ASNT NDT Level II General — Questions and Answers

Question 1: During remote visual inspection (RVI), which tool is best suited for inspecting internal bores of small-diameter tubing?

Flexible fiberscope
Dental mirror
Video borescope
Rigid borescope (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Rigid borescope

Rigid borescopes provide superior image quality and are ideal for straight, small-diameter bores where flexibility is not required.

Question 2: Which type of indication in magnetic particle testing is caused by abrupt changes in cross-section or material permeability rather than a crack?

Linear indication
Relevant indication
False indication
Non-relevant indication (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Non-relevant indication

Non-relevant indications result from geometric features (threads, keyways, changes in cross-section) or permeability variations rather than actual discontinuities requiring rejection.

Question 3: In pulse-echo ultrasonic testing, what does the time-of-flight measurement directly indicate?

The amplitude of the reflected signal
The attenuation coefficient of the material
The distance from the transducer to the reflector (Correct answer)
The size of the detected discontinuity

Correct answer: The distance from the transducer to the reflector

Time-of-flight is the time for the pulse to travel to the reflector and return; knowing wave velocity allows calculation of distance to the reflector.

Question 4: Scatter radiation during industrial radiography primarily originates from:

The radioactive source container walls
Interaction of the primary beam with the work piece and surroundings (Correct answer)
Background cosmic radiation enhanced by the source
Reflection off the film cassette back to the source

Correct answer: Interaction of the primary beam with the work piece and surroundings

Scatter radiation is produced when the primary beam interacts with the test object, nearby structures, and the ground, radiating in all directions.

Question 5: Which of the following material properties has the MOST significant influence on the magnitude and distribution of induced eddy currents?

Thermal Expansion Coefficient
Tensile Strength
Ductility
Electrical Conductivity (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Electrical Conductivity

Eddy current testing is fundamentally an electromagnetic method. The ease with which eddy currents can be induced and flow within a material is primarily determined by the material's ability to conduct electricity, i.e., its electrical conductivity. Variations in conductivity directly alter the impedance of the test coil.

Question 6: When using prod magnetization, what is the recommended current range per inch of prod spacing according to ASTM E1444?

150–200 amperes per inch
200–300 amperes per inch
100–125 amperes per inch (Correct answer)
50–100 amperes per inch

Correct answer: 100–125 amperes per inch

ASTM E1444 specifies 100–125 amperes per inch of prod spacing as the standard current range for prod magnetization of most materials.

Question 7: In magnetic particle testing, a broad fuzzy linear indication is observed. Compared to a sharp, crisp indication, this suggests the discontinuity is:

Deeper below the surface (Correct answer)
Closer to the surface
Caused by a higher magnetizing current
Wider at the opening

Correct answer: Deeper below the surface

Subsurface discontinuities cause broader, less defined magnetic particle indications because the leakage flux spreads as it reaches the surface.

Question 8: A 'hot crack' or 'crater crack' found in a weld during magnetic particle testing is best described as:

A fatigue crack forming during service
A hydrogen-induced crack forming days after welding
A solidification crack occurring in the weld metal during cooling (Correct answer)
A subsurface lamination in the base metal

Correct answer: A solidification crack occurring in the weld metal during cooling

Hot cracks (crater cracks) are solidification cracks that form in weld metal as it cools through the solidification temperature range, often found at weld terminations.

Question 9: Which AE signal parameter represents the highest voltage peak of the AE waveform above the threshold?

Counts
Rise time
Amplitude (Correct answer)
Duration

Correct answer: Amplitude

Amplitude is the peak voltage of the AE signal waveform above the detection threshold and is typically expressed in decibels (dBAE).

Question 10: Which of the following best defines 'calibration' in NDT practice?

Training personnel on new equipment
Verifying the grade of the test material
Adjusting equipment settings to a known reference standard to ensure accurate measurements (Correct answer)
Selecting the correct NDT method for an application

Correct answer: Adjusting equipment settings to a known reference standard to ensure accurate measurements

Calibration is the process of adjusting or verifying NDT instrument settings against a traceable reference standard to ensure measurement accuracy and consistency.

