CPHIMS Certification Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Which testing phase verifies that a newly implemented system performs acceptably under expected peak user loads?

Unit testing
User acceptance testing
Integration testing
Performance/load testing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Performance/load testing

Performance or load testing simulates peak concurrent users to validate system responsiveness under stress.

Question 2: Which of the following best describes a Health Information Exchange (HIE)?

The electronic mobilization of health-related information according to nationally recognized standards (Correct answer)
A private network used only within a single hospital system
A billing system that transmits claims electronically to payers
A government database that stores all patient records nationally

Correct answer: The electronic mobilization of health-related information according to nationally recognized standards

An HIE enables the electronic sharing of health-related information across organizations according to nationally recognized standards to improve care coordination.

Question 3: In the context of EHR implementation, which strategy BEST reduces unintended consequences related to clinical workflow disruption?

Limiting end-user training to reduce confusion
Conducting thorough workflow analysis before and after implementation (Correct answer)
Migrating all legacy data before go-live
Deploying the system in all departments simultaneously

Correct answer: Conducting thorough workflow analysis before and after implementation

Analyzing workflows before and after implementation identifies gaps and allows optimization that reduces clinical disruption and patient safety risks.

Question 4: A hospital is implementing a new CPOE system using a phased rollout approach. What is the PRIMARY advantage of this strategy?

It allows issues to be identified and resolved before full deployment (Correct answer)
It reduces total training time across all departments
It eliminates the need for downtime procedures
It guarantees the vendor meets the contract SLA

Correct answer: It allows issues to be identified and resolved before full deployment

A phased rollout limits risk exposure and lets teams address problems in earlier phases before broader deployment.

Question 5: Which type of project organizational structure gives the project manager the MOST authority?

Weak matrix
Functional
Projectized (Correct answer)
Balanced matrix

Correct answer: Projectized

In a projectized structure, team members report directly to the project manager who has full authority over resources and priorities.

Question 6: In Agile SDLC, what is a 'sprint'?

A time-boxed iteration delivering working software (Correct answer)
An emergency patch release
A performance benchmark test
A type of regression test

Correct answer: A time-boxed iteration delivering working software

A sprint is a fixed-duration iteration (typically 1–4 weeks) in Agile during which a defined set of features is developed and delivered.

Question 7: LOINC codes are primarily used in clinical informatics to standardize the representation of:

Procedure billing codes
Laboratory tests, clinical observations, and clinical document names (Correct answer)
Diagnoses and conditions
Drug names and dosages

Correct answer: Laboratory tests, clinical observations, and clinical document names

LOINC (Logical Observation Identifiers Names and Codes) provides universal codes for labs, clinical measurements, and document types to enable consistent exchange.

Question 8: In IT governance, which committee is typically responsible for prioritizing and approving major health IT investments?

Finance Audit Committee
Quality Improvement Committee
Medical Staff Committee
IT Steering Committee (Correct answer)

Correct answer: IT Steering Committee

The IT Steering Committee brings together clinical, operational, and IT leaders to prioritize investments aligned with strategic objectives.

Question 9: During which SDLC phase is the system's total cost of ownership (TCO) FIRST estimated?

Testing
Design
Maintenance
Planning/analysis (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Planning/analysis

TCO is first estimated during the planning or analysis phase as part of the feasibility study and business case development.

Question 10: Which 21st Century Cures Act provision specifically prohibits healthcare organizations from engaging in practices that block the free flow of electronic health information?

The Interoperability and Patient Access Rule
The Common Clinical Data Set requirements
Information Blocking provisions (Correct answer)
The Trusted Exchange Framework and Common Agreement (TEFCA)

Correct answer: Information Blocking provisions

The 21st Century Cures Act's information blocking provisions prohibit developers, health IT networks, and healthcare providers from engaging in practices that unreasonably restrict access, exchange, or use of electronic health information.

Question 11: A hospital seeking Magnet Recognition from the American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC) must demonstrate excellence in which domain?

Nursing practice, leadership, and patient outcomes (Correct answer)
Electronic health record implementation only
Financial sustainability and revenue cycle performance
Physician recruitment and retention strategies

Correct answer: Nursing practice, leadership, and patient outcomes

Magnet Recognition designates hospitals that demonstrate excellence in nursing practice, transformational leadership, structural empowerment, and superior patient outcomes.

Question 12: During system evaluation, which framework is most commonly used to assess the overall value of a healthcare IT investment?

Agile Scrum framework
COBIT
TOGAF
Return on Investment (ROI) analysis (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Return on Investment (ROI) analysis

ROI analysis measures the financial return relative to investment costs and is the most widely used framework for evaluating healthcare IT value.

Question 13: A health system wants to prevent unauthorized USB devices from connecting to clinical workstations. Which control BEST addresses this risk?

Endpoint device control software (Correct answer)
Role-based access control in the EHR
Network intrusion detection system
Full-disk encryption on workstations

Correct answer: Endpoint device control software

Endpoint device control software enforces policies that allow, block, or restrict USB and other removable media on workstations.

Question 14: A hospital's population health management program relies MOST on which type of data integration?

Aggregation of clinical, claims, social determinants, and patient-generated data across the care continuum (Correct answer)
Integration of HR and payroll systems
Real-time streaming of laboratory instrument results
Integration of pharmacy and supply chain data only

Correct answer: Aggregation of clinical, claims, social determinants, and patient-generated data across the care continuum

Population health management requires aggregating diverse data—clinical, claims, social determinants, and patient-generated—to identify and manage health needs across a defined population.

Question 15: In the context of US healthcare staffing, what does the term 'privileging' refer to?

Verifying a provider's insurance credentials for billing
Authorizing specific clinical procedures a provider may perform at a facility (Correct answer)
Granting physicians access to the EHR system
Assigning nurses to high-acuity patient units

Correct answer: Authorizing specific clinical procedures a provider may perform at a facility

Privileging is the process by which a healthcare organization authorizes a specific scope of patient care services a licensed practitioner may perform at that institution.

Question 16: When building an IT strategic roadmap, what is the purpose of defining 'quick wins'?

To identify underperforming staff
To reduce the overall project budget
To eliminate long-term planning requirements
To build stakeholder momentum and demonstrate early value (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To build stakeholder momentum and demonstrate early value

Quick wins deliver visible early benefits that build credibility, maintain stakeholder support, and demonstrate progress toward strategic goals.

