Enlisted Aviation Warfare Specialist (EAWS) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: While working on the flight deck, you observe an individual in a white jersey with a green cross. What is their primary role?

Medical Personnel (Correct answer)
Landing Signal Officer
Safety Observer
Air Boss

Correct answer: Medical Personnel

White jerseys are worn by several key personnel, including safety observers and LSOs. However, the addition of a green cross specifically designates medical personnel, ensuring they are quickly and easily identifiable during an emergency.

Question 2: At what temperature does hypothermia become life-threatening for a person in the water?

Below 70°F (21°C) water temperature only
Below 95°F (35°C) core body temperature (Correct answer)
Below 60°F (16°C)
Below 98°F (37°C)

Correct answer: Below 95°F (35°C) core body temperature

Hypothermia becomes life-threatening when core body temperature drops below 95°F (35°C), impairing heart function and cognitive ability.

Question 3: A maintenance technician requires a hydraulic pump which is designated as a Depot Level Repairable (DLR). What is the standard procedure required before the Aviation Support Division (ASD) will issue a replacement part?

Completing a special request form signed by the Department Head.
Providing the failed or unserviceable component as a 'one-for-one' turn-in. (Correct answer)
Paying the full 'standard price' for the new component up front.
Presenting a completed Maintenance Action Form (MAF) documenting the troubleshooting steps.

Correct answer: Providing the failed or unserviceable component as a 'one-for-one' turn-in.

The Depot Level Repairable (DLR) program operates on a 'one-for-one' exchange basis to save costs by repairing high-value components. The standard process requires the unserviceable or 'Not Ready For Issue' (NRFI) part to be turned in to Supply before a 'Ready For Issue' (RFI) replacement is provided.

Question 4: What does 'HEED' stand for in aviation survival equipment?

Hazardous Equipment Emergency Disposal
High Explosive Egress Device
Helicopter Emergency Egress Device (Correct answer)
High Endurance Emergency Device

Correct answer: Helicopter Emergency Egress Device

HEED (Helicopter Emergency Egress Device) is a small self-contained underwater breathing apparatus that provides breathable air during helicopter underwater escape.

Question 5: What does EAWS sustainment require after a sailor has earned the qualification?

Taking on new flight duties as a pilot.
Passing an annual re-certification exam.
Earning additional warfare qualifications immediately.
Maintaining proficiency in aviation systems and operational procedures. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Maintaining proficiency in aviation systems and operational procedures.

EAWS sustainment requires continuous effort to maintain proficiency in aviation systems, operational procedures, and safety protocols. This ensures that qualified sailors remain knowledgeable and capable of effectively supporting naval aviation missions as technologies and tactics evolve, upholding the high standards of the qualification.

Question 6: What is the primary purpose of a life preserver unit (LPU) worn by naval aircrews?

Keep the wearer afloat after water entry (Correct answer)
Serve as a radio antenna carrier
Store survival equipment pouches
Provide ballistic protection

Correct answer: Keep the wearer afloat after water entry

The LPU (Life Preserver Unit) is designed to keep the wearer afloat and support the head above water after ditching or ejecting over water.

Question 7: Which transponder squawk code must an aircrew select when declaring a general emergency?

7500
7600
7700 (Correct answer)
1200

Correct answer: 7700

Squawk 7700 is the universally recognized emergency code that alerts ATC and other radar facilities that the aircraft is experiencing a general emergency.

Question 8: Which of the following sailors is eligible to pursue the EAWS qualification?

A sailor assigned to a submarine command.
A sailor assigned to an aviation-related command. (Correct answer)
A sailor in basic training.
A sailor assigned to a destroyer.

Correct answer: A sailor assigned to an aviation-related command.

The EAWS qualification is specifically designed for enlisted sailors serving in aviation-related commands, such as squadrons, air wings, or aircraft carriers. Eligibility is tied to their direct involvement and responsibilities within the naval aviation community, requiring practical experience and knowledge of aviation systems to qualify.

Question 9: What situation does an aircrew indicate when squawking transponder code 7500?

Unlawful interference or hijacking (Correct answer)
Loss of radio communications
General aircraft emergency
VFR flight below 18,000 feet MSL

Correct answer: Unlawful interference or hijacking

Squawk 7500 signals that the aircraft is being subjected to unlawful interference (hijacking), prompting an immediate response from military and civil authorities.

Question 10: A maintainer accidentally touches a hot exhaust component and receives a burn that is red, blistered, and causes severe pain. How would this burn be classified?

Fourth-degree
First-degree
Second-degree (Correct answer)
Superficial

Correct answer: Second-degree

Burns are classified by their depth. A first-degree burn is red and painful. A second-degree burn involves blistering and severe pain. A third-degree burn destroys all layers of the skin and may be painless due to nerve damage. The presence of blisters indicates a second-degree burn.

Question 11: Which of the following best describes a primary objective of the Navy's Hazardous Material Control and Management (HMC&M) program?

To ensure an unlimited supply of all necessary chemicals is available.
To minimize the quantity of hazardous materials used and stored by seeking less hazardous substitutes. (Correct answer)
To train all personnel as certified HAZMAT emergency responders.
To bypass manufacturer's handling recommendations for faster maintenance.

Correct answer: To minimize the quantity of hazardous materials used and stored by seeking less hazardous substitutes.

A key goal of the HMC&M program is source reduction, which involves minimizing the introduction of hazardous materials into the Navy system. This is achieved by controlling inventory, seeking less hazardous or non-hazardous substitutes, and safely managing the lifecycle of required chemicals to reduce risks to personnel and the environment.

Question 12: Which signal mirror technique is used to aim reflected sunlight at a rescue aircraft?

Hold mirror behind your back
Flash mirror randomly to attract attention
Use the aim-through hole to align reflection with target (Correct answer)
Cover mirror until aircraft is within 500 feet

Correct answer: Use the aim-through hole to align reflection with target

The aim-through hole technique allows the survivor to direct reflected sunlight precisely at a rescue aircraft or ship by aligning the reflection through the sighting hole.

Question 13: Most modern naval aircraft fuselages use a semi-monocoque construction. What is the primary characteristic of this design?