Question 11: What is the typical UV-A wavelength range required for fluorescent magnetic particle inspection?

400–500 nm
315–400 nm (Correct answer)
200–280 nm
500–600 nm

Correct answer: 315–400 nm

UV-A light in the 315–400 nm range (with peak effectiveness near 365 nm) excites the fluorescent dyes in magnetic particles to produce visible indications.

Question 12: When evaluating a penetrant indication, what does a 'ghost' or 'phantom' indication most often indicate?

An indication produced by a metallic inclusion just below the surface
A real subsurface crack that has been sealed by surface compression
Residual fluorescent penetrant left from a previous incomplete cleaning (Correct answer)
A chemical reaction between the penetrant and the base metal

Correct answer: Residual fluorescent penetrant left from a previous incomplete cleaning

Ghost indications are fluorescent residues from prior inspections or inadequate cleaning that reactivate under developer, not from actual present discontinuities.

Question 13: A pocket dosimeter reads zero at the start of a shift but reads 2 mSv at the end, while the film badge shows only 0.1 mSv. The radiographer should:

Trust the pocket dosimeter and report 2 mSv
Report both readings and investigate the discrepancy (Correct answer)
Trust only the film badge since it is the legal record
Discard both and estimate dose from source records

Correct answer: Report both readings and investigate the discrepancy

Discrepancies between dosimeters must be investigated and reported to the RSO, as they may indicate dosimeter malfunction or an unreported exposure.

Question 14: Which area classification applies to a location where dose rate could exceed 0.02 mSv (2 mrem) in any one hour but is unrestricted to the public?

Unrestricted area (Correct answer)
Restricted area
Exclusion zone
High radiation area

Correct answer: Unrestricted area

An unrestricted area under 10 CFR Part 20 is one where individual doses stay below 0.02 mSv (2 mrem) per hour and access is not controlled for radiation protection.

Question 15: An inspector is performing a leak test on a large vessel that has been pressurized with a helium-air mixture. The inspector moves a probe connected to a mass spectrometer over the exterior surface of the vessel to pinpoint the location of any leaks. What is this specific technique called?

Tracer probe technique
Bubble immersion technique
Detector probe technique (Correct answer)
Pressure decay method

Correct answer: Detector probe technique

This method is the detector probe technique, commonly known as "sniffing." It involves pressurizing the component with a tracer gas and using a detector probe on the outside to find where the gas is leaking out. The tracer probe technique is the opposite, where a vacuum is pulled on the component and tracer gas is sprayed on the exterior.

Question 16: Which of the following is a deterministic (non-stochastic) radiation effect?

Radiation-induced cataracts from a threshold dose (Correct answer)
Leukemia induced 5 years after exposure
Solid tumor formation 20 years post-exposure
Hereditary genetic mutations in offspring

Correct answer: Radiation-induced cataracts from a threshold dose

Radiation-induced cataracts are a deterministic effect: they occur only above a dose threshold (~500 mGy) and their severity increases with dose above that threshold.

Question 17: An inspector needs to detect subsurface defects in a thick aluminum plate. According to the principles of eddy current testing, which adjustment to the test frequency would be most effective?

Decrease the frequency to increase the depth of penetration. (Correct answer)
Use a multi-frequency setup to cancel out lift-off effects.
Increase the frequency to improve surface resolution.
Keep the frequency constant but increase the coil current.

Correct answer: Decrease the frequency to increase the depth of penetration.

In eddy current testing, there is an inverse relationship between the test frequency and the depth of penetration. Lower frequencies generate eddy currents that penetrate deeper into the material, which is necessary for detecting subsurface defects. Higher frequencies concentrate the eddy currents near the surface (the skin effect) and are better for surface flaw detection.

Question 18: What is the correct action when a leak is found in a pressure system during a hydrostatic test?