Question 17: Under the ACA's Medicaid expansion, states that opted in extended Medicaid eligibility to adults with incomes up to what percentage of the federal poverty level (FPL)?

200% FPL
100% FPL
250% FPL
133% FPL (effectively 138% with the income disregard) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 133% FPL (effectively 138% with the income disregard)

The ACA expanded Medicaid to non-elderly adults with incomes up to 133% FPL, and with the standard 5% income disregard, the effective threshold is 138% FPL.

Question 18: A CPHIMS professional is asked to justify an infrastructure upgrade. Which document best communicates business value to executive leadership?

Risk register
Technical specification document
Business case with cost-benefit analysis (Correct answer)
Project charter only

Correct answer: Business case with cost-benefit analysis

A business case with cost-benefit analysis presents financial justification, strategic alignment, and risk considerations in terms executives can evaluate.

Question 19: Under the HIPAA Privacy Rule, a patient's right to request an amendment to their health record applies when:

The patient disagrees with a clinical diagnosis
The patient wants to delete all records older than 5 years
The covered entity made the record available to a third party
The record contains information the patient believes is inaccurate or incomplete (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The record contains information the patient believes is inaccurate or incomplete

Patients have the right to request amendments to their PHI if they believe information in their record is incorrect or incomplete, though the covered entity may deny the request.

Question 20: What kind of software does the healthcare sector employ to assess costs and monitor patient care?

Spreadsheets (Correct answer)
Simulation software
Statistical software
Database management software

Correct answer: Spreadsheets

Spreadsheets, such as Microsoft Excel, are widely used in healthcare for various administrative and analytical tasks, including assessing costs and monitoring patient care metrics. Their flexibility allows for data organization, calculations, charting, and basic analysis, making them a practical and accessible tool for tracking budgets, analyzing resource utilization, and monitoring quality indicators, especially in smaller-scale or departmental contexts.

Question 21: Which SDLC testing type verifies that previously working functionality still works after a code change?

Stress testing
User acceptance testing
Regression testing (Correct answer)
Integration testing

Correct answer: Regression testing

Regression testing ensures that new changes have not broken existing, previously validated functionality.

Question 22: Predictive analytics in healthcare is BEST exemplified by:

Documenting discharge summaries in the EHR
Displaying real-time ICU bed occupancy on a dashboard
Using historical patient data to identify patients at high risk of sepsis (Correct answer)
Generating a monthly readmission rate report

Correct answer: Using historical patient data to identify patients at high risk of sepsis

Predictive analytics applies statistical models and machine learning to historical data to forecast future events, such as identifying sepsis risk before it develops.

Question 23: Which leadership competency is MOST critical when a health IT leader must influence clinical staff who do not report to them?

Informal influence and relationship-building (Correct answer)
Technical expertise alone
Budget control
Positional authority

Correct answer: Informal influence and relationship-building

Informal influence through credibility, trust, and relationship-building is essential when formal authority does not extend across clinical departments.

Question 24: Which ITIL (Information Technology Infrastructure Library) process is primarily concerned with restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible following an unplanned interruption and minimizing the adverse impact on business operations?

Service Level Management
Change Management
Incident Management (Correct answer)
Problem Management

Correct answer: Incident Management

The primary objective of the ITIL Incident Management process is to restore IT service to users as quickly as possible after an unplanned event to minimize business impact. Problem Management focuses on finding the root cause of incidents, Change Management controls the lifecycle of changes, and Service Level Management deals with negotiating and monitoring service level agreements.

Question 25: Which organizational structure gives a project manager the MOST authority over resources in a health IT project?

Divisional structure
Matrix structure
Functional structure
Projectized (project-based) structure (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Projectized (project-based) structure

In a projectized structure, the project manager has full authority over project resources, budget, and personnel, unlike functional or matrix structures.

Question 26: In a Health Maintenance Organization (HMO), patients typically must:

Select a primary care physician and obtain referrals for specialist visits (Correct answer)
Choose any physician in the country without referrals
Pay full cost of care and submit claims for reimbursement
Enroll only if they are Medicare beneficiaries

Correct answer: Select a primary care physician and obtain referrals for specialist visits

HMOs require members to select a primary care physician (PCP) who acts as a gatekeeper and must provide referrals for specialist care within the network.

Question 27: Which of the following is an example of an internal escalation path used during a healthcare IT system go-live command center?

Posting system status updates to the public hospital website
Contacting the state health department about system downtime
Escalating unresolved issues from the help desk tier 1 to application analysts to the implementation director (Correct answer)
Submitting a change request to the vendor's development backlog

Correct answer: Escalating unresolved issues from the help desk tier 1 to application analysts to the implementation director

Internal escalation paths route unresolved issues upward through tier 1, application analysts, and leadership for resolution.

Question 28: Which implementation methodology is characterized by iterative development cycles, frequent stakeholder feedback, and adaptive planning?

PRINCE2
Waterfall
Critical path method
Agile/Scrum (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Agile/Scrum

Agile/Scrum uses short iterative sprints with continuous stakeholder collaboration and adaptive response to change.

Question 29: An informatics team is preparing to evaluate a new telehealth platform. They want to ensure the system can handle the expected number of concurrent video consultations during peak morning hours without crashing or experiencing significant lag. This type of evaluation is best described as:

Performance Testing (Correct answer)
Usability Testing
Security Testing
Functional Testing

Correct answer: Performance Testing

Performance testing is a non-functional testing type that evaluates how a system performs in terms of responsiveness, stability, and scalability under a particular workload. Simulating peak usage to check for lag or crashes is a classic example of performance (specifically, load) testing.

Question 30: Which SDLC model is BEST suited for projects where requirements are expected to evolve frequently?

Agile/iterative (Correct answer)
Waterfall
Big bang
V-model

Correct answer: Agile/iterative

Agile methodologies accommodate changing requirements through iterative development cycles and continuous stakeholder feedback.

Question 31: Which of the following is not a justification for healthcare organizations to create information technology use strategies?