The external skin is the sole load-bearing component.
A framework of steel tubes provides the primary structural strength.
The skin is reinforced by a substructure of formers and stringers that share the structural load. (Correct answer)
All structural loads are carried by a single, central keel beam.

Correct answer: The skin is reinforced by a substructure of formers and stringers that share the structural load.

Semi-monocoque construction is a widely used method where the aircraft's skin is attached to a substructure of bulkheads, formers, and stringers. This design allows the skin and the substructure to share the stresses, providing a strong yet relatively lightweight structure. In contrast, a pure monocoque design relies solely on the skin, and a truss structure uses a rigid framework of tubes.

Question 14: What two pieces of navigation information does a TACAN system provide to the aircrew?

Airspeed and altitude
Bearing and distance (DME) (Correct answer)
Ground position and time
Heading and course correction vectors

Correct answer: Bearing and distance (DME)

TACAN provides the magnetic bearing to/from the station and slant-range distance via its distance measuring equipment (DME) function.

Question 15: Which of the following correctly describes the typical roles of AC and DC power on a naval aircraft?

AC power is used for high-power systems like motors and heating, while DC power is used for solid-state electronics and as a backup source from batteries. (Correct answer)
DC power is the primary power source, converted to AC only for specific high-power systems.
AC and DC power are used interchangeably, with the aircraft's systems able to accept either type of current.
AC is used exclusively for avionics, while DC powers all motors and pumps.

Correct answer: AC power is used for high-power systems like motors and heating, while DC power is used for solid-state electronics and as a backup source from batteries.

Aircraft electrical systems typically use AC as the primary generated power for heavy-load items like motors, pumps, and lighting. This AC power is then converted to DC through Transformer-Rectifier Units (TRUs). DC power is ideal for sensitive electronic components, avionics, and for charging the aircraft's batteries, which serve as an essential emergency power source.

Question 16: Which frequency band is primarily used for military tactical aviation voice communications due to its line-of-sight reliability?

SHF (3–30 GHz)
VHF (30–300 MHz)
UHF (300–3000 MHz) (Correct answer)
HF (3–30 MHz)

Correct answer: UHF (300–3000 MHz)

UHF is the primary military aviation tactical voice band because of its reliable line-of-sight propagation and resistance to some forms of interference.

Question 17: What role do training updates play in EAWS sustainment?

They qualify sailors for command leadership positions.
They ensure that sailors are informed about the latest aviation technologies and safety protocols. (Correct answer)
They are optional and can be skipped without consequence.
They allow sailors to change their warfare specialty.

Correct answer: They ensure that sailors are informed about the latest aviation technologies and safety protocols.

Training updates are vital for EAWS sustainment as they ensure sailors are continuously informed about the latest aviation technologies, evolving safety protocols, and changes in operational procedures. This keeps their knowledge current and allows them to adapt to advancements within naval aviation, maintaining peak performance and safety standards.

Question 18: What is the minimum safe distance from a running jet engine intake for personnel?

25 feet (Correct answer)
15 feet
50 feet
10 feet

Correct answer: 25 feet

Personnel must maintain a minimum of 25 feet from a running jet engine intake to avoid the danger of ingestion.

Question 19: What is the primary purpose of an ejection seat in naval aircraft?

Reduce aircraft weight
Provide comfort during long flights
Serve as a backup pilot seat
Allow rapid crew escape from a disabled aircraft (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Allow rapid crew escape from a disabled aircraft

The ejection seat allows aircrew to rapidly escape a disabled or uncontrollable aircraft by propelling them safely away from the aircraft.

Question 20: What is the military UHF guard (emergency) frequency monitored by all military aircraft and installations?

243.0 MHz (Correct answer)
121.5 MHz
282.8 MHz
156.8 MHz

Correct answer: 243.0 MHz

243.0 MHz is the military UHF emergency guard frequency, exactly double the civilian VHF guard frequency of 121.5 MHz.

Question 21: When donning an anti-exposure suit, which area must always be checked for airtightness?

Chest pocket closures
Neck and wrist seals (Correct answer)
Ankle zippers
Knee joints

Correct answer: Neck and wrist seals

The neck and wrist seals of an anti-exposure (immersion) suit must be checked for airtightness to ensure the suit provides thermal protection in cold water.

Question 22: The USS Langley (CV-1), the first aircraft carrier of the U.S. Navy, was converted from what type of ship?

A destroyer
A cruiser
A battleship
A collier (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A collier

The USS Langley (CV-1) was commissioned in March 1922 after being converted from the collier USS Jupiter (AC-3). This conversion marked the birth of the U.S. Navy's carrier fleet.

Question 23: Movement of an aircraft around its longitudinal axis, also known as roll, is controlled by which primary flight control surface?

Elevators
Flaps
Ailerons (Correct answer)
Rudder

Correct answer: Ailerons

The longitudinal axis runs from the nose to the tail of the aircraft. Movement around this axis is called roll. Ailerons, located on the outboard trailing edge of the wings, move in opposite directions to create a differential in lift, causing the aircraft to roll left or right.

Question 24: Which of the following events is considered a pivotal moment that halted the Japanese advance in the Pacific and was a strategic victory for the Allies, even though they lost more ships?

The Attack on Pearl Harbor
The Battle of Midway
The Battle of the Coral Sea (Correct answer)
The Battle of Guadalcanal

Correct answer: The Battle of the Coral Sea

The Battle of the Coral Sea is considered a strategic victory for the Allies because it stopped the planned Japanese invasion of Port Moresby, halting their southward advance for the first time, despite the U.S. losing the carrier USS Lexington. The damage to Japanese carriers prevented them from participating in the subsequent Battle of Midway.

Question 25: Why is it important for sailors to participate in ongoing training after earning their EAWS qualification?

To be considered for flight crew duty.
To transition into non-aviation roles.
To remain effective and competent in supporting naval aviation missions. (Correct answer)
To receive an automatic promotion after two years.

Correct answer: To remain effective and competent in supporting naval aviation missions.

Ongoing training after earning EAWS is crucial for sailors to remain effective and competent in supporting naval aviation missions. The dynamic nature of aviation requires continuous learning to adapt to new technologies, evolving threats, and updated operational procedures, ensuring sustained readiness and mission success throughout their career.