Depressurize the system completely before any repair is attempted (Correct answer)
Reduce pressure to half and continue the test while marking the leak location
Apply sealant immediately under pressure to stop the leak
Weld the leak while the system remains pressurized to save time

Correct answer: Depressurize the system completely before any repair is attempted

Safety requires full depressurization before any repair work, as working on pressurized systems poses severe injury risk.

Question 19: What color is typically used on radiographic exclusion zone barrier ropes or tape to signal a radiation hazard?

Yellow and magenta (or purple) (Correct answer)
Blue and white
Orange and white
Green and black

Correct answer: Yellow and magenta (or purple)

Yellow and magenta (or purple) are the internationally recognized colors for radiation warning signs and barriers per ANSI/ISO standards.

Question 20: What does ALARA stand for in radiographic testing safety?

Approved Levels of Allowable Radiation Activity
Always Limit All Radiation Amounts
Authorized Limits for Acceptable Radiation Areas
As Low As Reasonably Achievable (Correct answer)

Correct answer: As Low As Reasonably Achievable

ALARA is the guiding principle that radiation exposure should be kept as low as reasonably achievable through time, distance, and shielding.

Question 21: What is the primary advantage of multidirectional magnetization in magnetic particle testing?

Stronger magnetic field than single-direction methods
Detection of discontinuities in multiple orientations in one operation (Correct answer)
Elimination of the need for demagnetization
Better particle adhesion on rough surfaces

Correct answer: Detection of discontinuities in multiple orientations in one operation

Multidirectional magnetization sequences through different field directions rapidly, allowing detection of variously oriented discontinuities without repositioning the part.

Question 22: In immersion ultrasonic testing, why is a water column maintained between the transducer and test piece?

To cool the transducer during extended operation
To prevent electrical interference from the test piece
To increase the frequency of the emitted pulse
To provide a consistent, bubble-free couplant path and allow precise beam angle control (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To provide a consistent, bubble-free couplant path and allow precise beam angle control

The water column acts as an acoustic couplant and, combined with transducer angle adjustment, allows precise control of the refracted beam angle entering the test piece.

Question 23: When calibrating an angle beam transducer using an IIW block, which feature is used to set the beam index point (BIP)?

The 1.5 mm diameter side-drilled holes
The rectangular notch at the top
The 50 mm radius curved surface (Correct answer)
The graduated ruler on the side face

Correct answer: The 50 mm radius curved surface

The 100 mm (or 50 mm) radius curved surface of the IIW block is used to locate the beam exit point (BIP) by maximizing the reflection from the curved surface.

Question 24: According to SNT-TC-1A, which level of VT certification has the primary responsibility for interpreting and evaluating test results?

Trainee
Level II (Correct answer)
Level I
Level III

Correct answer: Level II

SNT-TC-1A Level II personnel are qualified to set up, calibrate, conduct, and interpret/evaluate VT results.

Question 25: Which magnification level is typically the MAXIMUM recommended for unaided visual testing without an optical aid?

10x
4x
1x (unaided eye) (Correct answer)
2x

Correct answer: 1x (unaided eye)

Unaided direct visual testing uses 1x magnification (no optical aid); any magnification above 1x requires an approved optical aid.

Question 26: What is the purpose of a 'calibrated' measuring tape or scale placed in a remote visual inspection image?

To certify the inspector's qualification level
To indicate the magnetic orientation of the part
To identify the brand of equipment used
To provide a dimensional reference for measuring discontinuities in the image (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To provide a dimensional reference for measuring discontinuities in the image

A calibrated reference scale placed adjacent to a discontinuity allows dimensional measurements to be made from the recorded image by comparison.

Question 27: In ASME Section V, Article 1, what is the primary purpose of a mandatory appendix?

To define requirements that must be followed when invoked by the referencing code (Correct answer)
To document historical revisions
To provide optional supplementary guidance
To list approved equipment manufacturers

Correct answer: To define requirements that must be followed when invoked by the referencing code

Mandatory appendices in ASME Section V contain requirements that become binding when the referencing construction code invokes them.