To ensure that patient needs are met (Correct answer)
To determine the amount of money spent on computer system
To ensure that the organization's standards are met
To ensure that computer system are used at optimum value

Correct answer: To ensure that patient needs are met

Healthcare organizations develop IT use strategies to optimize technology's value, manage costs, and ensure compliance with organizational standards and regulations. While the ultimate goal of healthcare is to meet patient needs, an IT use strategy specifically focuses on how technology is deployed and managed to achieve broader organizational objectives, rather than directly defining patient care requirements. Patient needs are an outcome of effective IT strategy, not the direct justification for the strategy itself.

Question 32: Under the CMS Promoting Interoperability program, which capability was required for eligible hospitals to support patient access to their health information?

Automated prior authorization submission
Real-time pharmacy benefit checking
Patient Electronic Access via certified EHR technology (Correct answer)
Provider directory publication via FHIR

Correct answer: Patient Electronic Access via certified EHR technology

CMS Promoting Interoperability requires hospitals to provide patients electronic access to their health information through certified EHR technology.

Question 33: In clinical informatics, 'interoperability' at the semantic level means that:

Data is encrypted during transmission
The shared meaning of data is preserved across different systems (Correct answer)
Systems use the same hardware platform
Two systems can exchange data files

Correct answer: The shared meaning of data is preserved across different systems

Semantic interoperability ensures that the meaning of clinical data—not just its format—is consistently understood by both the sending and receiving system.

Question 34: Which type of testing deliberately pushes a system beyond its normal operational capacity to identify breaking points?

Soak testing
Stress testing (Correct answer)
Load testing
Volume testing

Correct answer: Stress testing

Stress testing intentionally overloads a system beyond its specified capacity to identify failure thresholds and how the system recovers.

Question 35: In healthcare IT project management, a RACI matrix defines:

Resource Allocation, Cost, and Integration factors
Requirements, Architecture, Coding, and Integration phases
Risk, Assumption, Constraint, and Issue categories
Roles as Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Roles as Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed

A RACI matrix clarifies team member roles by designating who is Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, and Informed for each project task.

Question 36: Six months after a new telehealth platform went live, the health IT team is actively monitoring system performance, applying security patches, resolving user-reported help desk tickets, and planning for a minor version upgrade. These ongoing activities are characteristic of which SDLC phase?

Planning
Maintenance and Evaluation (Correct answer)
Implementation
Design

Correct answer: Maintenance and Evaluation

The Maintenance and Evaluation phase begins after the system is deployed. It involves the ongoing support, monitoring, and enhancement of the system throughout its operational life to ensure it continues to function correctly, securely, and effectively.

Question 37: A hospital CIO is developing a 3-year IT strategic plan. Which framework best aligns IT goals with organizational mission?

SWOT analysis only
Balanced Scorecard (Correct answer)
PESTLE analysis only
Gap analysis only

Correct answer: Balanced Scorecard

The Balanced Scorecard aligns IT objectives with financial, customer, internal process, and learning perspectives tied to organizational mission.

Question 38: A healthcare organization is implementing a new EHR system across all its facilities simultaneously over a single weekend. All departments will switch from the legacy system to the new system at the same time. Which implementation strategy is being used?

Parallel conversion
Big Bang (Correct answer)
Phased roll-out
Pilot implementation

Correct answer: Big Bang

The 'Big Bang' approach involves implementing a new system across the entire organization at once, on a specific go-live date. This contrasts with a phased roll-out (implementing module by module or department by department), parallel conversion (running both old and new systems simultaneously for a period), or a pilot implementation (testing the system in a single, contained area before a wider release).

Question 39: When communicating IT strategy to clinical staff, which approach is MOST effective?

Translate technical goals into patient care impact (Correct answer)
Use technical jargon to demonstrate expertise
Distribute written memos only
Delegate all communication to IT staff

Correct answer: Translate technical goals into patient care impact

Clinical staff engage most effectively when IT initiatives are framed around patient care outcomes rather than technology specifications.

Question 40: Which SDLC document captures the functional and non-functional requirements agreed upon by stakeholders?

Test plan
Functional requirements specification (Correct answer)
Operational readiness checklist
Project charter

Correct answer: Functional requirements specification

The functional requirements specification documents what the system must do and any performance, security, or usability constraints.

Question 41: Which HIPAA rule specifically governs the technical, physical, and administrative safeguards for electronic PHI?

HIPAA Enforcement Rule
HIPAA Security Rule (Correct answer)
HIPAA Breach Notification Rule
HIPAA Privacy Rule

Correct answer: HIPAA Security Rule

The HIPAA Security Rule establishes national standards for protecting electronic PHI through administrative, physical, and technical safeguards.

Question 42: A hospital's 'case mix index' (CMI) is significant in healthcare finance primarily because it:

Tracks the percentage of patients with chronic conditions
Measures patient satisfaction scores across departments
Reflects the average relative weight of all patient cases and influences Medicare revenue (Correct answer)
Determines staffing ratios required by state regulators

Correct answer: Reflects the average relative weight of all patient cases and influences Medicare revenue

CMI represents the average DRG weight for a hospital's inpatient cases; a higher CMI indicates more complex cases and results in higher Medicare reimbursements.

Question 43: Which of the following best describes the role of an Integrated Delivery Network (IDN) in healthcare?

A group of unaffiliated hospitals that share administrative staff
A federal agency that integrates Medicare and Medicaid billing
A software platform that integrates multiple EHR systems
A coordinated network of providers and facilities under common ownership offering a continuum of care (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A coordinated network of providers and facilities under common ownership offering a continuum of care

An IDN is a single organization or system under common ownership that provides a full spectrum of care—from primary to acute to post-acute—often including its own health plan.

Question 44: Which committee structure is MOST effective for overseeing healthcare IT governance decisions?

IT-only steering committee
Cross-functional IT governance committee with clinical and administrative representation (Correct answer)
External vendor advisory board
Clinical informatics committee only

Correct answer: Cross-functional IT governance committee with clinical and administrative representation

A cross-functional committee ensures that IT decisions reflect clinical, operational, and financial perspectives across the organization.

Question 45: In the SDLC, 'scope creep' refers to?

Security vulnerabilities discovered post-go-live
Delayed testing phases
Budget increases approved by the sponsor
Unauthorized expansion of project requirements (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Unauthorized expansion of project requirements

Scope creep occurs when unapproved changes gradually expand the project beyond its original boundaries.

