Environmental Compliance Inspector Air Quality and Emissions Questions and Answers 1 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: A city's air monitoring data consistently shows ground-level ozone concentrations above the federal standard. Under the Clean Air Act, what is the most likely regulatory designation for this city, and what major planning requirement does this trigger?
- Attainment Area; this triggers a review of the area's Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) plan.
- Nonattainment Area; this triggers the requirement for a State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision. (Correct answer)
- Class I Area; this triggers a mandatory visibility impairment assessment.
- Unclassifiable Area; this triggers a requirement for additional ambient air monitoring.
Correct answer: Nonattainment Area; this triggers the requirement for a State Implementation Plan (SIP) revision.
When an area's air quality does not meet a National Ambient Air Quality Standard (NAAQS) for a criteria pollutant like ozone, it is designated as a 'Nonattainment Area'. This designation requires the state to develop and submit a revision to its State Implementation Plan (SIP) that outlines new control strategies and measures to bring the area into compliance with the standard.
Question 2: Under the Clean Air Act, major sources of the 187 listed Hazardous Air Pollutants (HAPs) are required to implement a specific level of emission control. What is this technology-based standard called?
- Best Available Control Technology (BACT)
- Lowest Achievable Emission Rate (LAER)
- Reasonably Available Control Technology (RACT)
- Maximum Achievable Control Technology (MACT) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Maximum Achievable Control Technology (MACT)
Section 112 of the Clean Air Act requires major sources of HAPs to meet emission standards that require the maximum degree of reduction achievable. These standards are commonly referred to as Maximum Achievable Control Technology (MACT) standards. BACT and LAER are associated with the New Source Review (NSR) program for criteria pollutants, and RACT is typically for existing sources in nonattainment areas.
Question 3: Which of the following is one of the six "criteria air pollutants" for which the U.S. EPA has established National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)?
- Asbestos
- Methane
- Sulfur Dioxide (SO2) (Correct answer)
- Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
Correct answer: Sulfur Dioxide (SO2)
The U.S. EPA has set National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) for six common pollutants known as criteria air pollutants. These are: ground-level ozone (O3), particulate matter (PM), carbon monoxide (CO), lead (Pb), nitrogen dioxide (NO2), and sulfur dioxide (SO2). Asbestos is a Hazardous Air Pollutant (HAP), while methane and carbon dioxide are primarily regulated as greenhouse gases.
Question 4: An environmental inspector is reviewing the compliance of a large petroleum refinery that is a major source of air pollutants. What type of comprehensive, facility-wide operating permit, which consolidates all applicable Clean Air Act requirements into a single document, is this facility required to obtain?
- A Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) Permit
- A Title V Operating Permit (Correct answer)
- A New Source Performance Standard (NSPS) Registration
- An Air Contaminant Discharge Permit (ACDP)
Correct answer: A Title V Operating Permit
Title V of the Clean Air Act requires major sources of air pollution to obtain a federally enforceable operating permit. This Title V permit consolidates all applicable federal, state, and local air quality requirements into a single, comprehensive document, clarifying the facility's compliance obligations.
Question 5: An inspector is scheduled to conduct a visible emissions evaluation to determine compliance with an opacity limit. What is the standard EPA reference method used by a certified observer for visually determining the opacity of emissions from a stationary source?
- Method 5
- Method 9 (Correct answer)
- Method 22
- Method 201A
Correct answer: Method 9
EPA Reference Method 9 is the standard procedure for trained and certified observers to visually determine the opacity of emissions from stationary sources. It involves taking observations at 15-second intervals over a specified period. Method 5 and 201A are for measuring particulate matter concentration, and Method 22 is for determining the frequency (presence or absence) of visible emissions, not their opacity level.
Question 6: A new manufacturing facility is planned for construction in an area that is currently meeting all National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS). The facility will be a major source of nitrogen oxides (NOx). What pre-construction permitting program under the Clean Air Act is this facility subject to, and what level of emission control will it likely be required to install?
- Nonattainment New Source Review (NNSR); requiring Lowest Achievable Emission Rate (LAER).
- Title V Operating Permit Program; requiring Reasonably Available Control Technology (RACT).
- Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD); requiring Best Available Control Technology (BACT). (Correct answer)
- National Emission Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants (NESHAP); requiring Maximum Achievable Control Technology (MACT).
Correct answer: Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD); requiring Best Available Control Technology (BACT).
The Prevention of Significant Deterioration (PSD) program applies to new major sources or major modifications at existing sources for pollutants in areas designated as 'attainment' or 'unclassifiable'. The purpose of PSD is to ensure that air quality in clean areas does not significantly degrade. A key requirement of the PSD program is the installation of Best Available Control Technology (BACT). NNSR and LAER apply to sources in nonattainment areas.