Question 28: Which surface condition would MOST adversely affect the quality of a liquid penetrant test?

Slight oxidation on non-critical areas
A thin oil film covering the part (Correct answer)
Slight surface roughness
Metallic color variation

Correct answer: A thin oil film covering the part

An oil film blocks penetrant from entering discontinuities, making pre-cleaning the most critical preparatory step.

Question 29: Which scanning method uses a fixed transducer while the part moves, and is commonly used for immersion testing of plates?

Phased array linear scanning
Raster scanning (Correct answer)
Sector scanning
Contact scanning

Correct answer: Raster scanning

Raster scanning moves the part (or transducer) in a systematic grid pattern to ensure complete volumetric coverage, commonly used in immersion tank testing.

Question 30: According to ASME Section V Article 4, what is the maximum film density allowed for radiographic examination of welds in steel?

2.0 to 4.0 H&D (Correct answer)
1.0 to 3.0 H&D
1.8 to 4.0 H&D
2.5 to 4.5 H&D

Correct answer: 2.0 to 4.0 H&D

ASME Section V Article 4 requires radiographic film density to be between 2.0 and 4.0 (H&D) in the area of interest for steel radiography.

Question 31: Zonal location in acoustic emission testing determines the source position by:

Measuring the peak frequency of each hit to map it to a frequency-location lookup table
Using the signal amplitude decay curve to back-calculate distance from each sensor
Calculating exact time-of-arrival differences between all sensors to triangulate a precise coordinate
Identifying the sensor that receives the signal first and assigning the source to that sensor's zone (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Identifying the sensor that receives the signal first and assigning the source to that sensor's zone

Zonal location assigns an AE event to the zone of the first-hit sensor rather than computing an exact coordinate, making it a simpler but less precise location method suitable for complex geometries.

Question 32: When transporting an Ir-192 camera, which DOT packaging category is most commonly required for a fully loaded industrial radiography camera?

Excepted Package
Type B Package (Correct answer)
Industrial Package Type 3
Type A Package

Correct answer: Type B Package

The radioactivity levels in a loaded Ir-192 camera typically exceed Type A limits, requiring a DOT-certified Type B package for transport.

Question 33: When documenting a VT finding, which piece of information is LEAST critical to include in the inspection report?

The inspector's shift supervisor's home address (Correct answer)
Date and identification of the inspector
Location of the discontinuity using a reference system
Dimensions and orientation of the discontinuity

Correct answer: The inspector's shift supervisor's home address

A supervisor's personal address is irrelevant to inspection documentation; location, dimensions, inspector ID, and date are all required fields.

Question 34: When evaluating a known discontinuity, which of the following characteristics is generally considered the MOST critical in determining its potential to cause a structural failure under tensile stress?

Its sharp, narrow tip and orientation perpendicular to the primary stress. (Correct answer)
Its location deep within the material, far from the surface.
Its rounded, spherical shape.
Its overall volume.

Correct answer: Its sharp, narrow tip and orientation perpendicular to the primary stress.

Sharp, crack-like discontinuities act as significant stress concentrators (or stress risers). When oriented perpendicular to applied tensile stress, the stress at the tip of the crack can be magnified many times, leading to crack propagation and eventual failure, even at stress levels below the material's nominal yield strength.

Question 35: In ultrasonic contact testing, what defect orientation is most difficult to detect with a standard normal-beam (0°) transducer?

Spherical porosity located at mid-thickness
Planar flaws perpendicular to the beam (laminations)
Shrinkage cavities in cast materials
Planar flaws oriented at 45° or parallel to the beam path (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Planar flaws oriented at 45° or parallel to the beam path

Planar flaws whose faces are parallel to the beam path (vertical cracks) reflect little energy back to a normal-beam transducer, requiring angled beams for reliable detection.

Question 36: In eddy current testing, what does a 'lift-off' effect refer to?

