million renovation of the executive suites.' What can be inferred about the director's priorities?
- The director is making budget cuts uniformly across all departments.
- The director values patient rehabilitation services highly.
- The director is following orders from the hospital board.
- The director prioritizes administrative comfort over clinical services. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The director prioritizes administrative comfort over clinical services.
Cutting patient services while spending on executive spaces implies the director places higher priority on administrative amenities than patient care — this is a reasonable inference from the contrasting actions.
Question 14: Which word is a synonym for "diligent"?
- Careless
- Industrious (Correct answer)
- Negligent
- Impulsive
Correct answer: Industrious
"Diligent" means showing careful and persistent effort. "Industrious" is its synonym, meaning hardworking and energetic. "Negligent" and "careless" are antonyms.
Question 15: Which of the following BEST describes the difference between a fact and an opinion?
- Facts can be verified through evidence; opinions express personal views or judgments (Correct answer)
- Facts require no proof; opinions require extensive evidence
- Facts are always true; opinions can be true or false
- Facts are found in textbooks; opinions are found in newspapers
Correct answer: Facts can be verified through evidence; opinions express personal views or judgments
Facts are objectively verifiable claims supported by evidence; opinions express personal views, beliefs, or value judgments that may not be verifiable.
Question 16: A triangular garden has a base of 14 meters and a height of 9 meters. What is its area?
- 126 m²
- 23 m²
- 63 m² (Correct answer)
- 45 m²
Correct answer: 63 m²
The area of a triangle is A = ½ × base × height = ½ × 14 × 9 = ½ × 126 = 63 m².
Question 17: Read this passage: 'Maria studied for her nursing exam every evening for three weeks. On the day of the test, she arrived early, felt calm, and answered each question methodically.' What inference can be drawn?
- Maria found the exam extremely difficult.
- Maria had taken the exam before.
- The exam was shorter than expected.
- Maria's preparation likely contributed to her composure during the exam. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Maria's preparation likely contributed to her composure during the exam.
The passage links consistent studying (cause) with calm, methodical performance on exam day (effect). This supports the inference that her preparation contributed to her composure. No information supports the other answer choices.
Question 18: The exterminators ________ increased the fire ant population by using a pesticide that killed a hunting instinct of the organisms.
- Inadvertently (Correct answer)
- Unsuccessfully
- Ideally
- Auspiciously
Correct answer: Inadvertently
The exterminators' goal was to reduce the fire ant population, but their pesticide unexpectedly "increased" it by killing a hunting instinct. "Inadvertently" means without intention; accidentally. This word accurately describes an unintended and counterproductive outcome of their actions.
Question 19: Which part of the neuron transmits electrical impulses away from the cell body?
- Dendrite
- Myelin sheath
- Axon (Correct answer)
- Nucleus
Correct answer: Axon
The axon is the long projection of a neuron that carries electrical impulses (action potentials) away from the cell body toward other neurons, muscles, or glands. Dendrites receive signals toward the cell body.
Question 20: Choose the correctly spelled word.
- Recieve
- Receive (Correct answer)
- Receve
- Receeve
Correct answer: Receive
'Receive' follows the 'i before e except after c' rule.
Question 21: Which best reflects Sonja and Gabriela's relationship based on the memo above?
- Sonja is Gabriela’s boss
- Gabriela is Sonja’s boss
- Sonja and Gabriela work in the Human Resources Department together.
- Sonja and Gabriela run the business together (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Sonja and Gabriela run the business together
The phrase 'run the business together' implies a partnership or co-leadership role between Sonja and Gabriela. This suggests they share responsibilities and decision-making authority at a high level within the organization, rather than one being subordinate to the other or merely colleagues in a department.
Question 22: A data set contains the values 10, 20, 30, 40, and 200. Which measure of central tendency would BEST represent this data without being distorted by the outlier?
- Mean, because it uses every value in the calculation
- Median, because it is resistant to the effect of extreme outliers (Correct answer)
- Range, because it captures the full spread of the data
- Mode, because it reflects the most frequently occurring value
Correct answer: Median, because it is resistant to the effect of extreme outliers
The median — the middle value when data is ordered — is not pulled by extreme outliers. Here the median is 30. The mean would be (10+20+30+40+200)/5 = 60, which does not represent the bulk of the data well.
Question 23: Which of the following is an example of passive voice?
- The nurse has administered the medication.
- The nurse administered the medication.
- The medication was administered by the nurse. (Correct answer)
- The nurse will administer the medication tomorrow.
Correct answer: The medication was administered by the nurse.
Passive voice occurs when the subject receives the action rather than performing it.
Question 24: Which of the following most accurately represents the author's intent?
- Convince a colleague that they should do more research on where to open a second location.
- Position herself as a more powerful leader than Gabriela.
- Revitalize a struggling business by opening a second location.
- Improve a successful business by opening a second location. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Improve a successful business by opening a second location.
The author's intent to 'improve a successful business' indicates a proactive strategy for growth and enhancement, building upon an already strong foundation. If the business were struggling, the intent would likely be to 'revitalize' it. This choice suggests a positive current state and a desire for further expansion and betterment.
Question 25: In plants, ________ involves the formation of a _____?
- cytokinesis, cleavage furrow
- prophase, DNA
- telophase, cell plate
- cytokinesis, cell plate (Correct answer)
Correct answer: cytokinesis, cell plate
Cytokinesis is the final stage of cell division, where the cytoplasm divides to form two distinct daughter cells. In plant cells, due to the presence of a rigid cell wall, a cleavage furrow cannot form. Instead, a cell plate forms in the middle of the cell, growing outwards to eventually fuse with the existing cell wall and create two separate cells.
Question 26: Which of these about the frog is true?
- It is a member of the salamandridae family.
- It is closer to most tetrapods than to most newts.
- It is a non-vertebrate.
- It is a type of amphibian. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: It is a type of amphibian.
Frogs are classic examples of amphibians, a class of vertebrates known for their dual life cycle, typically involving an aquatic larval stage and a terrestrial adult stage. They possess moist, permeable skin and rely on water for reproduction. This classification distinguishes them from reptiles, fish, or non-vertebrates.
Question 27: Which sentence uses a semicolon correctly?
- I was tired; so I went to bed.
- She studied hard; she passed the exam. (Correct answer)
- We left early; because of the storm.
- He likes coffee; and tea.
Correct answer: She studied hard; she passed the exam.
A semicolon joins two independent clauses without a coordinating conjunction.
Question 28: A public health report states: 'Vaccination coverage among children aged 2 years reached 91% for the MMR vaccine in 2023, yet measles outbreaks continue to occur in communities with geographic clustering of unvaccinated individuals. Herd immunity thresholds of 95% are required to prevent sustained transmission.' What conclusion is best supported by this passage?
- Overall vaccination rates are high enough to eliminate measles outbreaks nationwide
- Geographic concentration of unvaccinated individuals can undermine population-level immunity even when average coverage appears adequate (Correct answer)
- The MMR vaccine is less effective than previously reported
- Herd immunity thresholds should be lowered to match current vaccination rates
Correct answer: Geographic concentration of unvaccinated individuals can undermine population-level immunity even when average coverage appears adequate
The passage explicitly links continued outbreaks not to low overall rates but to clustering of unvaccinated individuals, and notes the 95% threshold has not been met — directly supporting that geographic concentration undermines protection even when averages look acceptable.
Question 29: (7<em>y</em><sup><span style="font-size: small;">2</span></sup> + 3<em>xy</em> − 9) − (2<em>y</em><sup><span style="font-size: small;">2</span></sup> + 3<em>xy</em> − 5)
- 5<em>y</em><sup><span style="font-size: small;">2</span></sup> − 4 (Correct answer)
- 9<em>y</em><sup><span style="font-size: small;">2</span></sup> + 6<em>xy</em> − 14
- 5<em>y</em><sup><span style="font-size: small;">2</span></sup> + 4
- 5<em>y</em><sup><span style="font-size: small;">2</span></sup> + 6<em>xy</em> − 14
Correct answer: 5<em>y</em><sup><span style="font-size: small;">2</span></sup> − 4
To subtract these polynomials, distribute the negative sign to each term in the second parenthesis: (7y² + 3xy − 9) + (−2y² − 3xy + 5). Now, combine like terms. For the y² terms: 7y² − 2y² = 5y². For the xy terms: 3xy − 3xy = 0. For the constant terms: −9 + 5 = −4. Combining these results gives 5y² − 4.
Question 30: Which word BEST completes the blank to maintain a formal, professional tone in a clinical summary? 'Following the intervention, the patient's respiratory function ___ markedly.'
