EMR (Emergency Medical Responder) Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A pediatric patient is breathing at 40 breaths per minute with nasal flaring and subcostal retractions. What does this indicate?

Hyperventilation due to anxiety — reassure the child
Increased work of breathing indicating respiratory distress requiring intervention (Correct answer)
Adequate breathing — no intervention needed
Normal respiratory effort for a child under 1 year of age

Correct answer: Increased work of breathing indicating respiratory distress requiring intervention

Nasal flaring and subcostal retractions are signs of increased work of breathing, indicating respiratory distress regardless of age. A rate of 40/min in a child under 1 year may be normal, but accessory muscle use and retractions signal distress requiring oxygen and monitoring.

Question 2: Which of the following statements is correct?

The ears are medial to the eyes.
The wrist is distal to the elbow. (Correct answer)
The knee is proximal to the thigh.
The head is inferior to the neck.

Correct answer: The wrist is distal to the elbow.

The term 'distal' means farther away from the point of attachment or the trunk of the body. The wrist is indeed farther from the trunk than the elbow, making the statement 'The wrist is distal to the elbow' correct. Conversely, 'proximal' means closer to the point of attachment.

Question 3: All of the following are upper airway structures, except the:

larynx
alveoli (Correct answer)
pharynx
epiglottis

Correct answer: alveoli

The upper airway structures include the nasopharynx, oropharynx, larynx, and epiglottis, all of which are involved in conducting air to the lungs. The alveoli, however, are tiny air sacs located deep within the lungs, specifically in the lower respiratory tract. Their primary function is gas exchange, making them a part of the lower airway, not the upper airway.

Question 4: When opening the airway of an unconscious injured patient, you should:

grasp the patient's tongue and lower jaw and lift.
use the jaw-thrust maneuver. (Correct answer)
use the head tilt-chin lift maneuver.
insert an oral airway before manually moving the head.

Correct answer: use the jaw-thrust maneuver.

When opening the airway of an unconscious injured patient, especially if there's a suspected head, neck, or spinal injury, the jaw-thrust maneuver should be used. This technique minimizes movement of the cervical spine, which is crucial to prevent further injury. The head tilt-chin lift maneuver is generally used for patients without suspected spinal trauma.

Question 5: An EMR is treating a patient in anaphylactic shock following a bee sting. The patient has hives, facial swelling, and audible wheezing. Which medication is most indicated?

Oral diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
Aspirin 325 mg
Epinephrine auto-injector (EpiPen) (Correct answer)
Nitroglycerin sublingual tablet

Correct answer: Epinephrine auto-injector (EpiPen)

Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis. It reverses bronchospasm, reduces urticaria and angioedema, and counteracts cardiovascular collapse. An auto-injector (0.3 mg IM for adults) should be administered immediately.

Question 6: Before splinting, crepitus is identified when an EMR palpates a suspected fracture site. Crepitus refers to:

A crackling sensation caused by air under the skin
Increased warmth and redness over the fracture site
A visible deformity indicating bone displacement
A grating or grinding sensation caused by broken bone ends rubbing together (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A grating or grinding sensation caused by broken bone ends rubbing together

Crepitus is the grating or grinding sensation produced when fractured bone ends move and rub against each other during palpation.

Question 7: When providing care for a patient with a suspected spinal injury, which technique should be used to open the airway?

Jaw-thrust maneuver (Correct answer)
Neck hyperextension
Head-tilt chin-lift
Finger sweep

Correct answer: Jaw-thrust maneuver

The jaw-thrust maneuver opens the airway without moving the cervical spine, making it the preferred method for patients with suspected spinal injuries.

Question 8: At a scene with a patient who speaks no English and a potential spinal injury, the EMR cannot obtain a clear history. Which approach BEST reflects sound first-responder principles?

Perform a physical exam, use non-verbal communication and gestures, and apply spinal precautions based on mechanism of injury (Correct answer)
Defer entirely to bystanders who claim to speak the language before touching the patient
Treat only obvious life threats and document that language barriers prevented full assessment
Withhold all treatment until an interpreter is physically present at the scene

Correct answer: Perform a physical exam, use non-verbal communication and gestures, and apply spinal precautions based on mechanism of injury

When a language barrier exists, EMRs should use physical assessment findings, mechanism of injury, and non-verbal cues to guide care. Spinal precautions are applied based on clinical judgment and mechanism, not solely on the patient's verbal history.

Question 9: The location of a lateral body part is:

away from the midline of the body. (Correct answer)
toward the center of the body.
at the highest point of the body.
in the lower part of the body.

Correct answer: away from the midline of the body.

In anatomical terminology, 'lateral' means away from the midline of the body. The midline is an imaginary line that divides the body into equal left and right halves. For example, the arms are lateral to the chest, meaning they are positioned further from the body's central axis.

Question 10: Which of the following symptoms does not typically accompany a patient suffering from a severe airway obstruction?

clenching the throat.
unable to communicate.
Cyanotype.
violent coughing fit. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: violent coughing fit.

A patient with a severe airway obstruction typically cannot cough effectively because there isn't enough air movement to produce a strong cough. Instead, they often exhibit signs like clutching their throat, cyanosis (bluish discoloration), and an inability to speak or make sounds. A violent coughing fit is more characteristic of a mild airway obstruction where some air can still pass.

Question 11: The direct ground lift should not be performed if the patient:

has a back injury and is able to walk.
weighs more than 175 pounds (79 kg).
has experienced a traumatic injury. (Correct answer)
is unconscious and not breathing.

Correct answer: has experienced a traumatic injury.

The direct ground lift involves multiple rescuers lifting a patient directly from the ground to a stretcher. This technique requires some manipulation and movement of the patient's body. Therefore, it is contraindicated if a traumatic injury, especially to the spine, is suspected, as any unnecessary movement could worsen the injury. For trauma patients, spinal immobilization devices are preferred.

Question 12: Which of the following pieces of equipment should be included in the EMR's life support kit?

Endotracheal tubes
Manual defibrillator
Mouth-to-mask ventilation device (Correct answer)
Mechanical suction device

Correct answer: Mouth-to-mask ventilation device

An EMR's life support kit should include essential basic airway and ventilation equipment. A mouth-to-mask ventilation device is a standard piece of equipment for EMRs, allowing for safe and effective rescue breathing while providing a barrier between the rescuer and the patient. Manual defibrillators, endotracheal tubes, and mechanical suction devices are typically found in more advanced life support kits used by paramedics or higher-level providers.

