EFDA Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield EFDA facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. An EFDA notices a patient's heart rate has significantly increased after a local anesthetic injection. This is most likely due to: → Intravascular injection of epinephrine
2. Which drug classification includes ibuprofen and naproxen, commonly used for postoperative dental pain? → NSAIDs
3. When mixing Zinc Phosphate cement to be used as a base, why is it crucial to mix it on a cool, glass slab over a wide area? → To dissipate the heat from the exothermic reaction.
4. Why should dental offices have a designated infection control protocol for radiography? → To ensure the safety and health of patients and staff during radiographic procedures
5. When documenting assessment findings in EFDA practice, which approach is MOST appropriate? → Record objective findings, measurements, and professional observations factually
6. What is 'paresthesia' in the context of local anesthesia? → Prolonged or persistent numbness or altered sensation after anesthesia
7. The primary function of the rubber dam frame is to: → Stretch the rubber dam and hold it away from the operative field
8. Why is it important to monitor radiographic equipment regularly? → To ensure the equipment is safe, accurate, and properly maintained
9. Which emergency drug is used to treat a hypoglycemic (low blood sugar) episode in a conscious dental patient? → Orange juice or glucose gel
10. Why is it important for an EFDA to maintain infection control standards? → To ensure the safety and health of both patients and staff
11. What is the maximum safe dose of acetaminophen per day for a healthy adult to avoid hepatotoxicity? → 4,000 mg
12. In what correct sequence are the components of the rubber dam system removed after the procedure? → Clamp → dam material → frame
13. How frequently should ongoing assessments be conducted in Expanded Function Dental Auxiliary practice? → At regular intervals based on established protocols and as conditions change
14. What is the primary purpose of the rubber dam napkin placed between the dam and the patient's face? → To provide patient comfort by absorbing moisture and cushioning the skin
15. Why is infection control crucial in dental radiography? → To prevent cross-contamination and protect patients from infections
16. When preparing a tooth for sealant application, which of the following is an essential step to be completed *before* applying the acid etchant? → Thoroughly cleaning the pits and fissures with a slurry of pumice.
17. Which prophy paste abrasiveness level is recommended for heavy stain removal? → Coarse
18. What is the purpose of preparing materials and instruments before a dental procedure? → To ensure efficiency and minimize disruptions during the procedure
19. Which lubricant is applied to the rubber dam before placement to help it pass through tight interproximal contacts? → Water-based lubricant or shaving cream
20. What should dental professionals do if radiographic equipment malfunctions? → Report the malfunction and follow safety protocols to ensure patient safety
21. What is the purpose of a vasoconstrictor such as epinephrine in a local anesthetic solution? → Prolong anesthetic duration and reduce bleeding
22. Which of the following is a contraindication to rubber dam placement? → A patient with severe nasal obstruction who cannot breathe through the nose
23. How does a dental filling restore a damaged tooth? → By filling the cavity and restoring the tooth’s function and shape
24. Which of the following best defines centric occlusion? → The maximum intercuspation of the maxillary and mandibular teeth.
25. When assessment results for a Expanded Function Dental Auxiliary evaluation are inconclusive, the BEST practice is to: → Conduct additional assessment using alternative methods
26. The 212 'butterfly' rubber dam clamp is specifically designed for use on: → Partially erupted or severely broken-down teeth with minimal clinical crown
27. For a patient with a confirmed latex allergy, which rubber dam material should be used? → Silicone or polyurethane non-latex dental dam
28. A patient presents with a Class II, Division 2 malocclusion. Which of the following characteristics is a defining feature of this classification? → Retroclined maxillary central incisors.
29. Which classification of furcation involvement indicates that the probe can enter the furcation but not pass through? → Class II
30. When isolating a single quadrant for a Class II posterior restoration, how many teeth are typically included in the rubber dam isolation? → Three to five teeth including the operative tooth and surrounding teeth