- bounced back
- got way better
- picked up
- improved (Correct answer)
Correct answer: improved
'Improved' is precise, formal, and appropriate for a clinical document. The other options are colloquial idioms ('got way better,' 'bounced back,' 'picked up') that would be inappropriate in a professional medical record.
Question 31: A nursing student scores 78, 84, 91, and 87 on four exams. What is her mean score?
- 85 (Correct answer)
- 83.5
- 82.5
- 87
Correct answer: 85
Mean = sum of all values ÷ number of values = (78 + 84 + 91 + 87) ÷ 4 = 340 ÷ 4 = 85.
Question 32: With an unlimited number of transfers, what is the minimum number of stops when travelling from Argyle to Kelvinhall, assuming trains run in both directions throughout all lines?
- 8
- 6
- 5 (Correct answer)
- 4
Correct answer: 5
This question requires a map of the underground and suburban rail lines. To find the minimum number of stops from Argyle to Kelvinhall, one would trace the most efficient route, counting each stop along the way, including any transfer points. The correct answer of 5 indicates that, on the provided map, there are 5 stops along the shortest path between these two locations.
Question 33: Which revision BEST improves the following sentence by converting it from passive to active voice? 'The experiment was conducted by the researchers, and the data were analyzed by them.'
- The experiment and the data were both conducted and analyzed.
- Conducting the experiment, the data were analyzed by the researchers.
- The researchers conducted the experiment and analyzed the data. (Correct answer)
- By the researchers, the experiment was conducted and the data were analyzed.
Correct answer: The researchers conducted the experiment and analyzed the data.
Active voice places the subject (researchers) before the verb (conducted, analyzed), producing a cleaner and more direct sentence. Options B, C, and D remain passive, awkward, or logically unclear.
Question 34: Which sentence correctly uses an apostrophe to show possession for a plural noun?
- The nurse's station was busy.
- The nurses's station was busy.
- The nurses' station was busy. (Correct answer)
- The nurses station was busy.
Correct answer: The nurses' station was busy.
For plural nouns already ending in 's,' add only an apostrophe after the 's' to show possession.
Question 35: Read the sentence: 'Her stoic expression betrayed no emotion even as she received the devastating diagnosis.' What does 'stoic' most nearly mean?
- Tearful and visibly distressed
- Confused and uncertain about the situation
- Angry and openly resentful toward others
- Calm and showing no outward emotion (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Calm and showing no outward emotion
The context clue 'betrayed no emotion' directly tells the reader that stoic describes someone who does not express their feelings outwardly, even under hardship.
Question 36: Solve the inequality: x + 6 < 10.
- x > 16
- x < 4 (Correct answer)
- x > 4
- x < 16
Correct answer: x < 4
Subtract 6 from both sides to get x < 4.
Question 37: Which sentence correctly uses 'who' versus 'whom'?
- Who did you give it to?
- Whom went to the clinic?
- Whom is calling?
- To whom did you give the report? (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To whom did you give the report?
'Whom' is the object of the preposition 'to' in this sentence.
Question 38: Which sentence is written in the passive voice?
- The pharmacist carefully counted the pills.
- The pharmacist dispensed the medication.
- The medication was dispensed by the pharmacist. (Correct answer)
- The patient received the prescription.
Correct answer: The medication was dispensed by the pharmacist.
In passive voice, the subject receives the action. 'The medication was dispensed by the pharmacist' — 'medication' (subject) receives the action of being dispensed.
Question 39: An unknown element is found to contain 45 protons and an atomic mass of 64, what is its atomic number?
- 19
- 64
- It cannot be determined.
- 45 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 45
The atomic number of an element is solely determined by the number of protons in its nucleus. In this case, the unknown element contains 45 protons, so its atomic number is 45. The atomic mass (64) is the sum of protons and neutrons, but it does not define the element's atomic number.
Question 40: The stomach is _____ to the small intestine. Which of the following correctly completes the sentence above?
- superior (Correct answer)
- posterior
- lateral
- proximal
Correct answer: superior
In anatomical terms, 'superior' refers to a position above or closer to the head. The stomach is located in the upper part of the abdominal cavity, positioned above the small intestine. Therefore, the stomach is anatomically superior to the small intestine.
Question 41: Read this headline: 'New Drug Cures All Cases of Rare Disease in Small Study.' What critical question should a reader ask first?
- Who manufactured the drug?
- What is the drug's brand name?
- How small was the study, and can results from a small study be generalized? (Correct answer)
- Why is the disease rare?
Correct answer: How small was the study, and can results from a small study be generalized?
Small studies may not produce reliable, generalizable results due to limited sample size — asking about the sample size is the most critical first evaluation of a sensational health claim.
Question 42: Which sentence uses punctuation correctly?
- The nurse checked the patient's vitals temperature and, blood pressure.
- The nurse checked the patients vitals temperature, and blood pressure.
- The nurse checked the patient's vitals, temperature, and blood pressure. (Correct answer)
- The nurse checked the patients, vitals, temperature, and blood pressure.
Correct answer: The nurse checked the patient's vitals, temperature, and blood pressure.
The apostrophe in 'patient's' shows possession, and commas correctly separate the items in the series (vitals, temperature, and blood pressure).
Question 43: Which sentence contains a misplaced modifier?
- He quietly left the hospital room.
- She almost drove her kids to school every day. (Correct answer)
- The nurse carefully reviewed the chart.
- The patient only needs one tablet per day.
Correct answer: She almost drove her kids to school every day.
'Almost' is misplaced; the intended meaning is she drove them to school on almost every day.
Question 44: What is 15% of 240?
- 40
- 36 (Correct answer)
- 30
- 24
Correct answer: 36
15% of 240 = 0.15 × 240 = 36.
Question 45: What distinguishes a "central idea" from a "theme" in reading?
- Central ideas are shorter than themes
- Central ideas are found only in fiction; themes are found only in nonfiction
- A theme is always stated explicitly; a central idea must be inferred
- A central idea is the specific main point of a nonfiction text; a theme is a universal message in literary text (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A central idea is the specific main point of a nonfiction text; a theme is a universal message in literary text
In nonfiction, the "central idea" or "main idea" is the specific argument or point the author makes. In literary texts, "theme" is an abstract, universal message about life. Both may be implicit, but neither is always stated directly.
Question 46: A patient consent form uses complex medical terminology. Which adaptation best improves health literacy?
- Add a glossary and use plain language explanations alongside medical terms (Correct answer)
- Replace the text with images only
- Remove all medical terms from the form
- Shorten the form by removing the definitions section
Correct answer: Add a glossary and use plain language explanations alongside medical terms
Health literacy research supports using plain language alongside medical terms with a glossary. This allows patients to understand their care while maintaining medical accuracy — a critical balance in healthcare communication.
Question 47: Which of the following is an example of a compound sentence?
- The patient was stable, but the doctor ordered more tests. (Correct answer)
- The nurse checked the patient's vitals.
- After reviewing the chart, the doctor made her decision.
- Running late, she skipped breakfast.
Correct answer: The patient was stable, but the doctor ordered more tests.
A compound sentence joins two independent clauses with a coordinating conjunction. "The patient was stable" and "the doctor ordered more tests" are both independent clauses joined by "but."
Question 48: The main point of the writer's argument in the passage is ______.
- Swift’s depiction of human nature (Correct answer)
- the inspiration behind the character of Gulliver
- Swift’s hatred for humanity
- civilization’s weaknesses
Correct answer: Swift’s depiction of human nature
Jonathan Swift's *Gulliver's Travels* is renowned as a masterful work of satire that critically examines human nature and society. The passage likely delves into how Swift uses Gulliver's encounters with various fantastical societies to expose the flaws, follies, and moral failings inherent in humanity. Therefore, "Swift’s depiction of human nature" is the central theme of the writer's argument.
Question 49: Which of the following describes the concept of "homeostasis"?
- The body's ability to grow new cells after injury
- The genetic inheritance of traits from parent to offspring
- The process by which hormones are broken down and eliminated
- The maintenance of a stable internal environment despite external changes (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The maintenance of a stable internal environment despite external changes
Homeostasis is the body's ability to maintain a relatively stable internal environment (temperature, pH, blood glucose, etc.) through regulatory feedback mechanisms, despite changes in external conditions.
Question 50: Which blood vessels carry oxygen-rich blood away from the heart to the body?
- Arteries (Correct answer)
- Veins
- Venules
- Capillaries
Correct answer: Arteries
Arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart (except the pulmonary artery).
Question 51: What is the "main idea" of a passage?
- The most interesting detail in the passage
- The topic of the passage itself
- The central point the author wants to convey about the topic (Correct answer)
- The first sentence of the passage
Correct answer: The central point the author wants to convey about the topic
The main idea is the central message or argument the author is making — not just the topic (what the passage is about) but what the author is saying about that topic.
