EEG Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield EEG facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. What unit of measurement is amplitude? → Microvolts
2. Which EEG pattern in a comatose patient is most associated with nonconvulsive status epilepticus (NCSE)? → Rhythmic or periodic discharges evolving in frequency or morphology
3. Occipital intermittent rhythmic delta activity (OIRDA) in a child is most commonly associated with: → Childhood absence epilepsy or posterior fossa pathology
4. A patient has recurrent brief lapses with 3-Hz spike-and-wave that are abruptly terminated by photic stimulation. This response pattern is called: → Photoparoxysmal response
5. Waveforms connected to and unrelated from clinical seizure symptoms. → The epileptiform
6. An artifact appearing as a rhythmic, 1–3 Hz broad, high-amplitude slow-wave pattern that correlates with the patient's assisted ventilation rate is called: → Ventilator artifact
7. Impedance checks during ambulatory EEG should be performed: → At hookup and at each follow-up visit or when the recording device is checked
8. Which evoked potential modality is most useful for monitoring spinal cord function during scoliosis correction surgery? → Somatosensory evoked potentials
9. What is the minimum recommended duration for a routine outpatient EEG recording in an adult? → 20 minutes
10. Which statement about electrode impedance is correct for clinical EEG? → Impedance should be below 5 kΩ for optimal recording
11. What is the normal frequency range of the posterior dominant rhythm (alpha rhythm) in a healthy awake adult? → 8-13 Hz
12. Alpha intrusion into NREM sleep (alpha-delta sleep) is associated with: → Non-restorative sleep and fibromyalgia
13. When interpreting cEEG in a patient receiving midazolam infusion, which pattern is expected and should not be mistaken for pathology? → Diffuse beta activity with spindle-like waveforms
14. Which filter setting should be used to reduce sweat artifact (very slow baseline drift) without significantly affecting EEG frequencies of interest? → Decrease the time constant (increase the low-frequency filter cutoff)
15. A patient's family member requests a copy of the EEG report. Under what condition can the technologist release this information? → Only after obtaining proper written authorization consistent with HIPAA regulations
16. Delta brushes in neonatal EEG are a normal developmental pattern seen at what gestational age range? → 26-38 weeks conceptional age
17. What is the primary waveform of clinical interest in a pattern reversal visual evoked potential (VEP)? → P100
18. The cortical area represented by electrode T3 (T7 in modified nomenclature) overlies which brain region? → Left mid-temporal region near the Sylvian fissure
19. Which medication commonly produces diffuse beta activity as a non-epileptiform EEG abnormality? → Benzodiazepines
20. The standard paper speed used in routine clinical EEG recording in the United States is: → 30 mm/sec
21. High-frequency, irregular bursts of activity seen maximally over temporal and frontal electrodes during a patient interview are most consistent with: → Chewing/jaw muscle artifact
22. When a square wave calibration signal shows 'ringing' or oscillations after the rising edge, this most likely indicates: → The high-frequency filter cutoff is set too high, allowing high-frequency resonance
23. Which of the following features best distinguishes tremor artifact from a true EEG rhythm? → Tremor artifact has a fixed frequency matching the patient's tremor rate
24. Positive occipital sharp transients of sleep (POSTS) are a normal finding seen during which sleep state? → NREM light sleep (N1-N2)
25. Hypnagogic hypersynchrony in children refers to: → High-amplitude 3–4.5 Hz rhythmic activity at drowsiness onset
26. What is the primary advantage of using an average reference montage? → It reduces bias from any single reference electrode location
27. Subclinical rhythmic electrographic discharges of adults (SREDA) is a rare benign pattern that mimics: → Electrographic seizure activity with rhythmic theta over widespread or posterior regions
28. What is the recommended minimum distance between the photic stimulator and the patient's eyes during IPS? → 30 cm
29. In juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (JME), the EEG hallmark is polyspike-and-wave discharges typically at which frequency? → 4–6 Hz
30. Which EEG feature is a normal finding in drowsiness in adults? → Vertex sharp waves