Question 46: A clinical data warehouse differs from an operational EHR database PRIMARILY because it is:

Optimized for querying and reporting across large historical datasets (Correct answer)
Used only for billing and claims processing
Restricted to physician access only
Updated in real-time with each patient encounter

Correct answer: Optimized for querying and reporting across large historical datasets

A clinical data warehouse is structured for analytical queries across large historical datasets, whereas operational databases are optimized for fast transactional updates.

Question 47: Which post-implementation activity evaluates whether a system achieved its intended benefits and ROI?

Post-implementation review (Correct answer)
Change management audit
Scope creep analysis
Functional specification review

Correct answer: Post-implementation review

A post-implementation review (PIR) assesses actual outcomes versus projected benefits after a system is deployed.

Question 48: Which risk response strategy involves transferring the financial impact of a risk to a third party?

Mitigation
Transfer (Correct answer)
Avoidance
Acceptance

Correct answer: Transfer

Risk transfer shifts the financial consequence of a risk to another party, commonly through insurance or contractual provisions with vendors.

Question 49: An IT leader notices that two departments have conflicting priorities for a shared system upgrade. What is the BEST approach?

Let the departments resolve it independently
Escalate immediately to the CEO
Facilitate a structured negotiation aligned to organizational priorities (Correct answer)
Defer the upgrade indefinitely

Correct answer: Facilitate a structured negotiation aligned to organizational priorities

Structured negotiation using organizational priority frameworks ensures conflict is resolved in a way that serves the broader mission rather than departmental preferences.

Question 50: The 'triple aim' framework developed by the Institute for Healthcare Improvement (IHI) includes improving population health, enhancing patient experience, AND:

Standardizing electronic health record platforms
Increasing hospital market share
Reducing per capita cost of care (Correct answer)
Expanding the number of licensed providers

Correct answer: Reducing per capita cost of care

IHI's Triple Aim framework focuses simultaneously on improving population health, enhancing patient experience of care, and reducing the per capita cost of healthcare.

Question 51: A hospital's EHR is offline for a planned 6-hour upgrade. During this period, clinicians must revert to paper forms for orders, medication administration, and clinical notes. What is the MOST critical component that must be in place to ensure patient safety and operational continuity?

A communication plan for the local news media
An overtime budget for data re-entry
A post-downtime user satisfaction survey
A detailed and well-rehearsed downtime procedure (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A detailed and well-rehearsed downtime procedure

A comprehensive downtime procedure is essential for maintaining patient safety and continuity of care when an EHR is unavailable. This plan outlines specific manual workflows, documentation methods, and communication protocols. While other items like a re-entry budget and surveys are useful, the immediate safety and operational aspect hinges on a clear, practiced downtime procedure.

Question 52: The CPHIMS exam expects HIT professionals to understand that the 'V-model' of SDLC pairs each development phase with a corresponding?

Budget review
User story
Design document
Testing phase (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Testing phase

The V-model pairs each development phase (requirements, design, coding) with a corresponding testing phase to validate that phase's outputs.

Question 53: Key Performance Indicators (KPIs) in a hospital dashboard BEST serve to:

Replace the need for detailed clinical documentation
Store raw patient data for future analysis
Track progress toward strategic organizational goals through measurable metrics (Correct answer)
Automate billing and claims submission

Correct answer: Track progress toward strategic organizational goals through measurable metrics

KPIs are quantifiable metrics aligned to strategic goals that allow hospital leadership to monitor performance and make data-driven decisions.

Question 54: The Hospital Readmissions Reduction Program (HRRP) penalizes hospitals by reducing Medicare payments when readmission rates exceed expected levels for which type of readmissions?

All readmissions within 180 days for any diagnosis
Readmissions from nursing homes to acute care hospitals only
Planned surgical readmissions for post-operative care
Unplanned 30-day readmissions for specified conditions such as heart failure and pneumonia (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Unplanned 30-day readmissions for specified conditions such as heart failure and pneumonia

HRRP reduces Medicare payments to hospitals with excess unplanned 30-day readmission rates for specified conditions including heart failure, AMI, pneumonia, COPD, hip/knee arthroplasty, and CABG.

Question 55: Which HL7 FHIR resource type is used to represent a list of medications a patient is currently taking or has taken?

MedicationDispense
MedicationStatement (Correct answer)
MedicationAdministration
MedicationRequest

Correct answer: MedicationStatement

The MedicationStatement resource represents a record of a medication being taken by a patient, whether reported by the patient or documented by a clinician.

Question 56: Which role is MOST responsible for approving that a system meets business requirements before go-live?

System developer
Business owner/sponsor (Correct answer)
IT project manager
Help desk analyst

Correct answer: Business owner/sponsor

The business owner or sponsor signs off on user acceptance testing to confirm the system meets operational needs.

Question 57: A hospital performs a vulnerability scan and discovers an unpatched operating system on a workstation accessing the EHR. What is the BEST immediate action?

Disable the EHR system until all workstations are scanned
Isolate the workstation from the network and apply the security patch promptly (Correct answer)
Document the finding and schedule patching during the next maintenance window in 6 months
Notify HHS of the vulnerability

Correct answer: Isolate the workstation from the network and apply the security patch promptly

Isolating the vulnerable workstation prevents potential exploitation while the patch is applied, balancing security risk management with minimal operational disruption.

Question 58: Which data exchange framework, developed by CommonWell Health Alliance and Carequality, focuses on establishing trust between different HIE networks to enable broad nationwide data sharing?

The Commonwell-Carequality Bridge (Correct answer)
The Patient Unified Lookup System for Emergencies (PULSE)
The eHealth Exchange
The Strategic Health IT Advanced Research Projects (SHARP)

Correct answer: The Commonwell-Carequality Bridge

The CommonWell-Carequality Bridge connects the two largest national interoperability networks, enabling their combined participants to exchange health information regardless of which network they belong to.

Question 59: Stakeholder engagement planning in a healthcare IT project PRIMARILY aims to:

Ensure only clinical staff are consulted during design
Delegate all communication to the vendor
Minimize the number of people involved in the project
Identify stakeholder interests and develop strategies to maintain appropriate involvement (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Identify stakeholder interests and develop strategies to maintain appropriate involvement

Stakeholder engagement planning identifies each stakeholder's needs and interests to develop targeted communication and involvement strategies throughout the project.