Question 26: On an NFPA 704 diamond label, commonly found on chemical containers and storage areas, what type of hazard is indicated by the blue quadrant?

Health (Correct answer)
Flammability
Reactivity/Instability
Special Hazards

Correct answer: Health

The blue quadrant of the NFPA 704 diamond specifically indicates the health hazard posed by the substance. The number inside, ranging from 0 (no hazard) to 4 (can be lethal), communicates the severity of the risk upon exposure.

Question 27: What is a key responsibility of a sailor once they have earned the EAWS qualification?

They are automatically assigned to lead all aviation missions.
They are required to serve as a pilot on aviation missions.
They can transfer to non-aviation commands without further requirements.
They must maintain their qualification by staying current with aviation knowledge. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: They must maintain their qualification by staying current with aviation knowledge.

Earning the EAWS qualification is not a one-time achievement; a key responsibility is to continuously maintain proficiency by staying current with evolving aviation knowledge, systems, and procedures. This ongoing commitment ensures they remain effective and competent contributors to naval aviation missions, adapting to new technologies and operational demands.

Question 28: What is the primary document that provides comprehensive information about a specific hazardous material, including its properties, health hazards, and measures for safe handling and emergency control?

Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP)
Safety Data Sheet (SDS) (Correct answer)
Authorized Use List (AUL)
Aircraft Maintenance Manual (AMM)

Correct answer: Safety Data Sheet (SDS)

The Safety Data Sheet (SDS), formerly known as the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), is the primary source of detailed information on a hazardous chemical. It is provided by the manufacturer and includes comprehensive data on potential hazards, safe handling procedures, personal protective equipment (PPE) requirements, and first-aid measures.

Question 29: Which organization publishes the Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) manual?

CNO
NAVSEA
NAVAIR (Correct answer)
BUPERS

Correct answer: NAVAIR

NAVAIR (Naval Air Systems Command) is responsible for publishing and maintaining NATOPS manuals for naval aviation.

Question 30: What is a key element in the sustainment of EAWS qualification?

Transferring to a different command within a year.
Regularly reviewing changes to naval aviation platforms and systems. (Correct answer)
Completing a deployment every year.
Taking a specialized officer leadership course.

Correct answer: Regularly reviewing changes to naval aviation platforms and systems.

A key element in EAWS sustainment is the regular review of changes to naval aviation platforms, systems, and operational doctrines. This ensures that qualified sailors remain knowledgeable about new technologies, updated procedures, and evolving threats, maintaining their effectiveness in a dynamic and constantly advancing environment.

Question 31: What is the recommended body position for a parachute landing fall (PLF)?

Legs straight, arms overhead
Stand upright and walk forward
Feet and knees together, chin tucked, knees slightly bent (Correct answer)
Legs crossed, arms out wide

Correct answer: Feet and knees together, chin tucked, knees slightly bent

The proper PLF position requires feet and knees together, chin tucked to chest, and knees slightly bent to absorb and distribute landing shock.

Question 32: How does earning the EAWS insignia affect sailor's career?

It showcases their expertise and dedication to naval aviation, which can improve career progression. (Correct answer)
It guarantees immediate advancement in pay grade.
It qualifies them to transfer to non-aviation roles.
It is only significant during deployment.

Correct answer: It showcases their expertise and dedication to naval aviation, which can improve career progression.

Earning thea EAWS insignia is an important career milestone that reflects a sailor's expertise in aviation warfare. This can positively impact career progression, making them more competitive for promotions and specialized roles, but it doesn't guarantee immediate advancement.

Question 33: A pilot is conducting a pre-flight check and cycles the flight controls. When they push the control stick forward, a specific control surface moves. What is the primary purpose of this action during flight?

To increase the rate of climb.
To yaw the aircraft's nose to the right.
To increase wing lift for takeoff.
To decrease the aircraft's pitch and cause the nose to lower. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To decrease the aircraft's pitch and cause the nose to lower.

Pushing the control stick forward actuates the elevators, which are located on the horizontal stabilizer. This movement causes the elevators to deflect downwards, which in turn pushes the aircraft's tail up and the nose down. This action controls the aircraft's movement around the lateral (pitch) axis.

Question 34: What is the purpose of a 'PRC-90' or 'PRC-112' survival radio?

Personnel recovery and search and rescue communications (Correct answer)
Air traffic control communications
Fire control communications
Encrypted tactical communications

Correct answer: Personnel recovery and search and rescue communications

The PRC-90 and PRC-112 are emergency radios used by downed aircrews for personnel recovery communications with search and rescue forces.

Question 35: What is the purpose of 'downloading' ordnance from an aircraft?

Removing weapons from the aircraft after a mission (Correct answer)
Uploading targeting data to a missile
Transferring ordnance data to a computer
Loading ordnance onto the aircraft before a mission

Correct answer: Removing weapons from the aircraft after a mission

Downloading refers to the process of removing weapons and ordnance from an aircraft, typically after a mission or when ordnance is no longer needed.

Question 36: What is the primary purpose of a MK-82 bomb?

Air-to-air combat
Anti-submarine warfare
General purpose unguided air-to-ground attack (Correct answer)
Electronic warfare

Correct answer: General purpose unguided air-to-ground attack

The MK-82 is a 500-pound general purpose unguided bomb designed for air-to-ground attack missions.

Question 37: What is the function of a survival radio carried by naval aircrews?

Navigate using GPS
Control the aircraft remotely
Monitor weather conditions
Communicate with rescue forces after ejection or ditching (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Communicate with rescue forces after ejection or ditching

A survival radio enables downed aircrews to communicate their position and status to search and rescue forces after an ejection or emergency landing.

Question 38: Which internationally recognized VHF frequency is used for civilian aeronautical distress communications?

243.0 MHz
121.5 MHz (Correct answer)
156.8 MHz
282.8 MHz

Correct answer: 121.5 MHz

121.5 MHz is the international aeronautical VHF emergency frequency monitored by civil aircraft and many rescue agencies.

Question 39: What color jersey does an aviation ordnanceman wear on the flight deck?

Purple
Red
Green
Yellow (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Yellow

Aviation ordnancemen wear red jerseys on the flight deck, as red is the color designated for ordnance handling and firefighting personnel.

Question 40: Which of the following is the primary objective of the Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP)?