Question 52: Business letters are largely _________ , conveying unadorned information in a clear manner.
- Patronizing
- Superfluous
- Opaque
- Functional (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Functional
The phrase "conveying unadorned information in a clear manner" describes something that serves a practical and efficient purpose. "Functional" means designed to be practical and useful rather than attractive or decorative. This word accurately characterizes business letters as direct and purposeful in their communication.
Question 53: Simplify: 4x² + 3x - 2x² + 5x - 1
- 2x² + 8x - 1 (Correct answer)
- 6x² + 2x + 1
- 2x² + 2x - 1
- 6x² + 8x - 1
Correct answer: 2x² + 8x - 1
Combine like terms: (4x² - 2x²) = 2x², (3x + 5x) = 8x, and the constant -1. Result: 2x² + 8x - 1.
Question 54: A bag contains 5 red marbles, 3 blue marbles, and 2 green marbles. What is the probability of randomly selecting a blue marble?
- 1/3
- 3/10 (Correct answer)
- 1/5
- 3/7
Correct answer: 3/10
Total marbles: 5+3+2 = 10. Blue marbles: 3. Probability = 3/10.
Question 55: Which type of graph would best indicate the percentage of a school’s annual scholarship fund spent on freshman students?
- line graph
- pie chart (Correct answer)
- histogram
- scatter plot
Correct answer: pie chart
A pie chart is the best type of graph to indicate the percentage of a whole that is spent on a particular category. It visually represents parts of a whole, making it easy to see the proportion of the scholarship fund allocated to freshman students compared to other groups or the total. Other graph types like line graphs or scatter plots are better for showing trends or relationships between variables over time, not proportions of a total.
Question 56: You come across a vocabulary term with a superscript while reading a textbook. You want to find out more about it. Where should you start looking?
- The textbook's glossary
- The textbook's index
- A reference dictionary
- The textbook's footnote (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The textbook's footnote
A superscript in a textbook typically indicates a footnote, which provides additional information, clarification, or a source citation at the bottom of the page. Footnotes are specifically designed to elaborate on or reference content marked with a superscript in the main text. Therefore, to find out more about a term marked with a superscript, the footnote is the most direct and intended place to look.
Question 57: A nurse must administer 45 mg of medication. The available dose is 15 mg per tablet. How many tablets are needed?
- 5
- 4
- 3 (Correct answer)
- 2
Correct answer: 3
Number of tablets = desired dose ÷ dose per tablet = 45 ÷ 15 = 3 tablets.
Question 58: A book typically costs $28. How much is the sales price of the book if it is "20% off"?
- $25.20
- $5.60
- $22.40 (Correct answer)
- $21.20
Correct answer: $22.40
To find the sales price of the book with a 20% discount, first calculate the discount amount. 20% of $28 is 0.20 × $28 = $5.60. Then, subtract the discount from the original price: $28 - $5.60 = $22.40. Alternatively, if the book is 20% off, you are paying 80% of the original price, so 0.80 × $28 = $22.40.
Question 59: Jonathan Swift’s dark view of humanity is expressed in his novel Gulliver’s Travels(1726). Swift believed that society, which is meant to protect people from inequality and injustice, actually encourages the worst evils, promotes immorality, and allows injustices to occur. In Gulliver’s Travels, Swift asks whether “civilization” is only an elaborate cover for the lowest forms of human behavior. Swift raises this question through satire, a literary form which he brings to perfection in Gulliver’s Travels. Following in the great tradition of classical satirists, Swift uses Gulliver’s Travels to point out the underlying ridiculousness of the society around him. In one section of Gulliver’s Travels, for example, Gulliver describes his native England to the king of a land of giants. Gulliver talks enthusiastically to the giant king about the class system, laws, constitution, military glory, and history of his homeland. After carefully listening to Gulliver’s speech, however, the king proceeds to point out the many shortcomings of Gulliver’s native land. Gulliver is unable to come up with adequate responses to the criticism. He can only stand there in embarrassed silence as the king eventually concludes that the institutions of the human world should be condemned. Which of the following questions is NOT answered in the passage?
- What did Swift consider to be the lowest forms of human behavior? (Correct answer)
- What did Swift believe about the true nature of society?
- What is Gulliver’s response to the giant king’s criticisms of England?
- How does Gulliver describe his native England to the giant king?
Correct answer: What did Swift consider to be the lowest forms of human behavior?
While the passage states Swift questions whether 'civilization' is a cover for 'the lowest forms of human behavior,' it never explicitly defines or lists what those specific behaviors are according to Swift. The passage provides answers to the other questions, such as Gulliver's response, Swift's belief about society, and how Gulliver described England.
Question 60: A passage has three paragraphs: the first describes symptoms of dehydration, the second explains physiological causes, and the third outlines prevention strategies. Which text structure does this passage use?
- Compare and contrast
- Cause and effect
- Chronological order
- Problem and solution (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Problem and solution
The passage moves from identifying a problem (dehydration symptoms and causes) to offering a solution (prevention strategies). This fits the problem-and-solution text structure. Cause and effect might apply to one section, but the overall arc is problem → solution.
Question 61: Newton's first law of motion is also known as the law of what?
- Action-reaction
- Gravity
- Inertia (Correct answer)
- Acceleration
Correct answer: Inertia
Newton's first law states objects resist changes in motion, the principle of inertia.
Question 62: Which of these is NOT a part of DNA?
- adenine
- uracil (Correct answer)
- guanine
- cytosine
Correct answer: uracil
DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) is composed of four nitrogenous bases: adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), and thymine (T). Uracil (U) is a nitrogenous base found in RNA (ribonucleic acid), where it replaces thymine. Therefore, uracil is not a component of DNA.
Question 63: Which type of chemical bond involves the sharing of electron pairs between atoms?
- Covalent bond (Correct answer)
- Metallic bond
- Ionic bond
- Hydrogen bond
Correct answer: Covalent bond
Covalent bonds form when atoms share one or more pairs of electrons, as opposed to ionic bonds where electrons are transferred from one atom to another.
Question 64: During photosynthesis, what physical-science energy conversion occurs?
- Heat to sound
- Light to chemical energy (Correct answer)
- Nuclear to thermal
- Electrical to mechanical
Correct answer: Light to chemical energy
Photosynthesis converts light energy into stored chemical energy.
Question 65: Which type of joint allows movement in many directions, such as the shoulder?
- Ball-and-socket joint (Correct answer)
- Pivot joint
- Hinge joint
- Gliding joint
Correct answer: Ball-and-socket joint
A ball-and-socket joint, like the shoulder and hip, permits a wide range of rotational movement.
Question 66: Which word is a preposition in: 'The book is on the table'?
- Is
- Book
- On (Correct answer)
- Table
Correct answer: On
'On' shows the relationship between the book and the table.
Question 67: The pancreas releases insulin in response to which condition?
- High body temperature
- Low blood glucose
- High blood glucose (Correct answer)
- Low blood pressure
Correct answer: High blood glucose
Insulin is released when blood glucose is high, allowing cells to take up glucose and lowering blood sugar.
Question 68: Which of the following is a characteristic of the autonomic nervous system?
- It is the part of the nervous system consisting of the brain and spinal cord.
- It is thought to be the center of intelligence.
- It regulates involuntary activity in the heart, stomach, lungs, and intestines. (Correct answer)
- It regulates the voluntary control of body movements through the skeletal muscles.
Correct answer: It regulates involuntary activity in the heart, stomach, lungs, and intestines.
The autonomic nervous system (ANS) is a division of the peripheral nervous system that controls involuntary bodily functions. It regulates essential internal processes such as heart rate, digestion, respiration, blood pressure, and glandular activity, all without conscious thought or control.
Question 69: Which chamber of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the body?
- Right atrium
- Left ventricle (Correct answer)
- Left atrium
- Right ventricle
Correct answer: Left ventricle
The left ventricle pumps oxygen-rich blood into the aorta and out to the body.
Question 70: Trevor's skin is very fair, and he wants to take a trip from London to Miami. How much should his sunscreen SPF increase?
- 40
- 20 (Correct answer)
- 30
- 50
Correct answer: 20
To find the required SPF increase, one must consult the provided data table for recommended SPF levels based on skin type and location. By identifying the recommended SPF for a very fair-skinned person in London and comparing it to the recommended SPF for Miami, the difference of 20 SPF can be calculated.
Question 71: What type of pronoun is used in the following sentence? 'The patient gave herself an insulin injection.'