Question 13: For a patient with an open fracture and exposed bone ends, the EMR should:

Attempt to push exposed bone back beneath the skin before dressing
Irrigate the wound thoroughly with sterile saline to prevent infection
Cover the wound and bone with a moist sterile dressing without reducing the bone (Correct answer)
Apply direct pressure directly over the exposed bone to control bleeding

Correct answer: Cover the wound and bone with a moist sterile dressing without reducing the bone

The EMR should cover exposed bone with a moist sterile dressing to protect tissue from contamination without attempting to reduce or irrigate the wound in the field.

Question 14: The principle of implied consent assumes that an unconscious patient:

has a living will on file.
has a life-threatening condition.
would wish to receive treatment. (Correct answer)
is at least 18 years of age.

Correct answer: would wish to receive treatment.

The principle of implied consent assumes that an unconscious, incapacitated, or severely injured patient who is unable to give express consent would, if conscious and able, consent to life-saving medical treatment. This legal doctrine allows EMRs and other healthcare providers to provide necessary care in emergency situations without explicit permission, based on the presumption that the patient desires to live.

Question 15: When you encounter a patient with a significant illness, it is important to remember that he or she:

may be experiencing any stage of grief. (Correct answer)
is usually depressed and will not talk.
has probably already accepted the situation.
will always project anger toward you.

Correct answer: may be experiencing any stage of grief.

Grief is a highly individual and non-linear process, meaning patients with significant illnesses may experience any of the stages (denial, anger, bargaining, depression, acceptance) at different times and in varying orders. It is crucial for EMRs to be empathetic and understand that a patient's emotional state can fluctuate widely, requiring flexible and compassionate care.

Question 16: What is the MOST appropriate action when an EMR suspects elder abuse during a patient assessment?

Confront the suspected abuser at the scene
Ask the patient directly if they are being abused in front of the family
Do not document suspicions to avoid false accusations
Document observations objectively and report to appropriate authorities per protocol (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Document observations objectively and report to appropriate authorities per protocol

EMRs are mandatory reporters of suspected abuse. The correct action is to document findings objectively (bruising inconsistent with explanation, signs of neglect, fear in the patient) and report to receiving hospital staff and authorities per local protocol.

Question 17: You enter the residence of an unconscious 30-year-old man. As you are approaching the patient, who is lying motionless on the floor, you should:

note the patient's position and any unusual odors or sounds. (Correct answer)
conclude that the patient is suffering from a severe illness.
advise your partner that the patient appears to be deceased.
rule out a traumatic injury because the patient is inside.

Correct answer: note the patient's position and any unusual odors or sounds.

As you approach an unconscious patient, it's vital to observe the scene for clues that can help determine the cause of their condition and ensure your safety. Noting the patient's position can indicate a fall or other trauma, while unusual odors (like gas or chemicals) or sounds (like gurgling) can point to specific medical emergencies or hazards. This initial observation helps inform your subsequent assessment and care.

Question 18: What is the PRIMARY purpose of applying a splint to a suspected fracture in the pre-hospital setting?

Prevent further injury and reduce pain (Correct answer)
Restore circulation to the injured limb
Eliminate the need for X-rays at the hospital
Realign bone fragments to their normal position

Correct answer: Prevent further injury and reduce pain

Splinting prevents further injury to soft tissues, nerves, and blood vessels while reducing pain and movement at the fracture site.

Question 19: Which of the following would most likely produce the greatest amount of stress for the EMR?

Depression
Death (Correct answer)
Exercise
Anger

Correct answer: Death

Dealing with death, especially unexpected or traumatic death, is consistently identified as one of the most significant stressors for emergency medical personnel. The finality of death, the impact on grieving families, and the feeling of helplessness can evoke profound emotional responses, often surpassing other stressors in its immediate and lasting impact.

Question 20: The 'RICE' acronym for initial treatment of musculoskeletal soft tissue injuries stands for:

Rest, Ice, Circulation check, Elevation
Reduce, Immobilize, Cool, Evaluate
Rest, Immobilize, Compress, Evaluate
Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation

RICE (Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation) is the standard initial treatment for sprains and strains to minimize swelling and control pain.

Question 21: When splinting an injured extremity, the splint should be applied to immobilize:

The fracture site and the joint below only
The joint above and the joint below the injury (Correct answer)
The entire limb from the shoulder or hip to the foot
Only the fracture site itself

Correct answer: The joint above and the joint below the injury

A properly applied splint must immobilize the joint above and the joint below the suspected fracture to eliminate bone movement at the injury site.

Question 22: If breathing is inadequate or absent providing rescue breathing can:

prevent cardiac arrest. (Correct answer)
cause hypoxic injury to the brain.
cause hypoxic injury to the organs.
cause cardiac arrest.

Correct answer: prevent cardiac arrest.

If breathing is inadequate or absent, providing rescue breathing is a critical intervention that can prevent cardiac arrest. Respiratory arrest often precedes cardiac arrest, especially in children. By providing artificial ventilations, the rescuer ensures that oxygen continues to reach the patient's lungs and bloodstream, thereby maintaining oxygenation of vital organs and potentially preventing the heart from stopping.

Question 23: Which of the following BEST describes an EMR's 'scope of practice'?

The policies set by the EMR's employer regarding allowable overtime hours
The geographic area in which an EMR is legally allowed to respond
The number of patients an EMR can treat simultaneously during a mass casualty incident
The specific skills and interventions an EMR is trained and legally authorized to perform (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The specific skills and interventions an EMR is trained and legally authorized to perform

Scope of practice defines the medical interventions, skills, and procedures that a certified EMR is trained and legally permitted to perform. Exceeding this scope can result in legal liability and patient harm.

Question 24: What does the term 'Standard Precautions' mean in the context of EMS?

Treating only patients who consent to care
Assuming all patients may carry infectious pathogens and using appropriate PPE for every patient encounter (Correct answer)
Wearing gloves only when blood is visibly present
Using sterile technique for all wound dressings

Correct answer: Assuming all patients may carry infectious pathogens and using appropriate PPE for every patient encounter

Standard Precautions are infection control measures that assume all patients — regardless of diagnosis — may carry bloodborne or airborne pathogens. They require gloves for every patient contact, and additional PPE (mask, eye protection, gown) when exposure to body fluids is anticipated.