Question 60: Which organization publishes the ICD-10-CM diagnosis coding system used in US clinical documentation?

Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services and CDC (Correct answer)
The Joint Commission
American Health Information Management Association
American Medical Association

Correct answer: Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services and CDC

ICD-10-CM is maintained and published jointly by CMS and the CDC's National Center for Health Statistics for use in US clinical settings.

Question 61: A hospital's IT governance committee is reviewing a proposal to adopt a SaaS EHR. Which risk is UNIQUE to SaaS compared to on-premises deployment?

Need to procure data center physical space
Need to maintain server hardware
Dependence on vendor for uptime, updates, and data access (Correct answer)
Requirement to manage OS patching

Correct answer: Dependence on vendor for uptime, updates, and data access

SaaS transfers infrastructure management to the vendor, creating dependency on the vendor's availability, update schedule, and data portability policies.

Question 62: Which of the following list items constitutes a clinical decision-support system's core elements?

data, information, and knowledge tools
alters, reminders, and frequently asked questions
knowledge base, inference engine, and patient-specific information (Correct answer)
data repository, user interface, and artificial intelligence

Correct answer: knowledge base, inference engine, and patient-specific information

A Clinical Decision Support System (CDSS) relies on three core components to provide actionable insights. The knowledge base contains medical facts, guidelines, and rules; the patient-specific information provides context from the individual's health record; and the inference engine processes this information against the knowledge base to generate tailored recommendations or alerts. These elements work together to assist clinicians in making informed decisions.

Question 63: What is the primary purpose of the Medicare Severity Diagnosis Related Group (MS-DRG) system?

To assess nursing home quality for five-star ratings
To determine outpatient visit reimbursement under the physician fee schedule
To rank hospitals by patient satisfaction scores
To classify inpatient hospital cases into groups for standardized payment (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To classify inpatient hospital cases into groups for standardized payment

MS-DRGs classify inpatient cases into clinically coherent groups with similar resource utilization to establish fixed prospective payment amounts for Medicare.

Question 64: Which procurement document is used to solicit proposals from vendors for a hospital's new health information system?

Service Level Agreement (SLA)
Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA)
Request for Proposal (RFP) (Correct answer)
Statement of Work (SOW)

Correct answer: Request for Proposal (RFP)

An RFP invites vendors to submit detailed proposals describing their solutions, pricing, and qualifications for a defined healthcare IT need.

Question 65: Under HIPAA, which of the following is NOT considered protected health information (PHI)?

Insurance claim data linked to a specific individual
Lab results transmitted electronically
A patient's diagnosis documented in the EHR
De-identified health data meeting Safe Harbor standards (Correct answer)

Correct answer: De-identified health data meeting Safe Harbor standards

De-identified health data that meets HIPAA's Safe Harbor or Expert Determination standards is not considered PHI and is not subject to HIPAA protections.

Question 66: A clinical informaticist reviewing EHR audit logs notices a user accessed 500 patient records in one shift with no matching clinical assignments. This MOST likely indicates:

A potential privacy breach requiring investigation (Correct answer)
An EHR performance optimization event
Normal behavior for a night-shift charge nurse
A well-functioning population health module

Correct answer: A potential privacy breach requiring investigation

Accessing a high volume of records without clinical justification is a red flag for unauthorized access or data breach that must be investigated under HIPAA.

Question 67: In healthcare, 'utilization management' primarily involves:

Reviewing the necessity, appropriateness, and efficiency of healthcare services (Correct answer)
Auditing financial statements for regulatory compliance
Managing the physical space and equipment in clinical departments
Tracking employee attendance and shift scheduling

Correct answer: Reviewing the necessity, appropriateness, and efficiency of healthcare services

Utilization management evaluates the medical necessity and appropriateness of healthcare services at various stages—before, during, and after care delivery—to ensure efficient resource use.

Question 68: During system implementation, a cutover strategy where both old and new systems run simultaneously is called?

Direct cutover
Phased rollout
Parallel running (Correct answer)
Pilot testing

Correct answer: Parallel running

Parallel running operates both legacy and new systems concurrently to validate new system outputs before full transition.

Question 69: In healthcare IT, what does a 'test script' primarily contain?

System configuration parameters
List of all identified defects
Step-by-step instructions for executing a specific test case (Correct answer)
Performance benchmarking thresholds

Correct answer: Step-by-step instructions for executing a specific test case

A test script provides detailed, step-by-step instructions that a tester follows to execute a specific test case and verify expected results.

Question 70: In healthcare IT governance, what does the principle of 'separation of duties' primarily protect against?

Project scope creep
Fraud, errors, and unauthorized system changes (Correct answer)
Staff turnover
Budget overruns

Correct answer: Fraud, errors, and unauthorized system changes

Separation of duties ensures no single individual controls all aspects of a critical process, reducing the risk of fraud, errors, and unauthorized modifications.

Question 71: An employee accesses patient records of a celebrity out of curiosity without a treatment purpose. This is an example of which type of HIPAA violation?

Minimum necessary violation
Incidental disclosure
Willful neglect with correction
Unauthorized access (snooping) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Unauthorized access (snooping)

Accessing patient records without a legitimate treatment, payment, or operations purpose is considered unauthorized access or 'snooping,' a serious HIPAA violation.

Question 72: A hospital deploys a content delivery network (CDN) for its patient education portal. What is the PRIMARY benefit?

Compliance with HIPAA storage requirements
Increased data encryption strength
Centralized audit log collection
Reduced server load and improved page load times for distributed users (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Reduced server load and improved page load times for distributed users

A CDN caches content at geographically distributed edge nodes, reducing latency and origin server load for end users.

Question 73: A new results reporting system was recently unveiled by a local reference lab. Once test results are ready, the pathologist's report is immediately sent to the office of the ordering doctor. A systems analyst should look through the following to address patient care during the systems analysis phase:

blood splash/exposure incident reports
equipment calibration reports
lab volume trend reports
report turnaround times (Correct answer)

Correct answer: report turnaround times

During the systems analysis phase, particularly when a new results reporting system is implemented, evaluating report turnaround times is crucial for patient care. Faster and more reliable delivery of test results directly impacts the speed of diagnosis and treatment decisions, which are critical for patient outcomes. Analyzing these times helps ensure the new system is effectively improving the efficiency and quality of care.