- Personal pronoun
- Intensive pronoun
- Reflexive pronoun (Correct answer)
- Demonstrative pronoun
Correct answer: Reflexive pronoun
'Herself' is a reflexive pronoun — it refers back to the subject ('the patient') and indicates the subject is performing the action on herself.
Question 72: In which of the following structures of the mammalian digestive system is it most likely that nutrients will be absorbed?
- stomach
- cecum
- epiglottis
- duodenum (Correct answer)
Correct answer: duodenum
The duodenum is the first and shortest segment of the small intestine, and it is the primary site for the chemical digestion of chyme (partially digested food) from the stomach and the absorption of most nutrients. Its inner lining is highly folded into villi and microvilli, which significantly increase the surface area available for efficient absorption of digested carbohydrates, proteins, and fats into the bloodstream.
Question 73: Which of Newton's laws states that an object in motion stays in motion unless acted upon by an external force?
- Newton's Law of Universal Gravitation
- Newton's Second Law (F = ma)
- Newton's Third Law (Action-Reaction)
- Newton's First Law (Law of Inertia) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Newton's First Law (Law of Inertia)
Newton's First Law (Law of Inertia) states that an object will remain in its current state of motion (rest or constant velocity) unless acted upon by a net external force.
Question 74: What is the correct capitalization for the following sentence: 'the patient was admitted to riverside community hospital on tuesday.'
- The Patient was admitted to Riverside Community Hospital on Tuesday.
- The patient was admitted to Riverside Community Hospital on Tuesday. (Correct answer)
- the patient was admitted to Riverside Community Hospital on Tuesday.
- The patient was admitted to Riverside Community hospital on Tuesday.
Correct answer: The patient was admitted to Riverside Community Hospital on Tuesday.
Proper nouns (Riverside Community Hospital) and the first word of a sentence must be capitalized. Days of the week (Tuesday) are also proper nouns requiring capitalization.
Question 75: Solve for x: 3x - 7 = 14.
- 3
- 7 (Correct answer)
- 9
- 21
Correct answer: 7
Add 7 to both sides to get 3x = 21, then divide by 3 to get x = 7.
Question 76: Solve for x: 4(x - 1) = 2x + 6.
- 4
- 2
- 5 (Correct answer)
- 3
Correct answer: 5
Distribute to get 4x - 4 = 2x + 6, so 2x = 10 and x = 5.
Question 77: The type of light used in a lab experiment meant to measure how quickly plants develop when exposed to artificial light is an example of which type of variable?
- dependent
- responding
- random
- independent (Correct answer)
Correct answer: independent
In a scientific experiment, the independent variable is the factor that is intentionally changed or manipulated by the experimenter to observe its effect. In this scenario, the type of light used is the variable being controlled and altered to see how it influences plant development, making it the independent variable. The plant development itself would be the dependent variable.
Question 78: Express 0.00045 in scientific notation.
- 4.5 × 10⁻⁴ (Correct answer)
- 45 × 10⁻⁵
- 4.5 × 10⁴
- 0.45 × 10⁻³
Correct answer: 4.5 × 10⁻⁴
Move the decimal 4 places right to get 4.5, so the exponent is −4: 4.5 × 10⁻⁴.
Question 79: Which two systems work together to regulate the body using both hormones and nerve signals?
- Endocrine and nervous (Correct answer)
- Respiratory and circulatory
- Skeletal and muscular
- Digestive and urinary
Correct answer: Endocrine and nervous
The endocrine and nervous systems together coordinate and control body functions.
Question 80: The addition of a catalyst to a chemical reaction will have what effect?
- Increase the rate at which the reaction takes place. (Correct answer)
- Reduce the amount of products in the reaction.
- Increase the time required for the reaction to take place.
- Increase the energy required for the reaction to take place.
Correct answer: Increase the rate at which the reaction takes place.
A catalyst is a substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction without being consumed in the process. It achieves this by providing an alternative reaction pathway that has a lower activation energy. By lowering the energy barrier, more reactant molecules can overcome it and form products more quickly, thereby accelerating the overall reaction rate.
Question 81: Read and follow the directions below. Imagine a deck of cards. Remove all four jacks and four kings. Add back in the red jacks. Remove the eights. Remove half the remaining cards at random. Which of the following tells the number of cards now in the deck?
- 20
- 19
- 21 (Correct answer)
- 22
Correct answer: 21
This is a step-by-step arithmetic problem. Starting with a standard 52-card deck, first remove 4 jacks and 4 kings, leaving 44 cards. Then, add back the 2 red jacks, bringing the total to 46. Next, remove the 4 eights, resulting in 42 cards. Finally, remove half of the remaining cards (42 / 2), which leaves 21 cards in the deck.
Question 82: Which of the following correctly describes the central dogma of molecular biology?
- Protein → RNA → DNA
- DNA → Protein → RNA
- RNA → DNA → Protein
- DNA → RNA → Protein (Correct answer)
Correct answer: DNA → RNA → Protein
The central dogma describes the flow of genetic information: DNA is transcribed to RNA, which is translated to protein.
Question 83: Based on the context, what does the word 'palliative' mean in this sentence: 'The oncology team shifted from curative to palliative care, focusing on comfort and quality of life rather than eliminating the disease.'?
- Surgical removal of a tumor
- Care that treats disease symptoms and improves comfort when a cure is not possible (Correct answer)
- A form of chemotherapy that cures cancer
- Aggressive, experimental medical treatment
Correct answer: Care that treats disease symptoms and improves comfort when a cure is not possible
Context clues: 'shifted from curative' (opposite of palliative), 'focusing on comfort and quality of life rather than eliminating the disease' — palliative care provides comfort when curing is no longer the goal.
Question 84: What is the difference between a "fact" and an "opinion" in a text?
- A fact is found in fiction; an opinion is found in nonfiction.
- A fact is always positive; an opinion is always negative.
- A fact can be verified as true or false; an opinion expresses a personal view. (Correct answer)
- A fact uses emotional language; an opinion uses neutral language.
Correct answer: A fact can be verified as true or false; an opinion expresses a personal view.
Facts are objective statements that can be confirmed or refuted with evidence. Opinions are subjective statements that reflect personal beliefs or feelings and cannot be proven true or false.
Question 85: In a cell, the Golgi apparatus is found in what location?
- Inside the mitochondria
- In the cell wall
- Inside the nucleus
- In the cytoplasm (Correct answer)
Correct answer: In the cytoplasm
The Golgi apparatus is a membrane-bound organelle responsible for modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins and lipids for secretion or delivery to other organelles. In eukaryotic cells, the Golgi apparatus, along with other organelles, is suspended within the cytoplasm, the jelly-like substance that fills the cell and surrounds the nucleus.
Question 86: A patient's blood sample is found to have a pH of 7.28. This condition is called:
- Alkalosis
- Hypoxia
- Neutralization
- Acidosis (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Acidosis
Normal blood pH is 7.35–7.45. A pH of 7.28 is below normal, indicating acidosis — too much acid (H⁺) or too little bicarbonate in the blood.
Question 87: In a persuasive article, the author cites five studies supporting her argument but omits four studies with contradictory findings. This technique is best described as:
- Bandwagon appeal — claiming an argument is correct because many people agree
- Ethos — building credibility by citing academic sources
- Red herring — introducing irrelevant information to distract from the main point
- Cherry-picking — selectively using only evidence that supports one's position (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Cherry-picking — selectively using only evidence that supports one's position
Cherry-picking involves deliberately selecting only evidence that supports one's argument while ignoring contradictory data. This is a logical fallacy that undermines the objectivity of the argument.
Question 88: An author claims a diet is effective and notes, "Thousands have already tried it." Relying on the number of users as proof is an example of:
- Expert testimony
- An appeal to popularity (Correct answer)
- A controlled experiment
- Strong scientific evidence
Correct answer: An appeal to popularity
Citing how many people use something as proof it works is an appeal to popularity, not evidence of effectiveness.
Question 89: What is produced when an acid reacts with a base?
- An element
- A salt and water (Correct answer)
- Two acids
- A metal and gas
Correct answer: A salt and water
Neutralization of an acid and base produces a salt and water.
Question 90: Which of the following is the best example of a logical conclusion drawn from evidence?
- The store has a red sign, so it is the best store
- The store is closed, so it must be bankrupt
- The lights are off and the door is locked, so the store is closed (Correct answer)
- The store is empty, so the products are bad
Correct answer: The lights are off and the door is locked, so the store is closed
Lights off and a locked door reasonably support the conclusion that the store is closed.
Question 91: Which of the following is an example of deductive reasoning?