To exclusively manage the procurement of new aircraft and support equipment.
To reduce the operational costs of naval aviation by extending inspection intervals.
To standardize maintenance terminology across all branches of the military.
To achieve and continually improve aviation material readiness and safety standards. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To achieve and continually improve aviation material readiness and safety standards.

The primary objective of the NAMP, as stated in COMNAVAIRFORINST 4790.2, is to achieve and continually improve aviation material readiness and safety standards established by the Chief of Naval Operations (CNO).

Question 41: The Instrument Landing System (ILS) consists of which two primary components that guide an aircraft to the runway?

TACAN and precision approach radar
Glide slope and distance measuring equipment
Localizer and glide slope (Correct answer)
VOR and DME

Correct answer: Localizer and glide slope

ILS uses a localizer for lateral (left/right) alignment with the runway centerline and a glide slope transmitter for vertical (up/down) descent guidance.

Question 42: During flight operations, a crew member wearing a purple jersey is observed on the flight deck. What is this individual's role?

Ordnance Handling Personnel
Plane Captain
Aviation Fuel Crew (Correct answer)
Aircraft Handling and Chock Crewman

Correct answer: Aviation Fuel Crew

Personnel wearing purple jerseys on the flight deck are responsible for handling aviation fuel, a critical and hazardous job. This color designation ensures they are easily identifiable during flight and hangar deck operations.

Question 43: In standard radio communication procedures, what does transmitting 'OVER' at the end of a message indicate?

I am switching to a new frequency
I am unable to receive your transmission
My transmission is complete and I expect a reply (Correct answer)
The transmission is complete and no reply is expected

Correct answer: My transmission is complete and I expect a reply

'OVER' signals that your transmission is complete and you are awaiting a response from the other station.

Question 44: An Aviation Ordnanceman removes a component from a bomb rack. The component is unserviceable but can be economically repaired at an Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA). Which supply condition code should be assigned to the component tag?

Condition Code F (Correct answer)
Condition Code D
Condition Code H
Condition Code A

Correct answer: Condition Code F

Condition Code F is specifically used to identify material that is unserviceable but is considered economically repairable. Condition Code A is serviceable, H is condemned/unrepairable, and D is serviceable but requires testing or modification.

Question 45: What does IFF stand for in military aviation?

Instrument Flight Functions
Identification, Friend or Foe (Correct answer)
Integrated Fire and Flight
In-Flight Formation

Correct answer: Identification, Friend or Foe

IFF stands for Identification Friend or Foe, a transponder-based system used by military forces to identify aircraft as friendly, hostile, or unknown.

Question 46: Which of the following provides aviation maintenance and material management with an automated, real-time system for managing and tracking maintenance actions, supply requisitions, and aircraft configuration data at the organizational level?

SERMIS (Support Equipment Resources Management Information System)
AMSRR (Aircraft Material Service Readiness Report)
ATOLS (Automated Technical Order Licensing System)
NALCOMIS (OOMA) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: NALCOMIS (OOMA)

NALCOMIS (Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System) with the Optimized Organizational Maintenance Activity (OOMA) subsystem is the primary tool used at the squadron level. It provides a centralized, real-time database for managing maintenance, ordering parts, and tracking aircraft data, linking the maintenance department directly with the supply system.

Question 47: What does COMSEC stand for in the context of naval aviation?

Combat Systems Equipment Check
Communications Security (Correct answer)
Communications Sector Control
Common Secure Encoding

Correct answer: Communications Security

COMSEC stands for Communications Security, encompassing all measures taken to protect classified and sensitive information transmitted over communication systems.

Question 48: Which safety pin configuration is required before handling live ordnance?

All pins installed (Correct answer)
Only arming pins installed
All pins removed
Only safety pins removed

Correct answer: All pins installed

All safety pins must be installed before handling live ordnance to prevent accidental arming or detonation.

Question 49: The Maintenance Data System (MDS) is a critical component of aviation maintenance management. What is its primary function?

To automatically order new parts when inventory is low.
To serve as the primary communication platform between maintenance and operations.
To collect, store, and report statistical data on maintenance actions and equipment reliability. (Correct answer)
To provide a standardized system for troubleshooting and repair procedures.

Correct answer: To collect, store, and report statistical data on maintenance actions and equipment reliability.

The Maintenance Data System (MDS) is a management information system designed to provide statistical data on equipment maintainability, reliability, utilization, and material usage to assist managers in planning and directing the maintenance effort.

Question 50: Within the NAMP, what is the core concept of Quality Assurance (QA)?

The final inspection of an aircraft before it is released for flight.
The correction of defects after they have occurred.
The prevention of the occurrence of defects. (Correct answer)
The rapid replacement of any part that has failed.

Correct answer: The prevention of the occurrence of defects.

The fundamental concept of Quality Assurance (QA) within the NAMP is the prevention of defects. This is a proactive approach focused on ensuring processes and procedures are followed correctly to prevent issues from arising in the first place.

Question 51: A work center generates rags contaminated with oil and solvents during daily maintenance. To prevent a fire hazard from spontaneous combustion, what is the correct disposal method for these rags?

Leaving them in an open pile on the hangar deck to air dry.
Throwing them into the work center's standard plastic trash can.
Placing them in a designated, approved, and properly labeled fire-safe metal container with a lid. (Correct answer)
Sealing them in a plastic bag to contain the fumes.

Correct answer: Placing them in a designated, approved, and properly labeled fire-safe metal container with a lid.

Rags soaked with flammable or combustible materials like oils and solvents must be placed in a designated, fire-safe metal container with a self-closing lid. This practice limits oxygen, dissipates heat, and contains any potential fire, mitigating the risk of spontaneous combustion. These containers must be emptied daily.

Question 52: Why is the EAWS qualification valued within the aviation community?

It allows the sailor to bypass regular safety checks.
It reflects a sailor’s broad knowledge and capability in supporting complex aviation operations. (Correct answer)
It shows that a sailor can perform advanced maintenance duties without supervision.
It is required for all non-aviation roles in the Navy.

Correct answer: It reflects a sailor’s broad knowledge and capability in supporting complex aviation operations.

The EAWS qualification is highly valued within the aviation community because it demonstrates that a sailor has the necessary knowledge and practical skills to support and maintain aviation operations, contributing to mission success and safety.

Question 53: A fellow sailor on the flight deck suffers a deep laceration to their forearm that is bleeding profusely. After applying direct pressure, which of the following is the next recommended step for controlling the bleeding?

Apply pressure to the brachial pressure point (Correct answer)
Immediately apply a tourniquet above the wound
Lower the arm below the heart
Clean the wound with hydrogen peroxide

Correct answer: Apply pressure to the brachial pressure point

The four methods for controlling bleeding are direct pressure, elevation, pressure points, and tourniquet (as a last resort). After direct pressure, applying pressure to the appropriate pressure point (in this case, the brachial artery in the upper arm) is a standard procedure to reduce blood flow to the limb.

Question 54: What type of propellant is used to initiate most modern ejection seats?

Pyrotechnic cartridge or solid rocket motor (Correct answer)
Hydraulic pressure
Compressed air
Liquid fuel rocket

Correct answer: Pyrotechnic cartridge or solid rocket motor

Most modern ejection seats use a pyrotechnic cartridge or solid rocket motor to generate the explosive force needed to eject the seat from the aircraft.

Question 55: What impact does the EAWS qualification have on a sailor’s sense of professional identity?

It provides no real sense of achievement or distinction.
It enhances their professional identity by recognizing them as experts in naval aviation warfare. (Correct answer)
It isolates them from other warfare specialties in the Navy.
It forces them to limit their career choices to aviation roles only.

Correct answer: It enhances their professional identity by recognizing them as experts in naval aviation warfare.

The EAWS qualification enhances a sailor's professional identity by recognizing them as experts in naval aviation warfare. It is a symbol of their dedication, expertise, and readiness to contribute to naval missions, providing a sense of pride and distinction in their field.

Question 56: What does 'SERE' training prepare naval aviators for?

Survival, Evasion, Resistance, and Escape (Correct answer)
Standard Equipment Readiness Evaluation
Search, Extraction, Rescue, and Evacuation
Systems Engineering and Rapid Egress

Correct answer: Survival, Evasion, Resistance, and Escape

SERE training prepares aircrews to survive, evade enemy forces, resist interrogation, and escape captivity if shot down behind enemy lines.

Question 57: What U.S. Navy aircraft carrier served as the launch platform for the Doolittle Raid on Tokyo in April 1942?

USS Enterprise (CV-6)
USS Saratoga (CV-3)
USS Lexington (CV-2)
USS Hornet (CV-8) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: USS Hornet (CV-8)

On April 18, 1942, sixteen U.S. Army Air Forces B-25B Mitchell medium bombers, led by Lieutenant Colonel James Doolittle, were launched from the deck of the USS Hornet (CV-8) to conduct a surprise raid on Tokyo.

Question 58: What does 'hung ordnance' mean on a naval aircraft?

Ordnance awaiting inspection
Ordnance that failed to release during a mission (Correct answer)
Ordnance cleared for use
Ordnance stored in the hangar bay

Correct answer: Ordnance that failed to release during a mission

Hung ordnance refers to weapons that failed to release from the aircraft during a combat mission and require special handling procedures upon landing.

Question 59: A maintenance technician requires a specific solvent for a task. Which of the following ensures the technician is using a chemical that is approved for use within their specific command and for that particular process?

A technician from another work center has used it before.
The solvent is listed on the work center's Authorized Use List (AUL). (Correct answer)
The solvent is a well-known brand available at a commercial store.
The Safety Data Sheet (SDS) is available online.

Correct answer: The solvent is listed on the work center's Authorized Use List (AUL).

The Authorized Use List (AUL) is a command-specific list of all hazardous materials that are approved for use in a particular work center. Only materials on the AUL may be procured, stored, and used, ensuring they have been properly vetted for safety and mission necessity. The availability of an SDS does not by itself constitute authorization for use.

Question 60: What does 'AMMO' stand for in the context of naval aviation ratings?

Aviation Munitions and Missile Operations
Aviation Ordnanceman (Correct answer)
Aircraft Mechanical Munitions Officer
Airborne Missile and Munitions Operations

Correct answer: Aviation Ordnanceman

In naval aviation, 'AO' is the rating designator for Aviation Ordnanceman, the enlisted rating responsible for aircraft weapons systems.

Question 61: What color smoke signal is internationally recognized as a distress signal?

Blue
Orange (Correct answer)
Green
White

Correct answer: Orange

Orange smoke is the internationally recognized distress color used by downed aircrews and shipwreck survivors to signal their location to rescuers.

Question 62: What is the primary operational advantage of an Inertial Navigation System (INS) over radio-based navigation aids?

Greater absolute accuracy than GPS
Operation without any external signals or references (Correct answer)
Faster position update rates
Immunity to all weather conditions

Correct answer: Operation without any external signals or references

INS uses onboard accelerometers and gyroscopes to dead-reckon position from a known starting point, requiring no external transmissions and making it jam-proof.

Question 63: On an airfield, what is the purpose of the paved or unpaved sections on the ends of the runways, known as overrun areas?

To serve as a temporary aircraft parking location
To provide a staging area for emergency response vehicles
To provide a deceleration area for aborting or overshooting aircraft (Correct answer)
To allow aircraft to calibrate their compass systems

Correct answer: To provide a deceleration area for aborting or overshooting aircraft

Overrun areas are a critical safety feature of an airfield. They are specifically designed to provide a reasonably effective surface for an aircraft to decelerate and stop safely in the event of an aborted takeoff or an overshoot on landing.

Question 64: An aircraft's landing gear fails to retract after takeoff. The hydraulic pressure gauge indicates a rapid drop to zero, and a visual inspection from the cabin reveals fluid streaming from the right main gear wheel well. Which of the following components has most likely failed?

An actuating cylinder seal (Correct answer)
An engine-driven pump
The main system reservoir
A pressure relief valve

Correct answer: An actuating cylinder seal

The scenario describes a localized leak associated with a specific component's operation (landing gear). An actuating cylinder is the component that converts hydraulic pressure into the mechanical motion to move the gear. A failure of its seal would result in a significant fluid leak at that location when the system is pressurized, leading to a loss of system pressure as described. A reservoir failure would likely not be localized to the wheel well, a pump failure would cause pressure loss without a massive external leak, and a relief valve failure would typically vent fluid overboard at the valve's location, not necessarily in the wheel well.

Question 65: What is the 'HELP' position used in cold water survival?

High Endurance Lifesaving Posture
Horizontal Emergency Lateral Position
Heat Escape Lessening Position (Correct answer)
Head Elevation Landing Position

Correct answer: Heat Escape Lessening Position

The HELP (Heat Escape Lessening Position) involves drawing the knees to the chest and crossing the arms to reduce heat loss from the body's core in cold water.

Question 66: What is the primary purpose of an Individual Material Readiness List (IMRL)?

To list the personal protective equipment required for each maintenance task.
To document the qualifications and certifications of all maintenance personnel in a work center.
To track all repairable components currently installed on an aircraft.
To specify the types and quantities of Support Equipment (SE) required for an activity to perform its assigned maintenance functions. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To specify the types and quantities of Support Equipment (SE) required for an activity to perform its assigned maintenance functions.

The Individual Material Readiness List (IMRL) is a consolidated allowance list that specifies all items of Support Equipment (SE) and specialized tools required for an aviation maintenance activity to perform its assigned duties. It ensures the unit has the correct ground support capabilities.

Question 67: What is the primary purpose of the HAVE QUICK frequency-hopping system used in military aviation?

To encrypt voice transmissions end-to-end
To provide anti-jamming protection for UHF radio communications (Correct answer)
To reduce mutual interference between aircraft on the same net
To extend UHF communications range

Correct answer: To provide anti-jamming protection for UHF radio communications

HAVE QUICK is an anti-jam UHF frequency-hopping system that rapidly changes operating frequencies to defeat enemy electronic jamming attempts.

Question 68: What does the acronym 'JDAM' stand for?

Joint Direct Attack Munition (Correct answer)
Joint Defense Aviation Missile
Joint Digital Arming Module
Joint Defensive Attack Method

Correct answer: Joint Direct Attack Munition

JDAM stands for Joint Direct Attack Munition, a guidance kit that converts unguided bombs into GPS/INS-guided weapons.

Question 69: Why is HF radio used by naval aviation when UHF and VHF are unavailable or insufficient?

Long-range beyond-line-of-sight communications via ionospheric propagation (Correct answer)
More available frequency channels
Higher data transmission rates than other bands
Better voice clarity over short distances

Correct answer: Long-range beyond-line-of-sight communications via ionospheric propagation

HF signals can reflect off the ionosphere (skywave propagation), enabling communications far beyond the line-of-sight range of UHF and VHF.

Question 70: What does the term 'ordnance' refer to in naval aviation?

Weapons, ammunition, and explosives used in combat (Correct answer)
Aircraft navigation equipment
Fuel and lubricants
Engine maintenance tools

Correct answer: Weapons, ammunition, and explosives used in combat

Ordnance refers to military weapons, ammunition, and explosives, including bombs, missiles, and gun systems used in naval aviation.

Question 71: An aircraft has just been parked on the flight line during normal weather conditions. What is the minimum number of tie-down chains required for an initial tie-down?

8 chains
4 chains
6 chains (Correct answer)
12 chains

Correct answer: 6 chains

Standard initial tie-down procedures for naval aircraft in normal weather (up to 45 knots of wind) require a minimum of 6 chains. The number of chains increases for intermediate and heavy weather conditions.

Question 72: A plane director needs to signal the pilot to engage the aircraft's brakes. According to NAVAIR 00-80T-113, what is the correct hand signal for this command?

Extend the left arm down and point to the left main gear.
Extend an arm horizontally in front of the body with fingers extended, then clench the hand into a fist. (Correct answer)
Raise both arms above the head and cross the wands.
Make a circular motion with the right hand pointing downwards.

Correct answer: Extend an arm horizontally in front of the body with fingers extended, then clench the hand into a fist.

The correct signal for 'set brakes' is to extend the arm and hand horizontally in front of the face or body with fingers extended, and then clench the hand into a fist, simulating the application of pressure.

Question 73: The Automatic Direction Finder (ADF) determines an aircraft's bearing relative to which type of ground station?

Non-Directional Beacon (NDB) (Correct answer)
ILS localizer antenna
VOR (VHF Omni-Range) station
TACAN transponder

Correct answer: Non-Directional Beacon (NDB)

ADF receives the omnidirectional low/medium frequency signal from a Non-Directional Beacon (NDB) and displays the bearing of that station relative to the aircraft.

Question 74: According to the EAWS PQS, which of the following are the three primary objectives of first aid?

Stop bleeding, splint fractures, and administer medication
Assess the scene, call for help, and provide comfort
Diagnose the injury, transport the victim, and file a report
Prevent further injury, prevent infection, and prevent the loss of life (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Prevent further injury, prevent infection, and prevent the loss of life

The fundamental goals of providing first aid are to keep the victim's condition from worsening, protect them from contamination, and take necessary steps to save their life. These are often summarized as preventing further injury, infection, and loss of life.

Question 75: An F/A-18E Super Hornet has just landed and is being taxied onto the apron. You notice the plane director gives a signal by extending their arms outward and then sweeping them forward and upward. What does this signal indicate to the pilot?

Insert chocks
Stop
Proceed straight ahead (Correct answer)
Slow down

Correct answer: Proceed straight ahead

Standard aircraft handling signals are crucial for safe movement in the high-noise environment of a flight deck. The signal described, with arms sweeping forward and upward, directs the pilot to continue moving straight ahead.

Question 76: An Aviation Ordnanceman is preparing a presentation on naval aviation milestones. They need to identify the first ship specifically designed and constructed from the keel up as an aircraft carrier for the U.S. Navy. Which ship should they name?

USS Langley (CV-1)
USS Enterprise (CV-6)
USS Lexington (CV-2)
USS Ranger (CV-4) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: USS Ranger (CV-4)

While the USS Langley was the first aircraft carrier, it was a conversion. The USS Ranger (CV-4), whose keel was laid in 1931 and commissioned in 1934, was the first ship in the U.S. Navy to be designed and built from the hull up as an aircraft carrier.

Question 77: An aviation maintenance technician discovers a container of hydraulic fluid has been knocked over inside a HAZMAT locker, and a small amount is leaking onto the deck. According to proper procedure, what is the IMMEDIATE first step the technician should take?

Close the locker door and ignore the spill until the end of the shift.
Find a new container and transfer the remaining fluid.
Attempt to clean up the spill using available rags.
Immediately report the spill to the Work Center Supervisor. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Immediately report the spill to the Work Center Supervisor.

The first and most critical step in any hazardous material spill is to report it to the proper authority, which is typically the Work Center Supervisor. This ensures the chain of command is aware and can initiate the correct response protocol, involving trained spill response teams if necessary, and ensures the safety of all personnel. Acting alone without proper training or equipment can be dangerous.

Question 78: Why is the EAWS qualification significant for an enlisted sailor?

It automatically qualifies the sailor for a promotion to officer rank.
It signifies advanced knowledge of aviation warfare and operational readiness. (Correct answer)
It is required only for sailors who want to leave the aviation field.
It allows the sailor to command an aircraft carrier.

Correct answer: It signifies advanced knowledge of aviation warfare and operational readiness.

The EAWS qualification is significant because it represents a sailor's advanced understanding of aviation warfare, systems, safety and operations. It enhances their professional standing and readiness to contribute to the aviation mission. It does not lead directly to command or automatic promotions.

Question 79: IFF Mode 3/A is used primarily for which purpose?

Altitude encoding for ATC secondary surveillance radar
Classified military-only platform identification
Emergency squawk declaration
Civil and military ATC identification using a 4-digit code (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Civil and military ATC identification using a 4-digit code

Mode 3/A is a shared civil/military mode in which aircraft squawk a 4-digit octal code assigned by ATC for identification on secondary surveillance radar.

Question 80: A maintainer needs to request a consumable part from the squadron's Aviation Support Division (ASD). Which form is the standard document used to request and provide a receipt for the issue of material from stock?

NAVCOMPT 2276
DD Form 1348-1A (Correct answer)
DD Form 200 (FLIPL)
OPNAV 4790/60 (VIDS/MAF)

Correct answer: DD Form 1348-1A

The DD Form 1348-1A is the standard DoD Issue Release/Receipt Document. It is used throughout the supply system to document the issue and receipt of material, serving as the primary 'pick ticket' and receipt when a maintainer gets parts from the supply window.

Question 81: What is the purpose of a personal locator beacon (PLB)?

Control drone aircraft
Track aircraft fuel consumption
Automatically transmit distress signals to search and rescue satellites (Correct answer)
Monitor aircrew vital signs

Correct answer: Automatically transmit distress signals to search and rescue satellites

A PLB automatically transmits a distress signal on emergency frequencies to COSPAS-SARSAT satellites, enabling rescuers to locate downed personnel.

Question 82: What does 'NATOPS' stand for?

Naval Airworthiness Testing and Operations Protocol
Naval Aviation Tactics and Operations Standards
National Aviation Training Operations Program
Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization

NATOPS stands for Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization, which governs standardized procedures for safe naval aviation operations.

Question 83: What is the purpose of the '4-wire' system on an aircraft carrier arresting gear?

To signal pilots during approach
To provide electrical power to landing aircraft
To secure aircraft to the deck
To arrest aircraft by catching the tailhook during landing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To arrest aircraft by catching the tailhook during landing

The arresting wire system (1 through 4 wires) is designed to catch the tailhook of landing aircraft to safely decelerate them on the carrier deck.

Question 84: What is the function of a fuze on an aerial bomb?

Guide the bomb to the target
Attach the bomb to the aircraft
Initiate detonation at the correct time or condition (Correct answer)
Stabilize the bomb in flight

Correct answer: Initiate detonation at the correct time or condition

A fuze is a device that initiates detonation of a bomb at the correct time, on impact, or under specified conditions.

Question 85: What does the EAWS insignia symbolize?

It symbolizes a sailor's successful completion of officer candidate school.
It symbolizes a sailor's proficiency in naval aviation operations. (Correct answer)
It symbolizes a sailor's ability to command a naval vessel.
It symbolizes a sailor's qualification in advanced weapons systems.

Correct answer: It symbolizes a sailor's proficiency in naval aviation operations.

The EAWS insignia is a prestigious badge worn by enlisted sailors who have demonstrated a high level of proficiency and comprehensive knowledge in naval aviation operations. It symbolizes their expertise across various aviation platforms, systems, and procedures, signifying their valuable contribution and dedication to the Navy's air arm.

Question 86: Who is recognized as the first U.S. Navy officer to be designated as a naval aviator?

John H. Towers
Theodore G. Ellyson (Correct answer)
Eugene Ely
Glenn Curtiss

Correct answer: Theodore G. Ellyson

Theodore G. 'Spuds' Ellyson was the first U.S. Navy officer designated as an aviator, bearing the title Naval Aviator No. 1. He began his flight training in 1910 under Glenn Curtiss.

Question 87: What unique capability does the Automatic Carrier Landing System (ACLS) provide to carrier-based aircraft?

Automated catapult launch sequencing
Navigation routing from shore base to the carrier
Fully automatic approach and landing in zero-visibility conditions (Correct answer)
Automated fuel state calculations during approaches

Correct answer: Fully automatic approach and landing in zero-visibility conditions

ACLS uses a shipboard radar and data-link to provide fully automatic approach and landing guidance, allowing recovery in zero-zero visibility conditions.

Question 88: Which IFF squawk code indicates that an aircraft has lost radio communications (NORDO)?

1200
7600 (Correct answer)
7700
7500

Correct answer: 7600

Squawk 7600 signals a loss of two-way radio communications, alerting ATC that the aircraft is NORDO and allowing controllers to apply lost-comms procedures.

Question 89: What is the minimum altitude at which an ejection seat is typically effective for a zero-zero ejection?

500 feet AGL
200 knots airspeed only
0 feet and 0 knots (zero-zero capable) (Correct answer)
1,000 feet AGL

Correct answer: 0 feet and 0 knots (zero-zero capable)

Modern zero-zero ejection seats are designed to safely eject aircrew at zero altitude and zero airspeed on the ground, providing full parachute deployment.

Question 90: Which of the following is a primary safety concern and a major cause of premature aircraft engine replacement, requiring constant vigilance on the flight deck and airfield?

Hydraulic fluid spills
Improper hand signals
Corrosion
Foreign Object Damage (FOD) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Foreign Object Damage (FOD)

Foreign Object Damage (FOD) is a critical safety concern. It is caused by loose objects (tools, hardware, personal items) being ingested into aircraft engines, which can cause catastrophic failure. FOD walkdowns are conducted regularly to mitigate this risk.

Question 91: During night flight operations, what piece of equipment is mandatory for a plane director to use while marshaling aircraft?

A high-intensity flashlight with a red lens.
Standard orange reflective gloves.
A pair of illuminated wands. (Correct answer)
A sound-powered telephone headset.

Correct answer: A pair of illuminated wands.

Illuminated wands are required for marshaling during night or low-visibility conditions to ensure the director's hand signals are clearly visible to the pilot.

Question 92: How does the Global Positioning System (GPS) determine an aircraft's position?

By measuring Doppler shift from VHF ground beacons
By calculating position from timing signals received from orbiting satellites (Correct answer)
By referencing inertial platform drift against known terrain
By receiving bearing signals from TACAN ground stations

Correct answer: By calculating position from timing signals received from orbiting satellites

GPS receivers compute precise position, velocity, and time by measuring the arrival time of signals from a constellation of orbiting satellites.

Question 93: What is the primary purpose of the EAWS qualification?

To certify that a sailor is qualified to operate aircraft.
To qualify sailors for international deployments.
To promote sailors to officer ranks.
To certify that a sailor has advanced knowledge of naval aviation operations. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To certify that a sailor has advanced knowledge of naval aviation operations.

The Enlisted Aviation Warfare Specialist (EAWS) qualification signifies a sailor's comprehensive understanding of naval aviation systems, operations, and safety protocols. It certifies their advanced knowledge and proficiency within the aviation community, enhancing their ability to contribute effectively to naval aviation missions and support the overall enterprise.

Question 94: What is a key benefit of earning the EAWS qualification for an enlisted sailor?

It allows them to transfer to a non-aviation-related command immediately.
It enhances their career prospects by showcasing their expertise in aviation operations. (Correct answer)
It guarantees an automatic promotion to the pay grade.
It certifies that they can pilot aircraft.

Correct answer: It enhances their career prospects by showcasing their expertise in aviation operations.

Earning the EAWS qualification is a significant career enhancer for enlisted sailors, as it formally recognizes their specialized expertise and dedication to naval aviation. This distinction can lead to increased opportunities for advancement, specialized assignments, and greater respect within the naval community, demonstrating a commitment to professional development and operational excellence.

Question 95: Which instruction governs the handling and stowage of aviation ordnance aboard U.S. Navy ships?

NAVAIR 00-80T-103
SECNAVINST 5100.10
NAVSEA OP 4
OPNAVINST 8023.24 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: OPNAVINST 8023.24

OPNAVINST 8023.24 provides the policy and procedures for the handling, stowage, and movement of aviation ordnance aboard Navy ships.

Question 96: A Plane Captain conducting a pre-flight inspection on an F/A-18 notices a hydraulic leak that was not present after the previous flight. According to the NAMP, what type of inspection is required to investigate and correct this specific issue?

Conditional Inspection (Correct answer)
Phase Inspection
Turnaround Inspection
Daily Inspection

Correct answer: Conditional Inspection

A Conditional Inspection is required due to a specific over-limit condition or as a result of a particular event. An unexpected hydraulic leak falls into this category, as it is an unscheduled event that requires inspection and correction.

Question 97: What explosive hazard classification applies to most aircraft bombs and missiles?

Class 1 Division 1.1 (Correct answer)
Class 8 Corrosive
Class 5 Division 5.2
Class 2 Division 2.1

Correct answer: Class 1 Division 1.1

Most aircraft bombs and missiles fall under Class 1 Division 1.1, which represents mass detonating explosives with the highest hazard.

Question 98: A junior sailor is studying for their EAWS board and is asked about the significance of the Battle of the Coral Sea. Which of the following statements is the most accurate description?

It was the decisive battle that led to the immediate surrender of Japanese forces in World War II.
It was exclusively fought by submarines and resulted in a tactical victory for the U.S. Navy.
It was the first naval battle in history where the opposing ships never saw or fired directly upon one another. (Correct answer)
It was the first naval battle where opposing fleets engaged each other with surface gunfire at close range.

Correct answer: It was the first naval battle in history where the opposing ships never saw or fired directly upon one another.

The Battle of the Coral Sea, fought in May 1942, was the first naval engagement in which the opposing fleets' ships never sighted or fired directly at each other. All attacks were carried out by carrier-launched aircraft.

Question 99: A deploying aviation squadron needs to ensure it has the necessary repair parts and consumables to be self-sufficient for an extended period. Which allowance list specifies the type and quantity of material authorized for this purpose?

Aviation Consolidated Allowance List (AVCAL) (Correct answer)
Coordinated Shipboard Allowance List (COSAL)
Individual Material Readiness List (IMRL)
Allowance Parts List (APL)

Correct answer: Aviation Consolidated Allowance List (AVCAL)

The Aviation Consolidated Allowance List (AVCAL) is a specific list of repair parts and consumables required for a deploying aviation unit or ship to be self-sufficient for a set period, typically 90 days, without external resupply.

Question 100: How does the EAWS qualification enhance a sailor's role in the aviation community?

By guaranteeing a promotion
By allowing them to fly combat missions.
By giving them authority over aircraft maintenance teams.
By increasing their understanding of naval aviation systems and operations. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: By increasing their understanding of naval aviation systems and operations.

Earning the EAWS qualification significantly enhances a sailor's role by deepening their understanding of the complex systems, procedures, and operational environment of naval aviation. This comprehensive knowledge allows them to perform their duties more effectively, contribute to mission success, and better support the overall aviation enterprise with informed decisions.

Enlisted Aviation Warfare Specialist (EAWS)

The EAWS qualification certifies that Navy enlisted personnel have demonstrated comprehensive knowledge of naval aviation operations, including aircraft systems, safety, maintenance, ordnance, and aviation heritage. It is a prerequisite for senior enlisted sailors assigned to aviation commands.

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