Question 74: The Stark Law (Physician Self-Referral Law) prohibits physicians from referring patients to entities with which they have a financial relationship for which of the following services?

Primary care office visits
Any service provided in a foreign country
Telemedicine consultations only
Designated health services covered by Medicare or Medicaid (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Designated health services covered by Medicare or Medicaid

The Stark Law prohibits physician self-referrals to entities in which they have a financial interest for any of 11 'designated health services' billable to Medicare or Medicaid.

Question 75: Which IT management approach emphasizes continuous service improvement through defined processes, roles, and metrics?

Six Sigma manufacturing
Waterfall development
Agile Scrum
ITIL (Information Technology Infrastructure Library) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: ITIL (Information Technology Infrastructure Library)

ITIL is a framework specifically designed for IT service management that emphasizes process-driven continuous service improvement.

Question 76: A healthcare IT project is considered in 'scope creep' when:

The project finishes ahead of schedule
Vendors deliver components earlier than planned
The budget is reduced mid-project by the sponsor
Unauthorized features or work are added without going through change control (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Unauthorized features or work are added without going through change control

Scope creep occurs when unapproved additions to the project scope accumulate without formal change control evaluation, threatening schedule and budget.

Question 77: Which standard is most relevant for evaluating the interoperability of healthcare IT systems during testing?

ISO 9001
ITIL v4
IEEE 829
HL7 FHIR conformance testing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: HL7 FHIR conformance testing

HL7 FHIR conformance testing validates that systems correctly implement the FHIR standard for healthcare data exchange and interoperability.

Question 78: A project sponsor for an EHR implementation is BEST described as:

The vendor's account representative
The project manager who coordinates daily tasks
The lead developer responsible for coding
The executive who champions the project and provides resources (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The executive who champions the project and provides resources

The project sponsor is the senior executive who champions the initiative, secures funding, and removes organizational barriers.

Question 79: When conducting a stakeholder analysis for an EHR implementation, which group should be identified as having HIGH influence but LOW interest?

Patients
Regulatory bodies (Correct answer)
IT staff
Frontline nurses

Correct answer: Regulatory bodies

Regulatory bodies typically have high influence over compliance requirements but low day-to-day interest in operational details, placing them in the 'keep satisfied' quadrant.

Question 80: Under HIPAA, which of the following is a required implementation specification (not addressable) under the Technical Safeguards?

Audit controls (Correct answer)
Automatic logoff
Encryption and decryption of ePHI
Encryption of data at rest

Correct answer: Audit controls

Audit controls are a required implementation specification under the HIPAA Security Rule's Technical Safeguards, meaning covered entities must implement them regardless of cost or feasibility.

Question 81: When creating test cases for a clinical decision support system, which approach ensures the most comprehensive coverage?

Testing only the most common clinical scenarios
Using equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis (Correct answer)
Testing random data inputs
Relying solely on end-user feedback

Correct answer: Using equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis

Equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis are systematic techniques that maximize test coverage while minimizing the number of test cases needed.

Question 82: Which document formally defines the testing objectives, scope, approach, and schedule for a healthcare IT implementation?

Defect log
Test script
Test plan (Correct answer)
Test case

Correct answer: Test plan

A test plan is the comprehensive document that outlines the overall strategy, scope, resources, and schedule for the testing effort.

Question 83: In the SDLC, which activity ensures that system documentation remains current after the system goes live?

Maintenance and operations (Correct answer)
Design review
Requirements gathering
Feasibility study

Correct answer: Maintenance and operations

The maintenance and operations phase includes updating documentation, applying patches, and managing system changes over the system's life.

Question 84: When building a healthcare analytics report, stratifying patient outcomes by age, gender, and race PRIMARILY supports:

Billing accuracy and claim submission rates
Staff scheduling optimization
Vendor performance evaluation
Health equity analysis to identify and address disparate outcomes (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Health equity analysis to identify and address disparate outcomes

Stratifying outcomes by demographic factors allows organizations to identify disparities in care and take targeted action to promote health equity.

Question 85: Natural Language Processing (NLP) in healthcare analytics is MOST valuable for:

Extracting structured information from unstructured clinical narrative text (Correct answer)
Generating insurance authorization requests
Routing patient messages to the appropriate care team
Encrypting structured billing codes

Correct answer: Extracting structured information from unstructured clinical narrative text

NLP enables systems to parse unstructured clinical notes, discharge summaries, and radiology reports to extract coded, analyzable data elements.

Question 86: Which of the following BEST describes the concept of IT governance maturity in healthcare?

The size of the IT department
The degree to which IT governance processes are defined, measured, and continuously improved (Correct answer)
The number of IT policies in place
The age of the organization's IT systems

Correct answer: The degree to which IT governance processes are defined, measured, and continuously improved

IT governance maturity reflects how well-defined, consistently practiced, measured, and continuously improved governance processes are within an organization.

Question 87: A quality assurance analyst is assigned to test a new clinical decision support (CDS) alert module. The analyst is given the functional requirements but has no knowledge of the underlying code, database structure, or internal logic. They proceed to test by providing various inputs and verifying the outputs against the requirements. Which testing approach is being used?

Alpha Testing
White-Box Testing
Black-Box Testing (Correct answer)
Grey-Box Testing

Correct answer: Black-Box Testing

Black-box testing is a method of software testing that examines the functionality of an application without peering into its internal structures or workings. The tester is only concerned with the inputs and outputs of the software, which aligns with the described scenario.

Question 88: A superuser program is established during an EHR implementation. What is the PRIMARY function of superusers?

To perform system builds and configuration changes
To audit compliance with HIPAA during the transition period
To provide at-the-elbow support and peer training to colleagues during and after go-live (Correct answer)
To serve as the primary technical support contact for the vendor

Correct answer: To provide at-the-elbow support and peer training to colleagues during and after go-live

Superusers are trained power users who support peers at the point of care, easing the transition to the new system.

Question 89: A health information management professional is tasked with ensuring that the organization's new electronic health record (EHR) system can exchange data with the local pharmacy's system. Which type of organization is primarily responsible for developing the standards that make this interoperability possible?