- All secretaries are good typists. Cynthia is a secretary. Therefore, Cynthia is a good typist. (Correct answer)
- Only 21% of a town’s population have expressed a desire to ban all cars. Therefore, the new proposition banning cars in the state is not likely to pass.
- People who brush their teeth regularly have fewer instances of heart disease. Therefore, good dentistry can prevent heart attacks.
- All soccer players who play professionally can kick well. Therefore, any future soccer player who is recruited to play professionally will be able to kick well.
Correct answer: All secretaries are good typists. Cynthia is a secretary. Therefore, Cynthia is a good typist.
Deductive reasoning involves starting with a general statement or hypothesis and then drawing a specific conclusion based on that premise. The example 'All secretaries are good typists. Cynthia is a secretary. Therefore, Cynthia is a good typist' perfectly illustrates this, moving from a general truth to a specific, logical inference.
Question 92: Which sentence demonstrates correct subject-verb agreement?
- Neither the nurses nor the doctor were available.
- Neither the doctor nor the nurses were available. (Correct answer)
- The committee have made their decision.
- The team are playing well this season.
Correct answer: Neither the doctor nor the nurses were available.
With "neither/nor," the verb agrees with the subject closest to it. Since "nurses" (plural) is closest to the verb, "were" is correct. If the doctor were closest, "was" would be used.
Question 93: What does the word "synthesize" mean in the context of reading multiple sources?
- To choose the best source and ignore the rest
- To copy information directly from sources
- To read each source separately without connecting them
- To combine information from multiple sources into a unified understanding (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To combine information from multiple sources into a unified understanding
Synthesizing means bringing together information from multiple sources to form a new, integrated understanding. It goes beyond summarizing individual sources to finding connections, contrasts, and patterns across them.
Question 94: The equation y = -2x + 6 has which slope and y-intercept?
- Slope = -2, y-intercept = -6
- Slope = 6, y-intercept = -2
- Slope = 2, y-intercept = 6
- Slope = -2, y-intercept = 6 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Slope = -2, y-intercept = 6
In slope-intercept form y = mx + b, the slope is m = -2 and the y-intercept is b = 6.
Question 95: The graph above records the death rate of two types of male flies a certain number of days after a chemical pesticide is sprayed. What is the probability a male methuselah fly will be alive 75 days after exposure to the pesticide?
- 1/3
- 1/5 (Correct answer)
- 1/2
- 1/4
Correct answer: 1/5
To determine the probability a male methuselah fly will be alive 75 days after exposure, one would need to consult the provided graph. Assuming the graph plots survival rate over time, locate 75 days on the x-axis and then find the corresponding point on the curve for 'methuselah fly.' If that point aligns with a survival probability of 0.2 (or 20%) on the y-axis, then 0.2 is equivalent to the fraction 1/5, indicating that one out of five flies would still be alive.
Question 96: Solve for x: 7x + 5 = 47.
- 7
- 6 (Correct answer)
- 8
- 5
Correct answer: 6
Subtract 5 to get 7x = 42, then divide by 7 to get x = 6.
Question 97: Which of the following correctly describes the difference between a phrase and a clause?
- A phrase has a subject and predicate; a clause does not
- A clause has a subject and predicate; a phrase does not (Correct answer)
- Both phrases and clauses have subjects and predicates
- Neither phrases nor clauses have subjects and predicates
Correct answer: A clause has a subject and predicate; a phrase does not
A clause contains both a subject and a predicate (verb). A phrase lacks one or both and cannot stand alone as a complete thought.
Question 98: Which of the following is a compound-complex sentence?
- Although the patient was tired, she rested.
- Although the patient was tired, she rested, and the nurse charted. (Correct answer)
- The patient rested, and the nurse charted.
- The patient rested.
Correct answer: Although the patient was tired, she rested, and the nurse charted.
Option D has two independent clauses ('she rested' and 'the nurse charted') plus one dependent clause ('Although the patient was tired') — making it compound-complex.
Question 99: Which of the following is true about the frog?
- It is closer to most tetrapods than to most newts.
- It is a non-vertebrate.
- It is a type of amphibian. (Correct answer)
- It is a member of the salamandridae family.
Correct answer: It is a type of amphibian.
Frogs are classified under the class Amphibia, which literally means 'double life,' referring to their ability to live both in water and on land. Amphibians are vertebrates characterized by moist skin, the absence of scales, and typically undergoing metamorphosis from an aquatic larval stage to a terrestrial adult stage. Therefore, a frog is definitively a type of amphibian.
Question 100: This group-funding program has which unique benefit?
- You can help train new teachers
- You can know where your money goes (Correct answer)
- Your donation helps others
- The donation is tax-deductible
Correct answer: You can know where your money goes
Group-funding programs often emphasize transparency and direct impact, allowing donors to see exactly which projects or individuals their money supports. This direct knowledge of where funds are allocated is a unique benefit that distinguishes it from traditional charitable donations, where funds might be pooled without specific earmarks.
Question 101: Solve for x: 9 - x = 2.
- -11
- -7
- 11
- 7 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 7
Subtract 9 to get -x = -7, so x = 7.
Question 102: Which sentence uses correct subject-verb agreement?
- The team nurse are ready for their shift.
- The team of nurses are ready for their shift.
- The team of nurses is ready for their shift. (Correct answer)
- The nurses team are ready for their shift.
Correct answer: The team of nurses is ready for their shift.
The subject is 'team' (singular collective noun), so the singular verb 'is' is correct. The prepositional phrase 'of nurses' does not affect subject-verb agreement.
Question 103: A study found that students who ate breakfast scored higher on tests. A flawed conclusion would be:
- Breakfast may be associated with better scores
- Eating breakfast guarantees high test scores (Correct answer)
- More research could clarify the link
- Other factors might also affect scores
Correct answer: Eating breakfast guarantees high test scores
Claiming breakfast guarantees high scores overstates a correlation as if it were proven causation.
Question 104: Which paragraph describes how spacesuits avoid overheating?
- Paragraph 4
- Paragraph 2
- Paragraph 1
- Paragraph 3 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Paragraph 3
This question tests the ability to locate specific information within a text's structure. Paragraph 3 would contain details about the mechanisms, such as cooling systems or ventilation garments, that are integrated into spacesuits to prevent astronauts from overheating in the extreme temperatures of space.
Question 105: Read and follow the directions below. Walk one block west. Walk three blocks north. Walk two blocks east. Where is your destination compared to your original location?
- One block west, two blocks south
- Two blocks south, two blocks east
- One block east, three blocks north (Correct answer)
- Two blocks north, two blocks west
Correct answer: One block east, three blocks north
To solve this, track the movements from the starting point. Walking one block west puts you at (-1, 0). Then, three blocks north puts you at (-1, 3). Finally, two blocks east moves you to (1, 3). Compared to the original location (0,0), the final destination is one block east and three blocks north.
Question 106: Check to see if the highlighted part of the next sentence is accurate or if it needs to be changed. Cops and firefighters officers put their lives at risk often by stepping into the way of hazard physically; therefore, medical doctors and lawyers have an equally significant effect on peoples’ lives medically and legally.
- but
- nevertheless (Correct answer)
- therefore
- as a result
Correct answer: nevertheless
The original sentence contains a grammatical error in parallelism: "through playing, watching or thru advertising." For proper parallel structure, all items in a list should have the same grammatical form. Option A corrects this by using "playing, watching or advertising," making the list consistent. Additionally, "World Cup" should be capitalized as it is a proper noun.
Question 107: There are 4 Tootsie Rolls, 3 Lollipops, 5 Hershey Kisses, and 6 Starbursts in a bag of sweets. What is the likelihood that the sweet you randomly choose will be a lollipop?
- 3/10
- 1/18
- 1/4
- 1/6 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 1/6
First, calculate the total number of sweets in the bag: 4 (Tootsie Rolls) + 3 (Lollipops) + 5 (Hershey Kisses) + 6 (Starbursts) = 18 sweets. There are 3 lollipops. The probability of choosing a lollipop is the number of lollipops divided by the total number of sweets, which is 3/18. This fraction simplifies to 1/6. Therefore, the likelihood of choosing a lollipop is 1/6.
Question 108: Which subatomic particle determines the identity of an element?
- Neutron
- Proton (Correct answer)
- Positron
- Electron
Correct answer: Proton
The number of protons (atomic number) defines which element an atom is.
Question 109: Which of the following uses the prefix self- correctly?
- Self esteem
- Self--esteem
- Selfesteem
- Self-esteem (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Self-esteem
The prefix 'self-' is almost always hyphenated when it is joined with another word to form a compound term. This hyphenation helps to clarify the meaning and readability of the word, distinguishing it from a single, unhyphenated word or two separate words. Therefore, 'self-esteem' is the correct and standard spelling.
