EDT Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield EDT facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. In a patient with suspected thoracic outlet syndrome (neurogenic type), which NCS finding is most characteristic? → Reduced medial antebrachial cutaneous SNAP amplitude
2. Which of the following represents the correct procedure if a needle electrode accidentally contacts bone during EMG? → Discard the needle immediately and use a new one, as the tip may be bent or burred
3. For an F-wave study, how should sweep speed typically be adjusted compared to a standard distal motor latency recording? → Increased to 100 ms/div or more
4. What does a reduced conduction velocity in an NCS indicate? → Nerve dysfunction
5. Which of the following best describes the role of the differential amplifier in electrodiagnostic equipment? → It amplifies the difference between E1 and E2, rejecting signals common to both
6. Which ground electrode placement is preferred during lower extremity nerve conduction studies to minimize stimulus artifact? → Between the stimulating and recording electrodes on the same limb
7. The normal range for median motor distal latency in adults is approximately: → 2–4 ms
8. A sensitivity setting of 20 µV/div would be most appropriate for recording which type of signal? → Sensory nerve action potential (SNAP)
9. In a patient with end-stage renal disease on hemodialysis, expected EDX findings include: → Length-dependent axonal sensorimotor polyneuropathy (uremic neuropathy)
10. Which neurotransmitter is released at the neuromuscular junction? → Acetylcholine
11. Which component records electrical activity from muscles? → Electrode
12. Which nerve is typically stimulated at the wrist to obtain upper extremity somatosensory evoked potentials (SSEPs)? → Median nerve
13. Volume conduction artifacts on SNAP recordings can be reduced by: → Using near-nerve needle electrodes or ring electrodes with standardized technique
14. Saltatory conduction in myelinated nerves occurs because action potentials jump between which structures? → Nodes of Ranvier
15. Which grounding principle is essential during nerve conduction studies to minimize electrical shock hazard to the patient? → The ground electrode should be placed between the stimulating and recording electrodes
16. EDX evaluation of a meralgia paresthetica (lateral femoral cutaneous nerve entrapment) relies primarily on: → Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve sensory NCS comparing symptomatic to asymptomatic side
17. Which EMG pattern is most consistent with Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome (LEMS) on repetitive nerve stimulation? → Incremental response >100% at high-frequency (20–50 Hz) stimulation or post-exercise
18. Why should a technician verify the patient's identity before testing? → To ensure accurate patient matching
19. How should a technician position a patient for a lower limb NCS? → Lying down with relaxed limbs
20. The recommended stimulation rate for standard nerve conduction studies is: → 1–3 Hz
21. When setting up for a blink reflex study, where should the active (E1) recording electrode be placed? → Below the eye, over the orbicularis oculi muscle
22. Fasciculation potentials on needle EMG are most associated with which pathological process? → Anterior horn cell disease such as ALS
23. Which electrode configuration is used for the active (E1) recording electrode in a standard nerve conduction study? → Placed over the motor point or muscle belly
24. What is the recommended minimum number of averages for reliable cortical SSEP recording, with replication required? → 200–500 averages
25. The recruitment pattern in a myopathic process typically shows: → Early recruitment with small, short-duration MUPs
26. When calibrating an EMG machine before use, which parameter confirms that the amplifier gain is accurate? → A known calibration signal produces the expected deflection height on screen
27. Which measurement on nerve conduction studies best reflects the number of functioning axons? → CMAP or SNAP amplitude
28. What filter bandpass setting is typically recommended for somatosensory evoked potential (SSEP) recordings? → 30–3000 Hz
29. What should a technician do if a patient expresses anxiety before a test? → Explain the procedure calmly
30. The popliteal fossa potential in tibial nerve SSEP recordings serves which primary purpose? → Confirming peripheral nerve activation proximal to the stimulation site