The probe leaving the test surface accidentally
The effect of high-frequency signals bouncing off defects
Removing the coil from the magnetizing circuit
The change in signal caused by varying probe-to-surface distance (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The change in signal caused by varying probe-to-surface distance

Lift-off is the change in eddy current signal that occurs when the distance between the probe coil and the test surface varies, causing signal noise.

Question 37: What is the recommended minimum black light intensity at the inspection surface for fluorescent PT per ASNT guidelines?

200 μW/cm²
1000 μW/cm² (Correct answer)
2000 μW/cm²
500 μW/cm²

Correct answer: 1000 μW/cm²

A minimum UV-A intensity of 1000 μW/cm² at the inspection surface is required to properly excite fluorescent penetrant indications.

Question 38: Which of the following best describes the role of ASTM International standards, such as ASTM E709 (Magnetic Particle Testing) or ASTM E1417 (Liquid Penetrant Testing), within the larger framework of NDT codes?

They are federal regulations that are legally binding in all industries.
They are personnel qualification documents used to certify NDT inspectors.
They provide detailed, consensus-based procedures and practices for how to perform a specific NDT method. (Correct answer)
They are construction codes that dictate when and where NDT must be performed.

Correct answer: They provide detailed, consensus-based procedures and practices for how to perform a specific NDT method.

ASTM International standards provide standardized, detailed methodologies and practices for performing specific NDT tests. Broader construction codes, like those from ASME or AWS, will often reference these ASTM standards as the required procedure to follow when an examination is mandated.

Question 39: When using solvent-removable penetrant (Method C), how should excess penetrant be removed from the surface?

Wipe with a dry cloth, then solvent-dampened cloth (Correct answer)
Use an air knife followed by water mist
Immerse the part in solvent bath
Spray directly with solvent to flood the surface

Correct answer: Wipe with a dry cloth, then solvent-dampened cloth

Solvent removal requires first wiping with a dry cloth to remove bulk penetrant, then using a lightly solvent-dampened cloth to clean remaining surface penetrant without flooding.

Question 40: Which of the following penetrant system combinations offers the HIGHEST sensitivity for finding fine cracks?

Type II (visible), Method C (solvent-removable), Form b (aqueous developer)
Type I (fluorescent), Method D (hydrophilic post-emulsifiable), Form d (non-aqueous wet developer) (Correct answer)
Type II (visible), Method B (lipophilic post-emulsifiable), Form a (dry powder developer)
Type I (fluorescent), Method A (water-washable), Form a (dry powder developer)

Correct answer: Type I (fluorescent), Method D (hydrophilic post-emulsifiable), Form d (non-aqueous wet developer)

Fluorescent penetrant with hydrophilic post-emulsification and non-aqueous wet developer is the highest-sensitivity combination, used in critical aerospace and power generation inspections.

Question 41: In a specific substance, the sound speed is:

None of the above
Increases with distance from the transducer
Decreases with distance from the transducer
Is constant (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Is constant

The speed of sound in a specific homogeneous material is a fundamental and constant property of that material under given conditions, such as temperature. It does not change with distance from the transducer or other factors during an ultrasonic test. This consistent speed is crucial for accurate distance measurements and flaw location in ultrasonic testing.

Question 42: A 'direct reading dosimeter' (DRD) is required during field radiography in addition to a passive dosimeter because it:

Gives the radiographer real-time dose rate feedback (Correct answer)
Measures neutron dose more accurately
Functions as backup shielding for the torso
Provides a legal cumulative dose record

Correct answer: Gives the radiographer real-time dose rate feedback

DRDs provide immediate, real-time dose rate information so radiographers can take protective action during a shoot.

Question 43: During the visual inspection of a completed weld, which of the following is NOT typically considered a primary objective of the examination?

Verifying the weld's dimensions and profile against specifications.
Assessing the overall conformity and surface finish of the weld.
Detecting surface-breaking discontinuities such as cracks or porosity.
Identifying the internal grain structure of the weld material. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Identifying the internal grain structure of the weld material.