Question 110: An author states a claim and then writes, "Of course, no reasonable person would disagree." This phrasing is an example of:
- An appeal that discourages questioning the claim (Correct answer)
- Statistical evidence
- A neutral transition
- A direct citation
Correct answer: An appeal that discourages questioning the claim
Saying no reasonable person would disagree pressures readers to accept the claim without examining it.
Question 111: Most students at Hudson University enjoy their Chemistry class. Which part of this statement needs to be revised?
- change class to Class
- change Chemistry to chemistry (Correct answer)
- change students to students'
- insert a comma after University
Correct answer: change Chemistry to chemistry
Subject names like 'chemistry,' 'biology,' or 'mathematics' are generally not capitalized unless they are part of a proper noun (e.g., 'Chemistry 101') or a specific course title. In this general reference to a subject, 'chemistry' should be lowercase.
Question 112: Which sentence uses an apostrophe correctly?
- The patient's chart is missing. (Correct answer)
- The patient chart's missing.
- The patients' is missing.
- The patients chart is missing.
Correct answer: The patient's chart is missing.
'Patient's' shows singular possession of the chart.
Question 113: A trait that is masked when a dominant allele is present is described as what?
- Homozygous
- Recessive (Correct answer)
- Codominant
- Polygenic
Correct answer: Recessive
A recessive trait is expressed only when no dominant allele is present.
Question 114: A student scored 84 out of 120 on a test. What percentage did they score?
- 75%
- 60%
- 65%
- 70% (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 70%
Percentage = (score/total) × 100 = (84/120) × 100 = 0.70 × 100 = 70%.
Question 115: Which hormone is produced by the adrenal medulla in response to stress?
- Testosterone
- Aldosterone
- Epinephrine (adrenaline) (Correct answer)
- Cortisol
Correct answer: Epinephrine (adrenaline)
The adrenal medulla releases epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine as part of the 'fight-or-flight' stress response.
Question 116: Identify the complex sentence.
- Because the patient rested, she recovered. (Correct answer)
- The patient rested quietly.
- Resting quietly all day.
- The patient rested and recovered.
Correct answer: Because the patient rested, she recovered.
A dependent clause ('Because the patient rested') joins an independent clause.
Question 117: A recipe calls for 2 cups of flour for every 3 cups of sugar. If you need 9 cups of sugar, how many cups of flour are required?
- 4
- 8
- 6 (Correct answer)
- 5
Correct answer: 6
Set up the proportion 2/3 = x/9; cross-multiplying gives x = 6.
Question 118: In the sentence 'Give the medication to whoever asks for it,' which word is correct?
- whom
- who
- whomever
- whoever (correct as written) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: whoever (correct as written)
'Whoever' is correct because it is the subject of the dependent clause 'whoever asks for it.' The subject of a verb needs a subject pronoun (who/whoever).
Question 119: A student measures the volume of a liquid three times and records 45 mL, 46 mL, and 45 mL. These results BEST demonstrate which quality of measurement?
- Validity, because the experiment was repeated three times
- Precision, because the results are consistently close to each other (Correct answer)
- Accuracy, because the measurements agree with each other
- Reliability of the hypothesis, because similar results were obtained
Correct answer: Precision, because the results are consistently close to each other
Precision refers to the reproducibility of measurements — how closely repeated measurements agree with each other. Accuracy describes how close measurements are to the true value, which cannot be determined here without a known standard.
Question 120: Which unit measures electrical resistance?
- Ampere
- Ohm (Correct answer)
- Volt
- Watt
Correct answer: Ohm
Resistance is measured in ohms.
Question 121: Which sentence correctly uses a comma in a series?
- We bought apples, oranges, and pears. (Correct answer)
- We bought, apples oranges pears.
- We bought apples oranges and pears.
- We bought apples, oranges and pears.
Correct answer: We bought apples, oranges, and pears.
Commas separate each item, including before the final conjunction (Oxford comma).
Question 122: What is NOT true about RNA?
- Thymine is not one of its base pairings.
- Its sugar is more reduced than DNA’s sugar. (Correct answer)
- It is unstable in alkaline conditions.
- It contains a sugar called ribose.
Correct answer: Its sugar is more reduced than DNA’s sugar.
RNA contains ribose sugar, which has a hydroxyl group (-OH) on its 2' carbon. In contrast, DNA contains deoxyribose sugar, which lacks this hydroxyl group, making it more reduced (fewer oxygen atoms) and chemically more stable than ribose. Therefore, stating RNA's sugar is more reduced than DNA's sugar is incorrect.
Question 123: Which sentence correctly uses an apostrophe in a contraction?
- Its important to follow the dosage instructions.
- The patients' will improve with treatment.
- The patient cant take that medication.
- The nurse shouldn't administer the medication without verifying the order. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The nurse shouldn't administer the medication without verifying the order.
'Shouldn't' is the contraction of 'should not' — the apostrophe correctly replaces the 'o' in 'not.'
Question 124: A manual explaining the function of a machine is an example of what type of writing?
- process analysis (Correct answer)
- persuasive
- cause and effect
- narration
Correct answer: process analysis
A manual explaining the function of a machine typically describes how the machine works, detailing its various parts and their operations, or how to perform tasks using it. This type of writing breaks down a complex process or system into its individual steps or components, which is the definition of process analysis.
Question 125: Which element is essential in an informational text's summary?
- The main idea and key supporting points only (Correct answer)
- All details and examples from the original text
- Quotations from every paragraph
- The reader's personal opinion about the topic
Correct answer: The main idea and key supporting points only
A summary restates the main idea and key supporting points in the reader's own words. It does not include personal opinions, every quotation, or all minor details — those would make it a paraphrase or re-write rather than a summary.
Question 126: What is the primary function of the large intestine?
- To secrete digestive enzymes to break down proteins
- To produce bile for fat digestion
- To absorb water and electrolytes, forming solid waste (Correct answer)
- To absorb most of the nutrients from digested food
Correct answer: To absorb water and electrolytes, forming solid waste
The large intestine (colon) primarily absorbs water and electrolytes from indigestible food matter, transforming liquid waste into solid feces for elimination. Most nutrient absorption occurs in the small intestine.
Question 127: If Maria left a $10.16 tip on a breakfast that cost $86.89, approximately what percentage was the tip?
- 12% (Correct answer)
- 25%
- 31%
- 17%
Correct answer: 12%
To find the percentage of the tip, divide the tip amount by the original cost of the breakfast and then multiply by 100. So, ($10.16 ÷ $86.89) × 100. This calculation yields approximately 0.1169 × 100, which is 11.69%. When rounded to the nearest whole percentage, this is 12%. Therefore, the tip was approximately 12%.
Question 128: The phrase "Maintaining the actuality of the character" (line 4) most specifically alludes to in the context of Passage 1
- believing oneself to be the character
- playing the character in a way that resembles real life
- showing the audience how the character sees a situation
- presenting to the audience only behavior relevant to the character (Correct answer)
Correct answer: presenting to the audience only behavior relevant to the character
In the context of acting, 'maintaining the actuality of the character' means ensuring that all actions, dialogue, and expressions presented to the audience are consistent with and relevant to the character's established traits and motivations. This involves avoiding extraneous behaviors that might break the illusion or distract from the character's reality within the performance.
Question 129: Which statement best expresses the author's perspective?
- Business is a team sport, and it’s important to recognize the efforts of everyone involved in a project.
- People who work hard and succeed despite the obstacles in front of them deserve to be rewarded. (Correct answer)
- In a tough economic climate, businesses can only survive if the lay people off.
- The best way to keep people from leaving a company is to give them big cash bonuses.
Correct answer: People who work hard and succeed despite the obstacles in front of them deserve to be rewarded.
This statement highlights the author's belief in meritocracy and the importance of recognizing effort and achievement, especially when challenges are overcome. It suggests a perspective that values hard work and resilience, advocating for appropriate rewards for those who demonstrate these qualities.
Question 130: If a car travels at 65 mph for 2 hours and 45 minutes, what total distance does it cover?
- 178.75 miles (Correct answer)
- 168.25 miles
- 181.5 miles
- 165 miles
Correct answer: 178.75 miles
2 hours 45 minutes = 2.75 hours; 65 × 2.75 = 178.75 miles.
Question 131: Read the following passage and identify the inference: "Maria arrived at work with wet hair and a heavy coat despite the sunny forecast." What can be inferred?
- Maria forgot to check the weather forecast.
- Maria had just showered before arriving.
- Maria likes wearing heavy coats.
- It rained unexpectedly where Maria was. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: It rained unexpectedly where Maria was.