Question 25: A patient with a splinted forearm reports pain that is out of proportion to the original injury, worsening with passive finger extension. The EMR should suspect:

Nerve damage from the original injury
Allergic reaction to the splint material
Improper fracture positioning
Compartment syndrome (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Compartment syndrome

Pain out of proportion to the injury and pain with passive stretch are classic early warning signs of compartment syndrome, a limb-threatening emergency.

Question 26: 2-rescuer CPR is performed at a ratio of what in a child?

15 to 2 (Correct answer)
30 to 1
15 to 1
30 to 2

Correct answer: 15 to 2

For 2-rescuer CPR in a child, the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio is 15 compressions to 2 breaths. This ratio ensures that the child receives adequate ventilations, which are often more critical in pediatric cardiac arrest cases due to respiratory causes. The higher frequency of breaths compared to adult 2-rescuer CPR (30:2) reflects this physiological difference and the greater importance of ventilations in children.

Question 27: A patient has a partial-thickness burn covering the entire anterior surface of one arm. Using the Rule of Nines for adults, what percentage of total body surface area (TBSA) does this represent?

18%
1%
4.5% (Correct answer)
9%

Correct answer: 4.5%

In adults, each arm accounts for 9% TBSA total — 4.5% for the anterior surface and 4.5% for the posterior surface. Only the front of one arm is burned here, so the correct estimate is 4.5%. Accurate TBSA estimation guides triage and hospital notification.

Question 28: A patient experiencing a stroke shows right-sided facial droop and arm weakness. In which hemisphere is the stroke most likely located?

Brain stem
Cerebellum
Left hemisphere (Correct answer)
Right hemisphere

Correct answer: Left hemisphere

Motor deficits are contralateral — right-sided weakness indicates a stroke in the left cerebral hemisphere.

Question 29: Gastric inflation can cause all of the following conditions, except:

emphysema. (Correct answer)
pneumonia.
aspiration.
vomiting.

Correct answer: emphysema.

Gastric inflation, which occurs when air enters the stomach during ventilations, can lead to several complications like aspiration (inhaling stomach contents), vomiting, and even pneumonia if aspiration occurs. However, emphysema is a chronic lung disease characterized by damage to the alveoli, and it is not a direct consequence or condition caused by acute gastric inflation during resuscitation efforts.

Question 30: Which of the following is not part of the standard precautions recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)?

Wash your hands immediately after patient contact.
Wear a face shield if blood splatter is anticipated.
Place needles directly in a puncture-proof container.
Use leather gloves as a barrier against blood and fluids. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Use leather gloves as a barrier against blood and fluids.

Leather gloves are not considered an effective barrier against blood and body fluids because they are porous and can absorb liquids, allowing pathogens to pass through. Standard precautions require the use of non-porous, disposable gloves (like latex or nitrile) for protection against infectious materials to ensure an adequate barrier.

Question 31: When assessing an injured extremity, the abbreviation 'PMS' stands for:

Perfusion, Mobility, Swelling
Pain, Movement, Sensation
Pulse, Motor function, Sensation (Correct answer)
Pressure, Motion, Stability

Correct answer: Pulse, Motor function, Sensation

PMS (Pulse, Motor function, Sensation) is the standard neurovascular assessment used to evaluate an injured extremity before and after splinting.

Question 32: A patient who verbally or non-verbally lets you know that he or she is willing to accept treatment is giving you ____________ consent.

expressed (Correct answer)
informed
implied
assumed

Correct answer: expressed

Expressed consent occurs when a conscious, mentally competent adult clearly and unequivocally agrees to treatment, either verbally or through a clear gesture. This type of consent is explicit and demonstrates the patient's understanding and willingness to receive care. It is a fundamental ethical and legal principle in emergency medical services.

Question 33: When responding to a vehicle collision, which of the following is an example of a high-energy mechanism of injury?

A head-on collision at 45 mph with intrusion into the passenger compartment (Correct answer)
A 10 mph rear-end collision with airbag deployment
A parking lot collision at walking speed
A sideswipe collision at 15 mph with no airbag deployment

Correct answer: A head-on collision at 45 mph with intrusion into the passenger compartment

A head-on collision at 45 mph with passenger compartment intrusion represents a high-energy mechanism with significant potential for severe multisystem trauma, triggering a 'trauma alert' response and rapid transport.

Question 34: Which of the following is the most reliable indicator of a possible bone fracture even when no deformity is visible?

Point tenderness directly over the bone (Correct answer)
Decreased range of motion in a nearby joint
Bruising appearing 24 hours after injury
Muscle soreness surrounding the injury

Correct answer: Point tenderness directly over the bone

Point tenderness directly over the bone is a highly reliable indicator of fracture and should prompt immobilization and transport.

Question 35: The five-year-old boy you are taking to the hospital is anxious and has a 92% oxygen saturation level. Taking an NRB or nasal cannula off his face will not sit well with him. The greatest thing for you to do is:

Tie the patient's hands to the stretcher to restrain them.
hold the mask against his face and look away.
Adjust the mask's straps more firmly.
Assign the mask to the patient's mother to hold it near his face. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Assign the mask to the patient's mother to hold it near his face.

When a child is anxious and resistant to wearing an oxygen mask, involving a trusted caregiver like the mother can significantly improve compliance. Having the mother hold the mask near his face, rather than forcing it on, provides a sense of comfort and control for the child, making him more likely to accept the oxygen delivery. This approach prioritizes patient comfort and cooperation while still ensuring oxygen is administered effectively.

Question 36: After splinting a lower leg fracture, the EMR should position the injured limb:

Elevated above the level of the heart when possible (Correct answer)
In the position of greatest comfort regardless of elevation
Flat at chest level during transport
In a dependent position to promote circulation

Correct answer: Elevated above the level of the heart when possible

Elevating an injured extremity above heart level reduces edema and pain by promoting venous and lymphatic drainage away from the injury.

Question 37: During a behavioral emergency, which approach is most effective when communicating with an agitated patient?

Ignore the patient until law enforcement arrives
Physically restrain the patient immediately
Use calm, non-threatening language and maintain a safe distance (Correct answer)
Speak loudly and assertively to establish control

Correct answer: Use calm, non-threatening language and maintain a safe distance

Calm, quiet communication and maintaining a safe, non-threatening posture helps de-escalate a behavioral emergency.

