Treatment Planning & Management Flashcards
7 cards from real EMS practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Treatment Planning & Management flashcards as text
A patient with Type 1 diabetes presents with fruity breath, Kussmaul respirations, and blood glucose of 480 mg/dL. This presentation is MOST consistent with:
Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
DKA presents with hyperglycemia, ketone production (fruity breath), and Kussmaul respirations as the body compensates for metabolic acidosis.
During management of a patient with suspected stroke, which intervention is MOST critical to optimize outcomes?
Answer: Document FAST exam findings and minimize scene time
Rapid identification using FAST/Cincinnati Stroke Scale and minimizing scene time to allow early CT and tPA administration within the therapeutic window is paramount.
A patient is in status epilepticus (continuous seizure >5 minutes). Which pharmacological intervention is MOST appropriate in the prehospital setting?
Answer: Lorazepam or diazepam IV/IM per protocol
Benzodiazepines (lorazepam, diazepam, midazolam) are the first-line prehospital treatment for status epilepticus by enhancing GABA inhibition.
When treating a patient with a femur fracture, which concern should guide fluid resuscitation?
Answer: A single femur fracture can cause 500-1500 mL of blood loss into the thigh
A closed femur fracture can sequester 500-1500 mL of blood into the thigh compartment, necessitating assessment for hemorrhagic shock.
A patient has a SpO2 of 100% but you suspect carbon monoxide poisoning. What is the CORRECT management?
Answer: Administer high-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask regardless of SpO2
Pulse oximetry cannot differentiate carboxyhemoglobin from oxyhemoglobin, so 100% SpO2 is falsely reassuring; high-flow O2 accelerates CO elimination.
A patient in cardiac arrest has received 2 doses of epinephrine and 3 defibrillations with persistent VF. Which antiarrhythmic should be administered NEXT per AHA guidelines?
Answer: Amiodarone 300 mg IV push
Amiodarone 300 mg IV is the preferred antiarrhythmic for shock-refractory VF/pulseless VT per current AHA ACLS guidelines.
You are managing a 3-year-old with severe croup presenting with stridor at rest and sternal retractions. Which prehospital treatment is MOST appropriate?
Answer: Nebulized racemic epinephrine if available per protocol
Nebulized racemic epinephrine reduces subglottic edema in severe croup and is the preferred pharmacological treatment in the prehospital setting.