Standards Development Organization (SDO) (Correct answer)
Governmental Regulatory Agency
Accreditation Body
Healthcare Insurance Company

Correct answer: Standards Development Organization (SDO)

Standards Development Organizations (SDOs), such as HL7 and ISO, are responsible for creating, maintaining, and publishing standards that enable interoperability between different health information systems. These standards provide the common language and framework for data exchange.

Question 90: Which entity is responsible for publishing and maintaining Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes?

National Committee for Quality Assurance
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
American Medical Association (Correct answer)
American Health Information Management Association

Correct answer: American Medical Association

CPT codes are owned and maintained by the American Medical Association (AMA) and are used to describe medical, surgical, and diagnostic services for billing purposes.

Question 91: Which configuration management practice ensures that all changes to a production healthcare IT system are documented, reviewed, and approved before implementation?

Incident management
Change control board (CCB) review (Correct answer)
Capacity planning
Disaster recovery planning

Correct answer: Change control board (CCB) review

A Change Control Board reviews and approves all proposed system changes to minimize unplanned risk to production environments.

Question 92: A hospital is implementing a new EHR system and wants to test all interfaces between subsystems. Which type of testing is most appropriate?

Regression testing
Integration testing (Correct answer)
Unit testing
Stress testing

Correct answer: Integration testing

Integration testing validates that different subsystems and interfaces work correctly together as a combined system.

Question 93: Which regulatory body enforces HIPAA Privacy and Security Rules against covered entities?

Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
The Joint Commission
Office for Civil Rights (OCR) within HHS (Correct answer)
Food and Drug Administration

Correct answer: Office for Civil Rights (OCR) within HHS

The HHS Office for Civil Rights (OCR) is the federal agency responsible for enforcing HIPAA Privacy, Security, and Breach Notification Rules.

Question 94: In health informatics, which type of study design provides the HIGHEST level of evidence for evaluating the effectiveness of a health IT intervention?

Cross-sectional survey
Cohort study
Randomized Controlled Trial (RCT) (Correct answer)
Case-control study

Correct answer: Randomized Controlled Trial (RCT)

RCTs provide the strongest evidence by randomly assigning participants to intervention and control groups, minimizing bias.

Question 95: Which quality management concept focuses on building quality into processes rather than inspecting defects after the fact?

Benchmarking
Quality assurance (Correct answer)
Gold plating
Quality control

Correct answer: Quality assurance

Quality assurance proactively evaluates processes and standards to prevent defects, whereas quality control inspects outputs after they are produced.

Question 96: A healthcare organization is implementing a new cybersecurity strategy. Which of the following practices represents a proactive approach to enhancing security by limiting the potential spread of a breach?

Conducting annual phishing simulations.
Enforcing a strong password policy.
Implementing network segmentation. (Correct answer)
Purchasing cybersecurity insurance.

Correct answer: Implementing network segmentation.

Network segmentation is the practice of dividing a computer network into smaller, isolated subnetworks or segments. This practice contains threats within a compromised segment, preventing them from moving laterally to other parts of the network. This is a crucial proactive security measure in healthcare to protect critical systems, like medical devices and EHR databases, from being affected by a breach in a less secure area, such as guest Wi-Fi.

Question 97: Which metric is MOST useful for measuring the effectiveness of end-user training delivered during a healthcare IT implementation?

Number of training manuals distributed
Number of training sessions completed
Total training budget spent
Post-training assessment scores and observed proficiency in the live system (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Post-training assessment scores and observed proficiency in the live system

Assessment scores combined with observed live-system proficiency directly measure whether training produced competent users.

Question 98: A hospital implements a sepsis alert that triggers when lactate > 2 mmol/L AND systolic BP < 90 mmHg. This type of CDS logic is called:

Passive reference recommendation
Single-parameter threshold alert
Multi-condition composite rule (Correct answer)
Drug-drug interaction alert

Correct answer: Multi-condition composite rule

Multi-condition composite rules combine multiple clinical parameters using Boolean logic to improve alert specificity and reduce false-positive rates.

Question 99: Which of the following is a primary goal of applying usability principles, such as those developed by Jakob Nielsen, to the design of a new electronic health record (EHR) system?

To ensure the system meets all regulatory requirements for data security.
To guarantee the system can be accessed from any mobile device.
To reduce the cognitive load on clinicians and minimize the risk of errors. (Correct answer)
To decrease the financial cost of system development and implementation.

Correct answer: To reduce the cognitive load on clinicians and minimize the risk of errors.

A core objective of usability is to create systems that are effective, efficient, and satisfying for users. In healthcare, this translates to designing EHRs that are intuitive, reduce the mental effort (cognitive load) required to perform tasks, and prevent errors, thereby enhancing patient safety and clinician satisfaction.

Question 100: Under HIPAA, who bears ultimate accountability for ensuring a covered entity's compliance with security regulations?

The Privacy Officer
The IT Department
The CISO
The organization's leadership/Board (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The organization's leadership/Board

Ultimate accountability for HIPAA compliance rests with the organization's senior leadership and governing board, not individual staff roles.

Question 101: During EHR go-live, the system experiences significantly slower response times than during testing. Which type of testing was likely inadequate?

Regression testing
Performance testing (Correct answer)
Usability testing
Unit testing

Correct answer: Performance testing

Performance testing, including load and stress testing, should have identified response time degradation under realistic production volumes.

Question 102: A lab system upgrade causes the medication reconciliation module to malfunction unexpectedly. What testing should have caught this?

Unit testing
User acceptance testing
Regression testing (Correct answer)
Volume testing

Correct answer: Regression testing

Regression testing after the lab system upgrade should have validated that the medication reconciliation module continued to function correctly.

Question 103: What is the primary distinction between 'incidence' and 'prevalence' in epidemiology as applied to healthcare planning?

Incidence measures new cases in a time period; prevalence measures total existing cases at a point in time (Correct answer)
Both terms are interchangeable in healthcare informatics
Incidence applies only to infectious diseases; prevalence applies to chronic conditions
Incidence measures total existing cases; prevalence measures new cases in a period

Correct answer: Incidence measures new cases in a time period; prevalence measures total existing cases at a point in time

Incidence counts new cases occurring during a specific period, while prevalence counts all existing cases (new and old) at a particular point or over a period.

Question 104: Which interoperability standard uses RESTful APIs and JSON or XML formats, making it easier to integrate health data with modern web and mobile applications?