Visual testing is a surface examination method. Its primary objectives include detecting surface flaws (cracks, porosity, undercut), checking weld geometry (size, profile), and assessing overall finish. Determining the internal grain structure is a metallurgical characteristic that requires other methods, such as destructive testing (sectioning and etching) or advanced ultrasonic techniques, and cannot be determined by visual inspection.

Question 44: What is the effect of excessive water pressure during the rinse step in water-washable penetrant testing?

It causes the developer to streak
It can wash penetrant out of shallow or wide discontinuities, causing missed indications (Correct answer)
It increases dwell time effectiveness
It improves fluorescence brightness

Correct answer: It can wash penetrant out of shallow or wide discontinuities, causing missed indications

Excessive water pressure during rinsing can force penetrant out of open discontinuities, particularly shallow ones, leading to missed indications.

Question 45: When testing nonconductive coatings over a conductive substrate, the eddy current technique can measure coating thickness because:

The coating itself generates eddy currents that are measured
Higher coating thickness increases eddy current frequency
Coating thickness changes the effective lift-off distance from the conductor (Correct answer)
The coating alters the substrate's magnetic permeability

Correct answer: Coating thickness changes the effective lift-off distance from the conductor

A nonconductive coating acts as a spacer, increasing the effective lift-off between the probe and the conductive base material, which is directly related to coating thickness.

Question 46: What minimum ambient visible light level is required at the inspection surface when using fluorescent magnetic particles?

Less than 20 foot-candles (200 lux)
Less than 2 foot-candles (20 lux) (Correct answer)
Ambient light level does not matter
Less than 50 foot-candles (500 lux)

Correct answer: Less than 2 foot-candles (20 lux)

ASTM E1444 requires the ambient white light at the inspection surface to be no greater than 2 foot-candles (20 lux) so fluorescent indications are clearly visible under UV-A light.

Question 47: What is the purpose of the 'residual method' in magnetic particle testing?

Magnetizing the part while applying particles
Demagnetizing residual fields before inspection
Applying particles after the magnetizing current is turned off (Correct answer)
Checking residual particle adhesion after testing

Correct answer: Applying particles after the magnetizing current is turned off

The residual method applies particles to a part after magnetization is complete, relying on the retained residual magnetic field to hold particles at discontinuity locations.

Question 48: The reflective surface of the discontinuity must have a diameter at least as long as ________ wavelength in order to provide a fair chance of being detected.

Two
One-quarter
One-half (Correct answer)
One

Correct answer: One-half

For reliable detection of a discontinuity using ultrasonic testing, the reflective surface of the discontinuity should ideally have a diameter at least as long as one-half of the wavelength of the ultrasonic wave. If the discontinuity is significantly smaller than half a wavelength, the sound wave tends to diffract around it, making detection difficult or impossible and reducing inspection sensitivity.

Question 49: A ferromagnetic material is being tested with eddy currents. Compared to a non-magnetic material of the same conductivity, what adjustment is typically needed?

Use a lower frequency to overcome increased skin effect
Increase probe diameter to improve signal strength
Apply a DC saturation field to reduce permeability effects (Correct answer)
Use a higher frequency to compensate for reduced conductivity

Correct answer: Apply a DC saturation field to reduce permeability effects

Ferromagnetic materials have high permeability that dramatically reduces skin depth, so a DC bias field is applied to magnetically saturate the material and minimize permeability variations.

Question 50: What type of discontinuity CANNOT be detected by liquid penetrant testing?

Cold shuts
Porosity open to the surface
Surface cracks
Subsurface voids (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Subsurface voids

LPT relies on capillary action into surface-open discontinuities; subsurface defects with no opening to the surface cannot be detected.

ASNT NDT Level II General

The ASNT NDT Level II General examination certifies competency in nondestructive testing fundamentals, principles, and theory across multiple NDT methods including ultrasonic, radiographic, magnetic particle, liquid penetrant, visual, and eddy current testing.

Questions

120 min

Time Limit

70%

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