The wet hair combined with the heavy coat despite a sunny forecast suggests it rained where Maria was coming from. An inference is a logical conclusion drawn from evidence in the text, not directly stated.
Question 132: What is the difference between a cation and an anion?
- Cations are nonmetals; anions are metals
- Cations are negatively charged; anions are positively charged
- Cations are positively charged (lost electrons); anions are negatively charged (gained electrons) (Correct answer)
- Cations have more neutrons; anions have more protons
Correct answer: Cations are positively charged (lost electrons); anions are negatively charged (gained electrons)
Cations form when an atom loses electrons (becoming positively charged); anions form when an atom gains electrons (becoming negatively charged).
Question 133: Which word correctly completes the sentence? 'The hospital policy _____ all visitors to sign in at the front desk.'
- requiring
- require
- requires (Correct answer)
- required
Correct answer: requires
'Policy' is the singular subject, requiring the singular verb 'requires' in the present tense.
Question 134: Which of the following correctly describes the relationship between the frequency and wavelength of electromagnetic radiation?
- Both frequency and wavelength decrease as energy increases
- Frequency and wavelength are unrelated
- Frequency and wavelength are directly proportional; as wavelength increases, frequency increases
- Frequency and wavelength are inversely proportional; as wavelength increases, frequency decreases (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Frequency and wavelength are inversely proportional; as wavelength increases, frequency decreases
Frequency (ν) and wavelength (λ) are inversely proportional: ν = c/λ, where c is the speed of light. As wavelength increases, frequency decreases, and vice versa.
Question 135: Which of the following sentences contains a split infinitive?
- She quickly decided to study the material before the exam.
- She decided to study the material before the exam.
- She decided to study quickly the material before the exam.
- She decided to quickly study the material before the exam. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: She decided to quickly study the material before the exam.
A split infinitive occurs when an adverb is placed between 'to' and the verb. In option B, 'quickly' splits the infinitive 'to study.'
Question 136: Which of the following best describes a "primary source"?
- A diary entry written during a historical event (Correct answer)
- A textbook that summarizes historical events
- A journal article reviewing others' research
- An encyclopedia article about a scientific discovery
Correct answer: A diary entry written during a historical event
A primary source is original, firsthand material created at the time of the event being studied — such as diaries, letters, photographs, or original research data. Secondary sources interpret or analyze primary sources.
Question 137: If 3x = 4x - 9, what is x?
- 3
- 9 (Correct answer)
- -3
- -9
Correct answer: 9
Subtract 3x from both sides to get 0 = x - 9, so x = 9.
Question 138: What does a catalyst do in a chemical reaction?
- It speeds up the reaction by providing an alternative pathway with lower activation energy (Correct answer)
- It increases the activation energy of the reaction
- It changes the equilibrium position, favoring product formation
- It is consumed in the reaction, providing energy to reactants
Correct answer: It speeds up the reaction by providing an alternative pathway with lower activation energy
A catalyst provides an alternative reaction pathway with lower activation energy, increasing the reaction rate without being consumed or changing the overall energy of reactants/products.
Question 139: Bile, which helps emulsify fats in the small intestine, is produced by the:
- Stomach
- Pancreas
- Gallbladder
- Liver (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Liver
Bile is produced by liver hepatocytes and stored in the gallbladder; it is released into the duodenum to emulsify dietary fats.
Question 140: Which word is an antonym for 'ambiguous'?
- Clear (Correct answer)
- Complex
- Uncertain
- Vague
Correct answer: Clear
'Ambiguous' means unclear or having more than one possible meaning, so its antonym is 'clear,' which means definite and easy to understand.
Question 141: A patient education handout states: 'After your procedure, you may experience mild soreness for 24-48 hours. Apply ice for 15 minutes every hour during the first day. Take prescribed pain medication as directed. Contact our office immediately if you develop fever above 101°F, excessive bleeding, or increasing pain.' What is the primary purpose of this passage?
- To describe the surgical procedure in detail
- To explain why the procedure was necessary
- To compare different recovery methods
- To provide post-procedure care instructions (Correct answer)
Correct answer: To provide post-procedure care instructions
The passage provides specific instructions for care after a procedure, including what to expect, what to do, and when to seek help.
Question 142: Which sentence avoids the use of vague pronouns?
- The doctor told the nurse that she needed more training.
- After reviewing the chart and the medication order, the doctor realized the order contained an error. (Correct answer)
- They said the hospital would expand its ICU.
- It says in the policy that visitors must sign in.
Correct answer: After reviewing the chart and the medication order, the doctor realized the order contained an error.
Option B has no pronouns with unclear antecedents — every noun is specific. The other options use 'she,' 'They,' and 'It' with unclear or missing antecedents.
Question 143: To ______ should I address the postcard? Which of the following correctly completes the sentence above?
- which
- the which
- whom (Correct answer)
- who
Correct answer: whom
This question tests the correct use of 'who' vs. 'whom.' 'Whom' is the objective case pronoun, used when it is the object of a verb or a preposition. In this sentence, 'whom' is the object of the preposition 'to,' making 'To whom' the grammatically correct choice.
Question 144: A store marks up a $40 item by 25%. What is the new price?
- $50 (Correct answer)
- $65
- $45
- $48
Correct answer: $50
25% of $40 is $10; $40 + $10 = $50.
Question 145: What is the difference between an element and a compound?
- A compound has fewer atoms than an element
- An element contains only one type of atom; a compound contains two or more elements chemically bonded together (Correct answer)
- An element is a mixture; a compound is a pure substance
- Elements can be separated by physical means; compounds cannot be separated at all
Correct answer: An element contains only one type of atom; a compound contains two or more elements chemically bonded together
An element is a pure substance consisting of only one type of atom (e.g., oxygen O₂). A compound is a pure substance formed when two or more different elements are chemically bonded in fixed proportions (e.g., water H₂O).
Question 146: A passage notes a scientist published results but refused to share her data with other researchers. A critical reader might reasonably question:
- The scientist's nationality
- The color of the charts
- The length of the paper
- Whether the results can be verified (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Whether the results can be verified
Withholding data prevents verification, which a critical reader should question.
Question 147: Which of the following organelles would be used in cellular respiration, the process that generates cellular energy?
- chloroplast
- ribosome
- nucleolus
- mitochondria (Correct answer)
Correct answer: mitochondria
Cellular respiration is the metabolic process that converts glucose and oxygen into ATP, the primary energy currency of the cell. This vital process primarily occurs within the mitochondria, often referred to as the 'powerhouses' of the cell, making them essential for generating cellular energy.
Question 148: A reader notices that a healthcare brochure uses the phrase "studies show" without citing any specific research. This is an example of:
- A vague or unsupported appeal to authority (Correct answer)
- An effective use of pathos
- A legitimate primary source citation
- A strong evidence-based claim
Correct answer: A vague or unsupported appeal to authority
"Studies show" without specific citations is a common rhetorical technique that implies authority without providing verifiable evidence. Critical readers should seek specific source information when evaluating health claims.
Question 149: Which of the following represents the ratio 18:27 in simplest form?
- 9:13
- 6:9
- 3:4
- 2:3 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 2:3
Find the GCF of 18 and 27: GCF = 9. Divide both by 9: 18/9 = 2, 27/9 = 3. Simplest form: 2:3.
Question 150: Which of the following represents Newton's Second Law of Motion?
- Energy is neither created nor destroyed
- F = ma (Force equals mass times acceleration) (Correct answer)
- For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction
- An object at rest stays at rest unless acted upon by a force
Correct answer: F = ma (Force equals mass times acceleration)
Newton's Second Law states that the net force acting on an object equals its mass multiplied by its acceleration (F = ma). This explains why heavier objects require more force to accelerate at the same rate as lighter ones.
Question 151: In DNA, the double helix structure is held together by what kind of bond between the complimentary bases?
- nuclear
- ionic
- hydrogen (Correct answer)
- covalent
Correct answer: hydrogen
The double helix structure of DNA is stabilized by hydrogen bonds that form between complementary nitrogenous bases on opposite strands. Adenine (A) always pairs with thymine (T) via two hydrogen bonds, and guanine (G) always pairs with cytosine (C) via three hydrogen bonds. These relatively weak bonds allow the strands to separate for replication and transcription.
Question 152: A study summary reads: 'Group A received the new drug and showed 45% symptom improvement. Group B received a placebo and showed 30% symptom improvement. The difference was statistically significant (p < 0.05).' Based on this passage, what contributed to the 30% improvement in Group B?
- A flaw in the experimental design
- The placebo effect and natural disease progression (Correct answer)
- Contamination between the two study groups
- The therapeutic effect of the new drug
Correct answer: The placebo effect and natural disease progression
Group B received a placebo (inactive treatment), so their improvement is attributable to the placebo effect and/or natural progression of the condition, not to any active drug.