HL7 FHIR R4 (Correct answer)
HL7 v2.x
HL7 CDA
X12 EDI 837

Correct answer: HL7 FHIR R4

HL7 FHIR R4 leverages RESTful web services and supports both JSON and XML, enabling easier integration with contemporary web and mobile application development frameworks.

Question 105: A healthcare organization is implementing a new system and needs to train 2,000 staff members across three shifts. Which training delivery model is MOST efficient for this scenario?

Distributing printed training manuals to all staff
One-on-one instructor-led training for each user
Blended learning combining e-learning modules with hands-on lab sessions (Correct answer)
Training only department managers who then cascade learning informally

Correct answer: Blended learning combining e-learning modules with hands-on lab sessions

Blended learning scales effectively across large, shift-based workforces by combining self-paced e-learning with targeted hands-on practice.

Question 106: An IT steering committee is evaluating several proposed projects, including a CPOE upgrade, a new patient portal, and a data warehouse for analytics. Which of the following criteria is MOST important for prioritizing these projects within the IT portfolio?

Alignment with the organization's strategic objectives and potential business value. (Correct answer)
The personal preference and influence of the Chief Information Officer (CIO).
The technical complexity and difficulty of each project.
The estimated cost and budget requirements of each project in isolation.

Correct answer: Alignment with the organization's strategic objectives and potential business value.

Effective IT portfolio management prioritizes projects based on their alignment with the organization's strategic goals and their potential to deliver business value. While cost, complexity, and leadership input are factors, the primary driver for prioritization in a well-governed organization is ensuring that limited resources are allocated to initiatives that best support the overall mission.

Question 107: In the context of HIE, what is 'semantic interoperability'?

The use of identical software platforms across all participating organizations
The legal framework governing data sharing agreements between organizations
The ability of receiving systems to interpret exchanged data with the intended meaning (Correct answer)
The ability of two systems to physically transmit data to each other

Correct answer: The ability of receiving systems to interpret exchanged data with the intended meaning

Semantic interoperability ensures that the meaning of exchanged information is preserved and correctly understood by the receiving system, going beyond just technical connectivity.

Question 108: In the US healthcare system, a 'never event' as defined by the National Quality Forum refers to:

An insurance claim that is automatically denied on first submission
A serious, largely preventable patient safety event that should never occur in a healthcare setting (Correct answer)
A diagnosis code that cannot be assigned to an inpatient stay
A medical procedure that has never been approved by the FDA

Correct answer: A serious, largely preventable patient safety event that should never occur in a healthcare setting

NQF defines 'never events' as serious reportable events that are unambiguous, serious, usually preventable, and of concern to the public and healthcare providers.

Question 109: What is the primary purpose of a Business Associate Agreement (BAA) under HIPAA?

To allow unlimited data sharing between healthcare organizations
To ensure vendors safeguard PHI they access on behalf of a covered entity (Correct answer)
To authorize third parties to sell patient data
To eliminate the need for encryption of transmitted data

Correct answer: To ensure vendors safeguard PHI they access on behalf of a covered entity

A BAA is a contract that requires business associates to appropriately safeguard PHI they create, receive, maintain, or transmit on behalf of a covered entity.

Question 110: What is the difference between change management and project management in IT governance?

Project management controls system changes; change management delivers new projects
Change management controls modifications to existing systems; project management delivers new capabilities (Correct answer)
They are identical processes
Change management only applies to organizational culture

Correct answer: Change management controls modifications to existing systems; project management delivers new capabilities

Change management governs controlled modifications to production systems, while project management coordinates the delivery of new solutions and capabilities.

Question 111: In data quality management, 'data integrity' PRIMARILY means:

Data is encrypted during transmission
Data is accessible only to authorized users
Data is accurate, complete, and consistent across systems (Correct answer)
Data is stored in a relational database format

Correct answer: Data is accurate, complete, and consistent across systems

Data integrity ensures that healthcare data is accurate, complete, and remains consistent whether viewed from the EHR, data warehouse, or reporting system.

Question 112: An IT steering committee is reviewing three competing projects with limited budget. Which approach BEST supports governance-based prioritization?

Evaluate projects using a scoring matrix that weighs strategic alignment, ROI, and risk (Correct answer)
Fund the project requested by the most senior executive
Choose the least expensive project
Fund projects in the order they were submitted

Correct answer: Evaluate projects using a scoring matrix that weighs strategic alignment, ROI, and risk

A structured scoring matrix ensures consistent, objective, and strategy-driven project prioritization rather than subjective or political decision-making.

Question 113: What does 'audit logging' primarily provide in a healthcare information security context?

Encryption of data in transit
Automatic blocking of unauthorized access attempts
Backup copies of all patient records
A record of who accessed or modified patient data and when (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A record of who accessed or modified patient data and when

Audit logs create a chronological record of system activity including user access, data modifications, and login attempts, supporting accountability and forensic investigations.

Question 114: In the context of the SDLC, what is the primary purpose of a data conversion plan?

To migrate existing data accurately into the new system (Correct answer)
To establish system downtime windows
To document interface specifications
To train end users on the new system

Correct answer: To migrate existing data accurately into the new system

A data conversion plan details the process for extracting, transforming, and loading legacy data into the new system accurately.

Question 115: A hospital is preparing for a major EHR implementation. The project team identifies respected clinicians and operational staff to receive advanced training. During the go-live, these individuals will provide at-the-elbow assistance to their colleagues, answer workflow questions, and act as a bridge between end-users and the IT project team. This role is best known as a:

Super User (Correct answer)
Vendor Representative
Project Manager
Clinical Analyst

Correct answer: Super User

A Super User is a specially trained end-user from a clinical or operational department who acts as a frontline resource for their peers during a system implementation. Their primary role is to provide immediate support, reinforce correct workflows, and champion the new system. A Project Manager oversees the entire project, a Clinical Analyst is typically an IT professional who helps design and configure the system, and a Vendor Representative is an employee of the software company.

CPHIMS Certification Exam

The CPHIMS (Certified Professional in Healthcare Information and Management Systems) exam validates competency in healthcare IT management, covering technology environments, systems lifecycle, and administration leadership.

115

Questions

120 min

Time Limit

75%

To Pass

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