Mixed Deck — All EMS Topics Flashcards

Which of the following medications is classified as a Schedule II controlled substance?

Answer: Morphine sulfate

Morphine sulfate is a Schedule II controlled substance due to its high potential for abuse and dependence, requiring strict documentation in EMS.

What does PPE stand for in the context of Emergency Medical Services Certified safety protocols?

Answer: Personal Protective Equipment

PPE stands for Personal Protective Equipment, which includes items worn to minimize exposure to hazards that cause injuries.

A patient confides suicidal ideation to the EMT and asks that it not be shared with the hospital staff. The EMT should:

Answer: Disclose the information to receiving staff because it is critical for patient safety

Suicidal ideation is a safety-critical disclosure that must be communicated in the handoff report; patient safety supersedes confidentiality in this context.

What is the first step in the risk management process for Emergency Medical Services Certified?

Answer: Identifying potential risks and hazards

Risk identification is the first step, as you must know what risks exist before you can assess and manage them.

What does risk mitigation mean in Emergency Medical Services Certified practice?

Answer: Taking steps to reduce the likelihood or impact of identified risks

Risk mitigation involves implementing strategies to reduce either the probability of a risk occurring or its potential impact.

Which of the following is a sign of lidocaine toxicity in a patient receiving an IV infusion?

Answer: Perioral numbness, confusion, and seizures

Lidocaine toxicity presents with CNS signs including perioral numbness, metallic taste, confusion, and — at high levels — seizures.

Non-malfeasance as an EMS ethical principle means:

Answer: Avoiding actions that cause unnecessary harm to the patient

Non-malfeasance, derived from 'first, do no harm,' obligates EMS providers to avoid interventions that cause unnecessary harm.

What is the primary goal of OSHA regulations in EMS?

Answer: To ensure workplace safety for EMS personnel

The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) sets and enforces standards to ensure safe and healthful working conditions for employees. For EMS personnel, this includes regulations regarding bloodborne pathogens, personal protective equipment (PPE), hazard communication, and safe lifting practices. OSHA's goal is to protect EMS providers from occupational hazards and injuries, ensuring their well-being while on duty.

Which sign is the MOST reliable indicator of correct ETT placement?

Answer: Continuous waveform capnography showing CO2

Continuous waveform capnography (EtCO2) is the gold standard for confirming and monitoring ETT placement throughout transport.

When a patient is actively seizing on scene, what is the EMT's first priority after ensuring scene safety?

Answer: Protect the patient from environmental hazards and monitor the airway

During an active seizure, the EMT should move harmful objects away, position the patient safely, and monitor the airway—restraining the patient or forcing an airway device can cause injury.

Where is needle decompression performed for a tension pneumothorax using the traditional approach?

Answer: 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line

Traditional needle decompression is performed at the 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line, just above the 3rd rib to avoid neurovascular structures.

EMS peer review processes are typically protected from legal discovery under:

Answer: State peer review protection statutes

Most states have peer review protection laws that shield QI deliberations and findings from discovery in litigation to encourage candid quality improvement discussions.

A patient is in status epilepticus (continuous seizure >5 minutes). Which pharmacological intervention is MOST appropriate in the prehospital setting?

Answer: Lorazepam or diazepam IV/IM per protocol

Benzodiazepines (lorazepam, diazepam, midazolam) are the first-line prehospital treatment for status epilepticus by enhancing GABA inhibition.

What is a fundamental principle of Clinical Procedures & Protocols in Emergency Medical Services Certified practice?

Answer: Following established standards and best practices

Following established standards and best practices ensures quality and consistency in Clinical Procedures & Protocols.

The prefix 'brady-' in medical terminology means:

Answer: Slow

Brady- means slow, as in bradycardia (slow heart rate) or bradypnea (slow breathing).

What is the legal term for the crime of transporting a patient to a healthcare facility without their consent when they are competent to refuse?

Answer: False imprisonment

Transporting a competent patient against their will constitutes false imprisonment, a criminal and civil offense.

What is the correct term for a temporary neurological deficit that fully resolves within 24 hours?

Answer: Transient ischemic attack (TIA)

A TIA produces stroke-like symptoms that resolve completely within 24 hours (usually within 1 hour) and is a major warning sign for an impending stroke.

Which medication is used in the pre-hospital setting to reverse opioid overdose?

Answer: Naloxone

Naloxone (Narcan) is the opioid antagonist used to rapidly reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression.

Which intervention is the definitive prehospital treatment for a symptomatic bradycardia unresponsive to atropine?

Answer: Transcutaneous pacing (TCP)

Transcutaneous pacing is the definitive intervention for symptomatic bradycardia that does not respond to atropine.

A newborn delivered in the field is limp, cyanotic, and not breathing. After drying and stimulation, what is the next step?

Answer: Open the airway and provide positive pressure ventilation

If a newborn does not respond to drying and stimulation, positive pressure ventilation (PPV) is the next critical intervention.