Question 38: In addition to ensuring your own safety, the most important guideline to follow when moving a patient is to:

move the patient as little as possible.
do no further harm to the patient. (Correct answer)
move the patient's body as a unit.
move the patient only when necessary.

Correct answer: do no further harm to the patient.

The most important guideline when moving a patient is the principle of 'do no further harm.' While moving a patient as little as possible and as a unit are important techniques, any movement must be carefully considered to avoid exacerbating existing injuries or creating new ones. Prioritizing the patient's well-being and preventing additional injury is paramount.

Question 39: When caring for a patient with a suspected pelvic fracture, the EMR's primary concern should be:

Spinal cord compression from bone fragments
Bladder impingement from bone fragment displacement
Significant internal hemorrhage and developing shock (Correct answer)
Properly splinting the pelvis in a position of comfort

Correct answer: Significant internal hemorrhage and developing shock

Pelvic fractures can cause life-threatening internal hemorrhage because the pelvic cavity can accumulate several liters of blood, rapidly producing hypovolemic shock.

Question 40: When a patient is found trapped inside a vehicle in extreme cold with the engine running, the EMR should first consider:

Carbon monoxide poisoning in addition to hypothermia (Correct answer)
Frostbite as the primary concern
Only hypothermia as a concern
No hazard since the patient is inside the vehicle

Correct answer: Carbon monoxide poisoning in addition to hypothermia

An enclosed vehicle with a running engine creates a carbon monoxide accumulation risk in addition to the hypothermia from the cold environment.

Question 41: An infant is not breathing. After opening the airway, what is the correct ventilation technique?

Use a bag-valve mask at the same rate as adults
Use only nose-pinching technique as with adults
Cover both the mouth and nose with your mouth and deliver gentle puffs (Correct answer)
Tilt the head back fully and deliver full breaths

Correct answer: Cover both the mouth and nose with your mouth and deliver gentle puffs

For infants, the rescuer covers both the nose and mouth to create a seal and delivers gentle puffs just enough to see chest rise.

Question 42: An EMR must document patient care. Which of the following is the MOST important reason for accurate documentation?

It replaces verbal handoff to receiving clinicians
It satisfies billing requirements only
It allows the EMR to avoid legal liability entirely
It ensures continuity of care and provides a legal medical record (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It ensures continuity of care and provides a legal medical record

Accurate documentation ensures continuity of care between providers and serves as an official legal and medical record of the patient encounter.

Question 43: In which of the following situations would the use of a gown or apron, face shield, and gloves clearly be indicated?

Emergency childbirth (Correct answer)
Minor trauma
All emergency situations
Obtaining vital signs

Correct answer: Emergency childbirth

Emergency childbirth involves significant exposure to blood, amniotic fluid, and other body fluids. Therefore, the use of a gown or apron, face shield, and gloves is clearly indicated to protect the EMR from potential splashes and contamination. This level of personal protective equipment (PPE) is essential for preventing the transmission of infectious diseases in such a high-risk scenario.

Question 44: When administering mouth-to-mouth breathing techniques to an adult, it's crucial to:

Seal your lips over the victim's mouth and nose while inhaling deeply.
Seal your lips around the victim's mouth while inhaling deeply.
Seal your lips over the victim's mouth and nose while inhaling shallowly.
As you close your lips around the victim's mouth, inhale deeply. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: As you close your lips around the victim's mouth, inhale deeply.

When administering mouth-to-mouth breathing to an adult, it's crucial to create an airtight seal by closing your lips around the victim's mouth. You should then inhale deeply to ensure you have enough air to deliver a full breath, which should be given slowly over about one second, making the chest visibly rise. Pinching the victim's nose closed is also essential to prevent air leakage.

Question 45: Proper technique when performing the head tilt chin lift includes:

placing your thumb on the bony part of the lower jaw and lifting it up.
closing the patient’s mouth completely when lifting to knock the tongue out of the way.
placing your fingers on the bony part of the lower jaw and bringing the chin forward. (Correct answer)
placing two fingers on the soft palate under the chin and bringing the chin forward.

Correct answer: placing your fingers on the bony part of the lower jaw and bringing the chin forward.

The correct technique for the head tilt-chin lift maneuver involves placing your fingers on the bony part of the lower jaw (mandible) near the chin and gently lifting the chin forward while simultaneously tilting the head back. This action lifts the tongue away from the back of the throat, opening the airway. It's crucial to avoid pressing on the soft tissues under the chin, which could obstruct the airway.

Question 46: A dislocation is best defined as:

A crack or break in the continuity of a bone
Stretching or tearing of ligaments supporting a joint
Tearing of muscle fibers surrounding a joint
Displacement of a bone end from its normal joint position (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Displacement of a bone end from its normal joint position

A dislocation occurs when the bone end is displaced from its normal anatomical position within the joint capsule.

Question 47: A 3-year-old child ingested an unknown household chemical. The child is conscious. What is your first action?

Administer activated charcoal
Call Poison Control (1-800-222-1222) or 911 (Correct answer)
Give the child milk to dilute the substance
Induce vomiting immediately

Correct answer: Call Poison Control (1-800-222-1222) or 911

For any poisoning emergency, Poison Control or EMS activation should occur immediately; vomiting should never be induced without medical direction.

Question 48: An unresponsive adult patient is breathing adequately and has no suspected spinal injury. Which position should the EMR place this patient in to best protect the airway?

Prone position with arms extended
Recovery (lateral recumbent) position (Correct answer)
Supine with head elevated 30 degrees
Fowler's position (sitting upright)

Correct answer: Recovery (lateral recumbent) position

The recovery position (left lateral recumbent) keeps the airway open and allows fluids such as vomit or blood to drain from the mouth, reducing the risk of aspiration in a breathing but unresponsive patient without suspected spinal injury.

Question 49: The ratio for compressions to breaths for a child with just one rescuer is:

15 to 2
30 to 1
15 to 1
30 to 2 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 30 to 2

For a single rescuer performing CPR on a child, the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio is 30 compressions to 2 breaths. This ratio is consistent with adult single-rescuer CPR and ensures a balance between maintaining blood flow through compressions and providing oxygen through ventilations. It allows for efficient delivery of both components of CPR.

Question 50: You witnessed a patient become unresponsive after choking. The correct order of procedures is to:

open the victim’s mouth, look for an occluding object, then remove it with your fingers.
start chest compressions, open the victim’s mouth, look for an occluding object, then remove it with your fingers. (Correct answer)
open the victim’s mouth, look for an occluding object, then remove it with a bite stick.
start chest compressions, open the victim’s mouth, look for an occluding object, then remove it with a bite stick.

Correct answer: start chest compressions, open the victim’s mouth, look for an occluding object, then remove it with your fingers.

If a choking patient becomes unresponsive, the protocol shifts to CPR. The first step is to begin chest compressions, as these can help dislodge the obstruction and maintain some blood flow. After each set of compressions (or before rescue breaths), the rescuer should open the victim's mouth, look for a visible foreign object, and if seen, remove it with a finger sweep. Blind finger sweeps are not recommended.

Question 51: When using a simple face mask:

deliver air over 2 seconds making the chest rise.
slowly deliver air over 3 seconds.
deliver air using a quick, forceful "puff".
deliver air over 1 second. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: deliver air over 1 second.

When providing ventilations with a simple face mask (or any bag-mask device), each breath should be delivered slowly and smoothly over approximately 1 second. This allows time for the air to enter the lungs without causing gastric inflation, and it helps to ensure adequate chest rise. Delivering air too quickly or forcefully can lead to complications.

Question 52: When immobilizing a patient on a long backboard, what is the correct order of strapping?

Head first, then chest, then legs
Any order is acceptable as long as all straps are applied
Legs first, then head, then chest
Chest/torso first, then legs, then head last (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Chest/torso first, then legs, then head last

Strapping should proceed torso first, then legs, then head last. Securing the head before the torso can cause spinal movement if the patient shifts on the board.

Question 53: When transporting a victim by stretcher:

you can leave the AED attached, but it must be powered off.
The pads and AED must be removed prior to transport.
the AED must be disconnected but the pads can stay.
you can leave the AED powered on and attached. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: you can leave the AED powered on and attached.

When transporting a patient for whom an AED has been applied, it is best practice to leave the AED powered on and attached to the patient. This allows for continuous cardiac monitoring and ensures that the AED is immediately ready to deliver another shock if the patient's rhythm becomes shockable again during transport. Disconnecting or powering it off would delay potential life-saving interventions.

Question 54: Which of the following interventions would the EMR most likely perform at the scene of a cardiac arrest?

Administration of certain medications
Insertion of an endotracheal tube
Initiation of an intravenous line
CPR and defibrillation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: CPR and defibrillation

Emergency Medical Responders (EMRs) are trained and equipped to perform basic life support interventions. In a cardiac arrest scenario, their primary roles include initiating high-quality cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and using an automated external defibrillator (AED) for defibrillation. More advanced interventions like medication administration, endotracheal intubation, or IV line initiation are typically performed by higher-level providers like paramedics.

Question 55: Components of the quality improvement process, as identified by the Institute of Medicine, include all of the following, except:

safety.
efficiency.
teamwork. (Correct answer)
timeliness.

Correct answer: teamwork.

The Institute of Medicine (now National Academy of Medicine) identified six core aims for healthcare quality: safety, effectiveness, patient-centeredness, timeliness, efficiency, and equity. While teamwork is essential for effective healthcare delivery, it is considered an enabler or characteristic of a high-quality system, rather than one of the six distinct aims themselves.

Question 56: A sprain is best defined as:

A stretching or tearing of ligaments at a joint (Correct answer)
Inflammation of a tendon sheath from overuse
A partial or complete tear of a muscle belly
An avulsion of a tendon from its bony attachment

Correct answer: A stretching or tearing of ligaments at a joint

A sprain is an injury to the ligaments at a joint caused by excessive stretching or tearing forces beyond their normal range.

Question 57: When performing a rapid trauma assessment, the EMR uses the mnemonic DCAP-BTLS to assess for:

Depth of breathing, color, and lung sounds
Degree of pain, consciousness, and airway patency
Deformities, contusions, abrasions, punctures, burns, tenderness, lacerations, and swelling (Correct answer)
Vital signs and neurological deficits

Correct answer: Deformities, contusions, abrasions, punctures, burns, tenderness, lacerations, and swelling

DCAP-BTLS stands for Deformities, Contusions, Abrasions, Punctures/Penetrations, Burns, Tenderness, Lacerations, and Swelling.

Question 58: When assessing the airway of a conscious adult patient, which method is preferred to open the airway?

Sellick maneuver
Head-tilt chin-lift maneuver (Correct answer)
Tongue-jaw lift
Jaw-thrust maneuver

Correct answer: Head-tilt chin-lift maneuver

The head-tilt chin-lift is the preferred technique for opening the airway in a conscious patient with no suspected spinal injury. The jaw-thrust is reserved for patients with suspected cervical spine trauma.

Question 59: At what point is a child considered an adult in relation to CPR?

After the onset of puberty (Correct answer)
After the development of an Adam's apple
The age of 14
The age of 10

Correct answer: After the onset of puberty

In the context of CPR guidelines, a child is considered an adult once they show signs of puberty, such as the development of an Adam's apple in males or breast development in females. This distinction is important because adult CPR guidelines, including compression depth and ratios, are then applied due to the patient's increased body size and physiological maturity.

Question 60: You are on the scene of a 77-year-old female who is not breathing. This condition is best described as:

anemia.
aphasia.
anoxia.
apnea. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: apnea.

Apnea is the medical term used to describe the absence of breathing. In the scenario of a 77-year-old female who is not breathing, "apnea" accurately and precisely describes her condition. Other options like anemia (lack of red blood cells), aphasia (difficulty with speech), and anoxia (absence of oxygen) do not describe the cessation of breathing itself.

Question 61: You arrive on scene and find a patient who is apneic, pulseless, and has obvious dependent lividity. What is the correct action?

Begin CPR immediately
Do not resuscitate and document findings (Correct answer)
Attempt two rescue breaths first
Apply the AED and analyze rhythm

Correct answer: Do not resuscitate and document findings

Obvious signs of death such as dependent lividity, rigor mortis, or decapitation indicate that resuscitation is not appropriate and should not be initiated.

Question 62: A patient is found in a cold environment, confused, shivering severely, and has a core temperature of 32°C (89.6°F). This presentation is consistent with:

Severe hypothermia
Mild hypothermia
Frostbite without hypothermia
Moderate hypothermia (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Moderate hypothermia

A core temperature of 32°C with confusion and shivering places this patient in the moderate hypothermia range (28–32°C).

Question 63: At a hazardous materials incident, the EMR's primary role is to:

Enter the hot zone to begin triage immediately
Begin decontamination without PPE
Identify the chemical using direct contact
Operate within the cold zone, provide support, and avoid contamination (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Operate within the cold zone, provide support, and avoid contamination

EMRs are not trained for hot-zone operations and must stay in the cold zone to provide support without becoming victims themselves.

Question 64: When performing rescue breathing for an adult who has a pulse but is not breathing, how often should you deliver ventilations?

Every 10–12 seconds
Every 15 seconds
Every 2–3 seconds
Every 5–6 seconds (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Every 5–6 seconds

Rescue breathing for an adult with a pulse is delivered at a rate of one breath every 5–6 seconds (10–12 breaths per minute).

Question 65: A strain differs from a sprain in that a strain involves:

Ligament damage at a joint
Bone fracture without skin disruption
Muscle or tendon injury from overstretching or tearing (Correct answer)
Nerve compression from swelling at a joint

Correct answer: Muscle or tendon injury from overstretching or tearing

A strain is an injury to a muscle or its tendon caused by overstretching or tearing, distinguishing it from a sprain which involves ligaments.

Question 66: Carbon monoxide poisoning is best treated with:

Room air and rest
High-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask (Correct answer)
Low-flow oxygen at 2 LPM
Artificial ventilation only if unconscious

Correct answer: High-flow oxygen via non-rebreather mask

High-flow 100% oxygen via non-rebreather mask accelerates the displacement of CO from hemoglobin, reducing the half-life of carboxyhemoglobin.

Question 67: The risk of infection to the rescuer while performing CPR is:

non-existent.
high.
extremely low. (Correct answer)
moderate.

Correct answer: extremely low.

The risk of infection to a rescuer while performing CPR, particularly from diseases like HIV or Hepatitis B, is considered extremely low. While universal precautions should always be followed, direct transmission during CPR is rare, especially with the use of barrier devices like pocket masks. Rescuers should not hesitate to perform CPR due to fear of infection.

Question 68: The respiratory system functions by:

eliminating damaged blood cells from the body.
bringing oxygen into the body and removing carbon dioxide. (Correct answer)
ensuring that an adequate amount of oxygen reaches the body's cells.
transporting oxygenated blood throughout the body.

Correct answer: bringing oxygen into the body and removing carbon dioxide.

The primary function of the respiratory system is gas exchange. It is responsible for taking in oxygen from the atmosphere, which is essential for cellular metabolism, and expelling carbon dioxide, a waste product of metabolism, from the body. This continuous exchange is vital for maintaining the body's acid-base balance and overall cellular function.

Question 69: You arrive at the scene of an incident involving a motor vehicle and a pedestrian. Law enforcement officers are present, but the paramedic unit will not arrive for another 5 minutes. Your patient, who was struck by the vehicle, is a 16-year-old girl. She is unconscious and has severe bleeding from her head. You should:

contact the child's parents and obtain phone consent before rendering any emergency medical care.
begin immediate treatment and ask a law enforcement officer to attempt to contact the child's parents. (Correct answer)
keep curious bystanders away from the patient until the paramedic unit arrives at the scene.
ask a law enforcement officer to sign a statement that you are providing care without parental consent.

Correct answer: begin immediate treatment and ask a law enforcement officer to attempt to contact the child's parents.

In an emergency involving an unconscious minor with life-threatening injuries (like severe bleeding), implied consent allows EMRs to begin immediate treatment without parental permission. Delaying care to obtain consent could be detrimental to the patient's outcome. It is appropriate to simultaneously initiate treatment and delegate the task of contacting the child's parents to another responsible party, such as law enforcement.

Question 70: A patient is found in a cold environment, shivering violently, with slurred speech and confusion. Which stage of hypothermia does this represent?

Superficial frostbite
Moderate hypothermia (Correct answer)
Severe hypothermia
Mild hypothermia

Correct answer: Moderate hypothermia

Moderate hypothermia is characterized by shivering, slurred speech, confusion, and poor coordination as core body temperature drops further.

Question 71: A rescuer’s exhaled air contains approximately:

21% oxygen.
17% oxygen. (Correct answer)
15 % oxygen.
24% oxygen.

Correct answer: 17% oxygen.

A rescuer's exhaled air contains approximately 17% oxygen. While atmospheric air contains about 21% oxygen, the body utilizes some of it during respiration. This 17% oxygen content is sufficient to provide adequate oxygenation to a patient during rescue breathing, making mouth-to-mouth or mouth-to-mask ventilation an effective life-saving intervention.

Question 72: A patient who fell through ice into a frozen lake is pulled out. Their core temperature is estimated at 30°C (86°F). What rhythm disturbance is most concerning?

Sinus tachycardia
Ventricular fibrillation (Correct answer)
Normal sinus rhythm
First-degree AV block

Correct answer: Ventricular fibrillation

Severe hypothermia (below 30°C) makes the myocardium highly susceptible to ventricular fibrillation, which is the primary lethal rhythm concern.

Question 73: An open fracture is defined as one in which:

The fracture involves more than two bone fragments
Both bones of a paired limb are fractured
Bone or bone ends break through the overlying skin (Correct answer)
The fracture is not visible on X-ray

Correct answer: Bone or bone ends break through the overlying skin

An open (compound) fracture involves bone or bone ends penetrating through the skin, creating an external wound and a high risk of infection.

Question 74: Upon arriving at the scene of an emergency call, a visual survey will enable you to:

determine the number of patients and estimate injury severity (Correct answer)
identify the patients who are the most critically ill or injured.
determine the events that occurred shortly before the incident.
identify any type of hazardous materials that may be involved.

Correct answer: determine the number of patients and estimate injury severity

Upon arriving at an emergency scene, a visual survey is a critical initial step to quickly assess the overall situation. This rapid scan allows EMRs to identify obvious hazards, determine the approximate number of patients involved, and make a preliminary estimate of the severity of their injuries or illnesses. This information is crucial for requesting additional resources and prioritizing patient care.

Question 75: Which joint is most commonly dislocated in the human body?

Knee
Elbow
Shoulder (Correct answer)
Hip

Correct answer: Shoulder

The shoulder (glenohumeral joint) is most frequently dislocated due to its extremely wide range of motion and relatively shallow socket.

Question 76: Which of the following is the MOST reliable sign of adequate CPR chest compressions?

The patient's skin becomes warm and pink
Capnography reading above 35 mmHg
The patient begins to breathe spontaneously
A palpable pulse with each compression (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A palpable pulse with each compression

A palpable femoral or carotid pulse with each compression confirms that compressions are generating adequate cardiac output and blood flow to the central circulation.

Question 77: Which finding BEST indicates that a patient has adequate perfusion?

Respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min
GCS score of 13
Blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg
Radial pulse present and skin warm and dry (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Radial pulse present and skin warm and dry

A palpable radial pulse with warm, dry skin indicates adequate peripheral perfusion.

Question 78: Which sign best differentiates hypothermia from hypoglycemia in an unresponsive patient found outdoors?

Hypothermia always causes rigid muscles
Hypothermia includes cold skin temperature and bradycardia (Correct answer)
Hypoglycemia causes flushed skin and tachycardia
Both conditions present identically

Correct answer: Hypothermia includes cold skin temperature and bradycardia

Hypothermia is characterized by measurably cold core temperature, bradycardia, and cool skin, which helps distinguish it from hypoglycemia.

Question 79: You saw a patient go into cardiac arrest and start CPR after dispatching another rescuer to obtain an AED and turn on the emergency response system. When a third rescuer shows up, he ought to:

aid in the ventilation of the bag mask. (Correct answer)
remain vigilant and uphold scene security.
Get the AED and assist the second rescuer.
assist with basic ventilation for face masks.

Correct answer: aid in the ventilation of the bag mask.

In a multi-rescuer CPR scenario, when a third rescuer arrives, their most effective role is to aid in the ventilation of the bag-mask device. This allows the primary rescuer to maintain continuous chest compressions, while the second rescuer focuses on the AED and emergency response system. This division of labor optimizes the efficiency and effectiveness of CPR.

Question 80: Which of the following is considered to be an early sign of hypoxia?

Head bobbing
Sleepy appearance
Disorientation (Correct answer)
Loss of coordination

Correct answer: Disorientation

Hypoxia, a lack of adequate oxygen to the body's tissues, can manifest with various signs. Early signs often involve changes in mental status due to the brain's sensitivity to oxygen deprivation. Disorientation, confusion, restlessness, and anxiety are common early indicators of hypoxia, preceding more severe signs like loss of coordination or a sleepy appearance.

Question 81: A patient has a suspected hip dislocation after a motor vehicle collision. The EMR should:

Flex the knee to 90 degrees to reduce muscle tension before splinting
Attempt to relocate the hip to restore normal anatomical position
Splint the hip in the position found and arrange immediate transport (Correct answer)
Apply a traction splint to the affected lower extremity

Correct answer: Splint the hip in the position found and arrange immediate transport

Dislocations should be splinted in the position found without attempting relocation, as reduction attempts can cause neurovascular injury and require physician-level intervention.

Question 82: When applying direct pressure to control bleeding from a deep wound, how long should pressure be maintained before reassessing?

30 seconds
1 minute, then check if bleeding has stopped
At least 5 minutes without lifting the dressing (Correct answer)
Until the patient arrives at the hospital

Correct answer: At least 5 minutes without lifting the dressing

Direct pressure should be maintained continuously for at least 5 minutes without lifting the dressing. Lifting the dressing too soon disrupts clot formation and restarts bleeding.

Question 83: An EMR is treating a burn patient. The burn involves the entire right arm, anterior trunk, and the patient's head and neck. Using the Rule of Nines, what is the approximate total body surface area (TBSA) burned?

45%
36% (Correct answer)
27%
18%

Correct answer: 36%

Using the Rule of Nines: right arm = 9%, anterior trunk = 18%, head and neck = 9%. Total = 9 + 18 + 9 = 36% TBSA.

Question 84: You are caring for a patient with severe bleeding from the thigh. Direct pressure has failed to control it. What is your next step?

Apply a tourniquet 2–3 inches above the wound (Correct answer)
Elevate the limb and apply ice
Pack the wound and apply pressure
Apply a pressure bandage over the existing dressing

Correct answer: Apply a tourniquet 2–3 inches above the wound

A tourniquet applied 2–3 inches proximal to the wound is the appropriate next step when direct pressure fails to control life-threatening extremity bleeding.

Question 85: A patient is bleeding from a wound on the scalp. Which characteristic of scalp wounds should the EMR be aware of?

They rarely bleed significantly due to limited vascularity
They always indicate skull fracture
They tend to bleed profusely even from minor injuries (Correct answer)
They are best treated with a tourniquet

Correct answer: They tend to bleed profusely even from minor injuries

The scalp is highly vascular and tends to bleed heavily even from minor lacerations, which can be alarming but is usually manageable with direct pressure.

Question 86: An EMR should consider gentle realignment of an angulated extremity fracture when:

Distal pulse is absent and transport time is prolonged (Correct answer)
Realignment is always indicated before splinting
The fracture appears to be a simple closed fracture
The patient requests realignment to reduce pain

Correct answer: Distal pulse is absent and transport time is prolonged

Realignment may be attempted when there is an absent distal pulse because restoring circulation is critical to limb survival, especially with prolonged transport.

Question 87: When assessing an extremity injury, which finding requires the EMR to consider immediate transport rather than extended on-scene splinting?

Minor bruising and restricted range of motion at the wrist
Absent distal pulse with prolonged capillary refill in the fingers (Correct answer)
Patient pain rating of 6 out of 10 at the injury site
Mild swelling and point tenderness over the radius

Correct answer: Absent distal pulse with prolonged capillary refill in the fingers

Absent distal pulse indicates vascular compromise to the limb, which is a time-sensitive emergency requiring rapid transport and physician intervention to restore circulation.

Question 88: A traction splint is most appropriately applied to which injury?

Dislocated knee
Mid-shaft femur fracture (Correct answer)
Bilateral lower leg fractures
Open fracture of the tibia

Correct answer: Mid-shaft femur fracture

Traction splints are designed specifically for mid-shaft femur fractures to reduce pain and blood loss by applying gentle traction to counter muscle spasm.

Question 89: The airway within the lungs branches into narrower and narrower passages called:

capillaries
alveoli
bronchioles (Correct answer)
red blood cells

Correct answer: bronchioles

The respiratory system's airways branch extensively within the lungs. The trachea divides into two main bronchi, which then further divide into smaller and smaller passages. These progressively narrower airways are called bronchioles, and they eventually lead to the alveoli, where gas exchange occurs.

Question 90: Which sign is most indicative of anaphylaxis in a patient who was stung by a bee?

Fever and chills
Bradycardia and hypertension
Localized swelling at the sting site
Hives, wheezing, and hypotension (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hives, wheezing, and hypotension

Anaphylaxis presents with systemic signs including urticaria, bronchospasm (wheezing), and circulatory collapse (hypotension).

Question 91: A greenstick fracture is characterized by:

An incomplete fracture where the bone bends but does not break completely through (Correct answer)
A fracture pattern caused by osteoporosis in elderly patients
A comminuted fracture producing multiple bone fragments
A fracture caused by repetitive stress rather than acute trauma

Correct answer: An incomplete fracture where the bone bends but does not break completely through

A greenstick fracture is an incomplete fracture seen primarily in children where the bone bends and cracks on one side without breaking all the way through.

Question 92: A 60-year-old man is found sitting in his car alongside the road. There is no apparent damage to his vehicle. Your assessment reveals that the man is in cardiac arrest. You should:

grasp the patient under his arms, cradle his head between your arms, and remove him from the vehicle. (Correct answer)
grasp the patient by his arms and rapidly drag him from the vehicle while protecting his head and neck as much as possible.
recline the seat completely back, get inside the car, and begin CPR until additional help arrives at the scene.
begin CPR while the patient is still in his car and remove him from the car when additional help arrives.

Correct answer: grasp the patient under his arms, cradle his head between your arms, and remove him from the vehicle.

When a patient in cardiac arrest is found in a vehicle, rapid extrication is necessary to allow for effective CPR on a firm, flat surface. The correct technique involves grasping the patient under their arms, cradling their head between your arms to provide some cervical spine support, and carefully removing them from the vehicle. This method prioritizes getting the patient to a position where CPR can be performed while minimizing potential injury.

Question 93: Your partner is delivering mouth-to-mouth ventilations to a patient while you are in charge of chest compressions. Your partner is delivering quick, forceful breaths to minimize interruptions in chest compressions. Which of the following statements is true about this scenario?

Your partner is using the correct technique and you should give him proper feedback as a part of good communication.
Your patient is going to develop bronchitis.
Your partner should be giving slow breaths over a 2-second period.
Delivering quick forceful breaths is inappropriate and causes air to enter the stomach instead of the lungs. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Delivering quick forceful breaths is inappropriate and causes air to enter the stomach instead of the lungs.

Delivering quick, forceful breaths during ventilations is inappropriate because it increases the risk of gastric inflation, where air enters the stomach instead of the lungs. This can lead to complications such as vomiting, which poses an aspiration risk, and can also reduce the effectiveness of chest compressions. Proper rescue breaths should be delivered slowly over about 1 second, just enough to make the chest visibly rise.

Question 94: An infant presents with a bulging fontanelle, high-pitched cry, and fever. What should the EMR suspect?

Febrile seizure
Meningitis (Correct answer)
Dehydration
Normal teething

Correct answer: Meningitis

A bulging fontanelle combined with high-pitched cry and fever in an infant is a classic presentation of meningitis.

Question 95: A patient has an impaled object in the eye. What is the appropriate care?

Stabilize the object in place and cover both eyes (Correct answer)
Rinse the eye with water and transport immediately
Apply firm pressure over the object to control bleeding
Remove the object carefully and apply a moist dressing

Correct answer: Stabilize the object in place and cover both eyes

Impaled objects should never be removed; stabilize them in place and cover both eyes to reduce sympathetic movement that could worsen the injury.

Question 96: A patient has an angulated forearm fracture with intact distal pulse, motor function, and sensation. The EMR should:

Apply a traction splint to realign the bone
Attempt to straighten the arm before splinting
Leave the arm unsplinted to avoid increasing pain
Splint the extremity in the position found (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Splint the extremity in the position found

EMRs should splint extremity fractures in the position found when distal PMS is intact, as attempting realignment may cause further neurovascular injury.

Question 97: A patient has a partial-thickness burn covering one entire arm. Using the Rule of Nines for an adult, what percentage of the body surface area (BSA) is affected?

13.5%
18%
9% (Correct answer)
4.5%

Correct answer: 9%

Each arm represents 9% of total BSA in the Rule of Nines for adults.

Question 98: Air is inhaled into the lungs when the diaphragm:

relaxes and moves downward in the chest.
relaxes and moves upward in the chest.
contracts and moves downward in the chest. (Correct answer)
contracts and moves upward in the chest.

Correct answer: contracts and moves downward in the chest.

Inhalation is an active process driven by the contraction of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles. When the diaphragm contracts, it flattens and moves downward, increasing the volume of the thoracic cavity. This increase in volume creates a negative pressure inside the lungs, causing air to rush in from the atmosphere.

Question 99: Compressions should be performed at a rate of:

about 100/min
at least 100/min (Correct answer)
30/min
50/min

Correct answer: at least 100/min

Effective chest compressions are a critical component of CPR, and they must be delivered at a rate of at least 100 compressions per minute, with a target range of 100-120 compressions per minute. This rate is essential to maintain adequate blood flow to the brain and vital organs during cardiac arrest. Compressions delivered too slowly are less effective and reduce the patient's chances of survival.

Question 100: When performing mouth-to-mouth breaths on an adult it is important to:

take a deep breath and seal your lips around the victim’s mouth.
take a shallow breath and seal your lips around the victim’s mouth and nose.
take a deep breath and seal your lips around the victim’s mouth and nose.
take a regular breath and seal your lips around the victim’s mouth. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: take a regular breath and seal your lips around the victim’s mouth.

When performing mouth-to-mouth resuscitation on an adult, it's recommended to take a regular breath, not a deep or shallow one, to deliver an appropriate volume of air. You should then seal your lips tightly around the victim's mouth to create an airtight seal, while simultaneously pinching the nose closed, to ensure the delivered air goes into the lungs.

EMR (Emergency Medical Responder) Exam

The EMR certification validates an individual's ability to provide immediate life-saving care to patients who have accessed the emergency medical services system.

100

Questions

120 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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