EDT Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield EDT facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. In a patient with suspected thoracic outlet syndrome (neurogenic type), which NCS finding is most characteristic? → Reduced medial antebrachial cutaneous SNAP amplitude
2. What does a reduced conduction velocity in an NCS indicate? → Nerve dysfunction
3. The normal range for median motor distal latency in adults is approximately: → 2–4 ms
4. In a patient with end-stage renal disease on hemodialysis, expected EDX findings include: → Length-dependent axonal sensorimotor polyneuropathy (uremic neuropathy)
5. Which component records electrical activity from muscles? → Electrode
6. Which nerve is typically stimulated at the wrist to obtain upper extremity somatosensory evoked potentials (SSEPs)? → Median nerve
7. Volume conduction artifacts on SNAP recordings can be reduced by: → Using near-nerve needle electrodes or ring electrodes with standardized technique
8. EDX evaluation of a meralgia paresthetica (lateral femoral cutaneous nerve entrapment) relies primarily on: → Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve sensory NCS comparing symptomatic to asymptomatic side
9. Which EMG pattern is most consistent with Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome (LEMS) on repetitive nerve stimulation? → Incremental response >100% at high-frequency (20–50 Hz) stimulation or post-exercise
10. Why should a technician verify the patient's identity before testing? → To ensure accurate patient matching
11. How should a technician position a patient for a lower limb NCS? → Lying down with relaxed limbs
12. The recommended stimulation rate for standard nerve conduction studies is: → 1–3 Hz
13. What is the recommended minimum number of averages for reliable cortical SSEP recording, with replication required? → 200–500 averages
14. The recruitment pattern in a myopathic process typically shows: → Early recruitment with small, short-duration MUPs
15. What filter bandpass setting is typically recommended for somatosensory evoked potential (SSEP) recordings? → 30–3000 Hz
16. What should a technician do if a patient expresses anxiety before a test? → Explain the procedure calmly
17. The popliteal fossa potential in tibial nerve SSEP recordings serves which primary purpose? → Confirming peripheral nerve activation proximal to the stimulation site
18. Which evoked potential modality is the most widely used for intraoperative monitoring during spinal cord and spinal column surgery? → Somatosensory evoked potentials (SSEPs)
19. Myotonic discharges on needle EMG are characterized by: → Waxing and waning frequency and amplitude producing a dive-bomber sound
20. Which control adjusts the amplitude of the signal displayed on-screen? → Gain
21. Which EDX finding best differentiates cervical radiculopathy from brachial plexopathy? → Abnormal needle EMG in paraspinal muscles at the affected spinal level
22. Temporal dispersion in a motor nerve conduction study refers to: → Broadening and reduction of CMAP with proximal stimulation
23. Which nerve is tested to evaluate C8/T1 radiculopathy using motor NCS? → Ulnar nerve (ADM recording)
24. Stimulus artifact in NCS is best minimized by: → Ensuring the ground electrode is placed between the stimulator and recording electrodes
25. When documenting nerve conduction study results, which parameter is most critical to report for evaluating axonal integrity? → Amplitude of the evoked potential
26. What is the function of the spinal cord in the nervous system? → Transmits nerve impulses and mediates reflexes
27. Which of the following is a common technical artifact that can falsely prolong distal latency in motor NCS? → Recording electrode placement over the tendon rather than the muscle belly
28. What is the standard interelectrode distance recommended for recording the median motor CMAP from the abductor pollicis brevis (APB)? → 3 cm
29. In the 10-20 electrode placement system, where is the Oz electrode positioned for VEP recordings? → Occipital midline, 10% of the nasion-inion distance above the inion
30. In suspected myasthenia gravis, what is the most sensitive EDX test? → Single-fiber EMG (SFEMG)