EGSA Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield EGSA facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. A generator produces correct voltage at no-load but the output collapses when connected to a motor starting load. What should be evaluated? → Generator's transient reactance and short-circuit capability
2. What is the function of the load bank's cooling fan during resistive load testing? → To dissipate heat generated by the resistive elements
3. What is the significance of the generator's Telephone Influence Factor (TIF) rating? → Quantifies harmonic content weighted by telephone interference sensitivity
4. When two generators are operating in parallel, what is the primary role of the Automatic Voltage Regulator's (AVR) droop setting? → To ensure proportional sharing of reactive power (kVAR) between the generators.
5. An overexcitation relay (OEL or 59F) on a generator excitation system will activate when: → Field current exceeds a set threshold for a defined time period
6. A 4-pole alternator is operating at a speed of 1800 RPM. What is the frequency of the generated AC voltage? → 60 Hz
7. Which NFPA standard governs the testing and maintenance intervals for ATS equipment in health care facilities? → NFPA 99
8. What is the recommended float voltage for a 12V sealed valve-regulated lead-acid (VRLA) battery? → 13.5 to 13.8V
9. What does the term 'in-phase monitoring' refer to in an ATS application? → Synchronizing generator and utility voltage phase angle before closed-transition transfer
10. A three-pole ATS differs from a four-pole ATS primarily in how it handles the: → Neutral conductor during transfer
11. What is the function of a diesel engine's prelube system in a generator application? → Supplies oil pressure to engine bearings before cranking to reduce startup wear
12. What does a negative voltage regulation value indicate about a generator's performance? → Terminal voltage rises from no-load to full-load
13. What fault condition does a reverse power relay (32) protect against in a paralleled generator set? → Motorizing of the generator when it draws power from the bus
14. What is the primary hazard of operating a generator with a single-phase load heavily unbalanced across phases? → Overheating of the most heavily loaded phase winding and neutral conductor
15. A generator set is operating in isochronous mode. What will happen to the engine speed as a heavy electrical load is suddenly applied? → The speed will momentarily dip and then quickly return to the original set speed.
16. When a generator's output voltage collapses immediately upon applying load, the most likely cause is: → Shorted exciter diodes
17. A three-phase generator produces balanced voltage but one phase has no load current. What is the most likely fault? → Open circuit on the load side of that phase
18. Which of the following principles is used to determine the direction of induced current in the conductors of a generator's armature? → Fleming's Right-Hand Rule
19. Which maintenance task is most critical before storing a generator set for an extended period of more than 6 months? → Fogging the engine cylinders with preservation oil
20. What is meant by 'armature reaction' in a synchronous generator? → Effect of armature current magnetomotive force on the main field flux
21. What is a key benefit of using load bank testing for generators? → It ensures the generator can handle its rated load and improves reliability.
22. What maintenance action is required when diesel fuel stored in a day tank shows visible microbial contamination (dark slime)? → Drain, clean, and treat the tank, then refill with fresh fuel and biocide treatment
23. What does the EGSA classification 'Level 1' for a generator set signify? → Failure of the equipment to perform could result in loss of human life or serious injuries
24. How does low ambient temperature affect a lead-acid battery's available capacity? → Capacity decreases significantly as temperature drops below 32°F (0°C)
25. When manually paralleling two generators using a synchroscope, the operator should initiate the breaker close command when the synchroscope pointer is: → At approximately 11 o'clock and rotating slowly clockwise
26. Why do salient pole rotors exhibit reluctance torque that cylindrical rotors do not? → The d-axis and q-axis reactances are unequal due to the non-uniform air gap
27. What type of feedback signal does a current transformer (CT) provide to a compound excitation system? → A current signal proportional to stator output current for compounding
28. What is 'droop' in the context of a generator governor? → The intentional speed decrease as load increases, expressed as a percentage
29. How often should load bank testing be performed? → Annually or after major repairs.
30. In a transfer switch application, what defines a 'closed transition' transfer? → Both sources are briefly connected simultaneously during the transfer