Question 153: Disc herniation discs can be caused by which of the following?
- hepatitis
- whiplash (Correct answer)
- plantar fasciitis
- ulcer
Correct answer: whiplash
Disc herniation occurs when the soft inner material of an intervertebral disc protrudes through a tear in its tougher outer layer. Whiplash, a sudden and forceful back-and-forth motion of the neck, can cause significant trauma to the spinal column. This abrupt stress and stretching can lead to tears in the disc's outer layer, resulting in a herniated disc.
Question 154: In a vacuum, why doesn’t an elephant accelerate faster than a penny as it falls to the ground?
- They both have an acceleration of 9.8 m/s<sup>2 (Correct answer)
- Vector components of an elephant are more complex than those of a penny.
- An elephant is not a projectile, while a penny is.
- The elephant is greater in mass but is slowed less by the effects of air resistance.
Correct answer: They both have an acceleration of 9.8 m/s<sup>2
In a vacuum, there is no air resistance to impede falling objects. According to the principles of physics, all objects, regardless of their mass, fall with the same constant acceleration due to gravity near the Earth's surface. This acceleration is approximately 9.8 m/s², meaning both an elephant and a penny would accelerate at the same rate and hit the ground simultaneously if dropped from the same height in a vacuum.
Question 155: An author writing a persuasive article about the importance of hand hygiene in hospitals would most likely use which type of appeal?
- Logos only — presenting statistics and research
- Pathos only — using emotional stories of patients
- Ethos only — citing their own credentials
- A combination of ethos, logos, and pathos (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A combination of ethos, logos, and pathos
Effective persuasive writing typically uses all three rhetorical appeals: ethos (credibility), logos (logic and evidence), and pathos (emotional connection). Relying on only one type weakens the argument.
Question 156: Which sentence is punctuated correctly with a series of three or more items?
- The patient needed oxygen, fluids and rest.
- The patient needed oxygen, fluids, and rest. (Correct answer)
- The patient needed oxygen fluids, and rest.
- The patient needed, oxygen fluids, and rest.
Correct answer: The patient needed oxygen, fluids, and rest.
In a series of three or more items, a comma should appear after each item including before the conjunction. The Oxford (serial) comma before 'and' clarifies meaning.
Question 157: Which of the following best sums up the author's perspective?
- Many people find driving a diesel-powered car to be enjoyable because of the added torque.
- Diesel cars are more popular in European countries than in the United States.
- The increase in popularity of diesel cars in the United States is clearly due to increasing gas prices. (Correct answer)
- One problem with diesel cars is that they are often more expensive than gasoline-powered cars.
Correct answer: The increase in popularity of diesel cars in the United States is clearly due to increasing gas prices.
To identify the author's perspective, one looks for a statement that expresses a clear viewpoint, opinion, or argument rather than just a fact. This option presents a strong causal claim, asserting that the increase in diesel car popularity is 'clearly due to increasing gas prices.' This definitive link between two factors represents a specific interpretation and argument, characteristic of an author's perspective.
Question 158: The functions of the spleen are part of the ____ system. <br> Which of the following completes the sentence?
- lymphatic (Correct answer)
- circulatory
- endocrine
- digestive
Correct answer: lymphatic
The spleen is a vital organ that is part of the lymphatic system, which is a component of the immune system. Its primary functions include filtering blood, removing old or damaged red blood cells, storing platelets, and producing white blood cells (lymphocytes) to fight infection. These roles are central to lymphatic and immune system health.
Question 159: Which transition word BEST signals a contrast or shift between two ideas?
- Therefore
- Furthermore
- Similarly
- However (Correct answer)
Correct answer: However
'However' introduces a contrasting or opposing idea. 'Furthermore' and 'similarly' add or compare ideas; 'therefore' signals a logical conclusion.
Question 160: What is the purpose of an "abstract" in a scientific article?
- To give a brief overview of the study's purpose, methods, and findings (Correct answer)
- To present the raw data collected during the study
- To list all references cited in the article
- To provide detailed methodology for replicating the study
Correct answer: To give a brief overview of the study's purpose, methods, and findings
An abstract is a concise summary (usually 150–300 words) that gives readers a quick overview of the research: what was studied, how, and what was found. It helps readers decide whether to read the full article.
Question 161: What will happen if a catalyst is added to a chemical reaction?
- Increase the energy required for the reaction to take place.
- Increase the rate at which the reaction takes place. (Correct answer)
- Increase the time required for the reaction to take place.
- Reduce the amount of products in the reaction.
Correct answer: Increase the rate at which the reaction takes place.
A catalyst is a substance that increases the rate of a chemical reaction without being consumed in the process. It achieves this by lowering the activation energy required for the reaction to proceed, allowing more reactant molecules to overcome the energy barrier and form products more quickly. Catalysts do not change the equilibrium position or the amount of products formed, only how fast the reaction reaches equilibrium.
Question 162: Trevor has very fair skin and is planning to take a trip from his home in London to Miami. At minimum, by how much should be increase the SPF in his sunscreen?
- 40
- 20 (Correct answer)
- 30
- 50
Correct answer: 20
This answer relies on a provided table that recommends SPF levels based on skin type and geographical location. To find the increase, one would locate the recommended SPF for fair skin in London and then for Miami. The difference between these two values, as indicated by the table, is 20, signifying the necessary increase in SPF.
Question 163: A medication administration reference card reads: 'Verify the six rights of medication administration — right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time, and right documentation — before administering any medication. The right patient check requires two unique identifiers, such as name and date of birth, and must not rely solely on room number or bed assignment.' Why does the reference card specifically warn against relying on room number or bed assignment for patient identification?
- Room numbers are difficult to read in low-light clinical environments
- Patients may be moved between rooms or beds, making location an unreliable identifier (Correct answer)
- The Joint Commission requires exactly two identifiers and room number does not count as one
- Date of birth is considered more legally defensible than room number in malpractice cases
Correct answer: Patients may be moved between rooms or beds, making location an unreliable identifier
The passage implies that room or bed assignment can change — a patient may be transferred — making location a dynamic and therefore unreliable identifier, whereas name and date of birth are stable attributes tied to the individual.
Question 164: Which of the following correctly describes a "covalent bond"?
- The weak attraction between water molecules
- The attraction between oppositely charged ions
- The sharing of electron pairs between non-metal atoms (Correct answer)
- The transfer of electrons between a metal and a non-metal
Correct answer: The sharing of electron pairs between non-metal atoms
A covalent bond forms when two non-metal atoms share pairs of electrons. This is different from an ionic bond, where electrons are transferred, creating oppositely charged ions that attract each other.
Question 165: A heading in a textbook chapter reads "Consequences of Poor Hand Hygiene." This heading is an example of what type of text feature?
- Index entry
- Caption
- Subheading (Correct answer)
- Glossary entry
Correct answer: Subheading
A subheading is a secondary heading within a larger chapter or section that helps readers identify the topic of each part and navigate the text. It helps organize information within a chapter.
Question 166: His job performance was found to have an _______ low track record of success in nearly every area. Which of the following is the correct completions of the sentence above?
- abysmally (Correct answer)
- abysmall
- abysmal
- abysmaly
Correct answer: abysmally
The blank requires an adverb to modify the adjective 'low.' 'Abysmally' is the adverbial form of 'abysmal,' meaning extremely or dreadfully. It correctly describes the degree to which the track record was low.
Question 167: Which of the following best describes an enzyme's role in a chemical reaction?
- It changes the reaction's products
- It raises activation energy
- It is consumed by the reaction
- It lowers activation energy (Correct answer)
Correct answer: It lowers activation energy
Enzymes are catalysts that lower the activation energy needed for a reaction.
Question 168: What is the SI unit of force?
- Newton (Correct answer)
- Joule
- Pascal
- Watt
Correct answer: Newton
Force is measured in newtons.
Question 169: A change from a liquid directly to a gas is called what?
- Vaporization (Correct answer)
- Sublimation
- Deposition
- Condensation
Correct answer: Vaporization
Vaporization is the phase change from liquid to gas.
Question 170: A student's seven quiz scores are: 72, 85, 90, 68, 85, 92, 85. What is the mode of this data set?
- 82.4
- 68
- 85 (Correct answer)
- 90
Correct answer: 85
The mode is the value that appears most frequently. The score 85 appears three times, more than any other value in the set.
Test of Essential Academic Skills (TEAS)
The TEAS exam is a standardized test for students applying to health science programs, assessing academic preparedness in reading, math, science, and English.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds