Enlisted Aviation Warfare Specialist (EAWS) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: What does the EAWS insignia symbolize?

It symbolizes a sailor's successful completion of officer candidate school.
It symbolizes a sailor's qualification in advanced weapons systems.
It symbolizes a sailor's proficiency in naval aviation operations. (Correct answer)
It symbolizes a sailor's ability to command a naval vessel.

Correct answer: It symbolizes a sailor's proficiency in naval aviation operations.

The EAWS insignia is a prestigious badge worn by enlisted sailors who have demonstrated a high level of proficiency and comprehensive knowledge in naval aviation operations. It symbolizes their expertise across various aviation platforms, systems, and procedures, signifying their valuable contribution and dedication to the Navy's air arm.

Question 2: What is the primary purpose of the EAWS qualification?

To certify that a sailor is qualified to operate aircraft.
To certify that a sailor has advanced knowledge of naval aviation operations. (Correct answer)
To qualify sailors for international deployments.
To promote sailors to officer ranks.

Correct answer: To certify that a sailor has advanced knowledge of naval aviation operations.

The Enlisted Aviation Warfare Specialist (EAWS) qualification signifies a sailor's comprehensive understanding of naval aviation systems, operations, and safety protocols. It certifies their advanced knowledge and proficiency within the aviation community, enhancing their ability to contribute effectively to naval aviation missions and support the overall enterprise.

Question 3: In which frequency band does JTIDS (Joint Tactical Information Distribution System), the radio used for Link 16, operate?

HF (3–30 MHz)
VHF (30–300 MHz)
L-Band (960–1215 MHz) (Correct answer)
X-Band (8–12 GHz)

Correct answer: L-Band (960–1215 MHz)

JTIDS/Link 16 operates in the L-Band (960–1215 MHz), using frequency hopping across 51 frequencies and time-division multiple access (TDMA) for jam resistance.

Question 4: Which safety pin configuration is required before handling live ordnance?

All pins removed
All pins installed (Correct answer)
Only safety pins removed
Only arming pins installed

Correct answer: All pins installed

All safety pins must be installed before handling live ordnance to prevent accidental arming or detonation.

Question 5: What does the term 'ordnance' refer to in naval aviation?

Aircraft navigation equipment
Weapons, ammunition, and explosives used in combat (Correct answer)
Engine maintenance tools
Fuel and lubricants

Correct answer: Weapons, ammunition, and explosives used in combat

Ordnance refers to military weapons, ammunition, and explosives, including bombs, missiles, and gun systems used in naval aviation.

Question 6: What is the primary purpose of a MK-82 bomb?

Air-to-air combat
Anti-submarine warfare
General purpose unguided air-to-ground attack (Correct answer)
Electronic warfare

Correct answer: General purpose unguided air-to-ground attack

The MK-82 is a 500-pound general purpose unguided bomb designed for air-to-ground attack missions.

Question 7: What is the primary purpose of a life preserver unit (LPU) worn by naval aircrews?

Provide ballistic protection
Keep the wearer afloat after water entry (Correct answer)
Serve as a radio antenna carrier
Store survival equipment pouches

Correct answer: Keep the wearer afloat after water entry

The LPU (Life Preserver Unit) is designed to keep the wearer afloat and support the head above water after ditching or ejecting over water.

Question 8: Why is HF radio used by naval aviation when UHF and VHF are unavailable or insufficient?

Better voice clarity over short distances
More available frequency channels
Higher data transmission rates than other bands
Long-range beyond-line-of-sight communications via ionospheric propagation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Long-range beyond-line-of-sight communications via ionospheric propagation

HF signals can reflect off the ionosphere (skywave propagation), enabling communications far beyond the line-of-sight range of UHF and VHF.

Question 9: Which frequency band is primarily used for military tactical aviation voice communications due to its line-of-sight reliability?

UHF (300–3000 MHz) (Correct answer)
VHF (30–300 MHz)
HF (3–30 MHz)
SHF (3–30 GHz)

Correct answer: UHF (300–3000 MHz)

UHF is the primary military aviation tactical voice band because of its reliable line-of-sight propagation and resistance to some forms of interference.

Question 10: An aviation maintenance technician discovers a container of hydraulic fluid has been knocked over inside a HAZMAT locker, and a small amount is leaking onto the deck. According to proper procedure, what is the IMMEDIATE first step the technician should take?

Close the locker door and ignore the spill until the end of the shift.
Attempt to clean up the spill using available rags.
Immediately report the spill to the Work Center Supervisor. (Correct answer)
Find a new container and transfer the remaining fluid.

Correct answer: Immediately report the spill to the Work Center Supervisor.

The first and most critical step in any hazardous material spill is to report it to the proper authority, which is typically the Work Center Supervisor. This ensures the chain of command is aware and can initiate the correct response protocol, involving trained spill response teams if necessary, and ensures the safety of all personnel. Acting alone without proper training or equipment can be dangerous.

Question 11: What does 'hung ordnance' mean on a naval aircraft?

Ordnance that failed to release during a mission (Correct answer)
Ordnance cleared for use
Ordnance stored in the hangar bay
Ordnance awaiting inspection

Correct answer: Ordnance that failed to release during a mission

Hung ordnance refers to weapons that failed to release from the aircraft during a combat mission and require special handling procedures upon landing.

Question 12: During CPR on an adult victim, what is the correct sequence of actions according to current American Heart Association guidelines adopted by the Navy?

Compressions, Airway, Breathing (C-A-B) (Correct answer)
Airway, Compressions, Breathing (A-C-B)
Airway, Breathing, Compressions (A-B-C)
Breathing, Compressions, Airway (B-C-A)

Correct answer: Compressions, Airway, Breathing (C-A-B)

Modern CPR guidelines have shifted the sequence from the old A-B-C (Airway, Breathing, Chest compressions) to C-A-B (Chest compressions, Airway, Breathing). This change emphasizes the critical importance of initiating chest compressions as quickly as possible to maintain circulation.

Question 13: What color smoke signal is internationally recognized as a distress signal?

Orange (Correct answer)
Blue
Green
White

Correct answer: Orange

Orange smoke is the internationally recognized distress color used by downed aircrews and shipwreck survivors to signal their location to rescuers.

Question 14: How does the Global Positioning System (GPS) determine an aircraft's position?

By receiving bearing signals from TACAN ground stations
By referencing inertial platform drift against known terrain
By measuring Doppler shift from VHF ground beacons
By calculating position from timing signals received from orbiting satellites (Correct answer)

Correct answer: By calculating position from timing signals received from orbiting satellites

GPS receivers compute precise position, velocity, and time by measuring the arrival time of signals from a constellation of orbiting satellites.

Question 15: The Monthly Maintenance Plan (MMP) is a key management tool used by aviation maintenance activities. Which of the following best describes its purpose?

To list all aircraft that are currently not mission capable.
To document all unscheduled maintenance actions that occurred during the previous month.
To request additional funding for the maintenance department.
To provide a schedule for predictable maintenance workload, such as inspections and training. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To provide a schedule for predictable maintenance workload, such as inspections and training.

The Monthly Maintenance Plan (MMP) is used to provide scheduled control of predictable maintenance workloads. It outlines planned inspections, training, and other scheduled events for the upcoming month.

Question 16: What is the primary document that provides comprehensive information about a specific hazardous material, including its properties, health hazards, and measures for safe handling and emergency control?

Safety Data Sheet (SDS) (Correct answer)
Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP)
Authorized Use List (AUL)
Aircraft Maintenance Manual (AMM)

Correct answer: Safety Data Sheet (SDS)

The Safety Data Sheet (SDS), formerly known as the Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS), is the primary source of detailed information on a hazardous chemical. It is provided by the manufacturer and includes comprehensive data on potential hazards, safe handling procedures, personal protective equipment (PPE) requirements, and first-aid measures.

Question 17: On an NFPA 704 diamond label, commonly found on chemical containers and storage areas, what type of hazard is indicated by the blue quadrant?

Health (Correct answer)
Flammability
Special Hazards
Reactivity/Instability

Correct answer: Health

The blue quadrant of the NFPA 704 diamond specifically indicates the health hazard posed by the substance. The number inside, ranging from 0 (no hazard) to 4 (can be lethal), communicates the severity of the risk upon exposure.

Question 18: What does the acronym 'JDAM' stand for?

Joint Defense Aviation Missile
Joint Direct Attack Munition (Correct answer)
Joint Defensive Attack Method
Joint Digital Arming Module

Correct answer: Joint Direct Attack Munition

JDAM stands for Joint Direct Attack Munition, a guidance kit that converts unguided bombs into GPS/INS-guided weapons.

Question 19: How does the EAWS qualification enhance a sailor's role in the aviation community?

By allowing them to fly combat missions.
By increasing their understanding of naval aviation systems and operations. (Correct answer)
By giving them authority over aircraft maintenance teams.
By guaranteeing a promotion

Correct answer: By increasing their understanding of naval aviation systems and operations.

Earning the EAWS qualification significantly enhances a sailor's role by deepening their understanding of the complex systems, procedures, and operational environment of naval aviation. This comprehensive knowledge allows them to perform their duties more effectively, contribute to mission success, and better support the overall aviation enterprise with informed decisions.

Question 20: What is the purpose of the '4-wire' system on an aircraft carrier arresting gear?

To arrest aircraft by catching the tailhook during landing (Correct answer)
To provide electrical power to landing aircraft
To secure aircraft to the deck
To signal pilots during approach

Correct answer: To arrest aircraft by catching the tailhook during landing

The arresting wire system (1 through 4 wires) is designed to catch the tailhook of landing aircraft to safely decelerate them on the carrier deck.

Question 21: On an airfield, what is the purpose of the paved or unpaved sections on the ends of the runways, known as overrun areas?

To provide a deceleration area for aborting or overshooting aircraft (Correct answer)
To allow aircraft to calibrate their compass systems
To serve as a temporary aircraft parking location
To provide a staging area for emergency response vehicles

Correct answer: To provide a deceleration area for aborting or overshooting aircraft

Overrun areas are a critical safety feature of an airfield. They are specifically designed to provide a reasonably effective surface for an aircraft to decelerate and stop safely in the event of an aborted takeoff or an overshoot on landing.

Question 22: An aircraft handling team, consisting of a director, tractor driver, brake rider, and wing walkers, is preparing to tow an aircraft. Who holds the ultimate responsibility for conducting the pre-move safety brief and directing the entire evolution?

The tow tractor driver.
The brake rider.
The most senior wing walker.
The move director. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The move director.

The move director (or plane director) is the overall leader of the aircraft move. This individual is responsible for the entire evolution, from conducting the safety brief to directing the tractor driver and ensuring all team members perform their duties safely.

Question 23: Which of the following best describes a primary objective of the Navy's Hazardous Material Control and Management (HMC&M) program?

To train all personnel as certified HAZMAT emergency responders.
To minimize the quantity of hazardous materials used and stored by seeking less hazardous substitutes. (Correct answer)
To bypass manufacturer's handling recommendations for faster maintenance.
To ensure an unlimited supply of all necessary chemicals is available.

Correct answer: To minimize the quantity of hazardous materials used and stored by seeking less hazardous substitutes.

A key goal of the HMC&M program is source reduction, which involves minimizing the introduction of hazardous materials into the Navy system. This is achieved by controlling inventory, seeking less hazardous or non-hazardous substitutes, and safely managing the lifecycle of required chemicals to reduce risks to personnel and the environment.

Question 24: What capability does Link 16 provide to naval aviation tactical operations?

Air-to-ground precision weapon guidance
Secure, jam-resistant digital exchange of tactical data among multiple platforms (Correct answer)
GPS navigation backup in degraded environments
Encrypted voice communications between aircraft

Correct answer: Secure, jam-resistant digital exchange of tactical data among multiple platforms

Link 16 is a secure, jam-resistant TDMA data link that distributes targeting, track, identification, and situational awareness data in near-real-time among participants.

Question 25: A maintainer accidentally touches a hot exhaust component and receives a burn that is red, blistered, and causes severe pain. How would this burn be classified?

Second-degree (Correct answer)
First-degree
Superficial
Fourth-degree

Correct answer: Second-degree

Burns are classified by their depth. A first-degree burn is red and painful. A second-degree burn involves blistering and severe pain. A third-degree burn destroys all layers of the skin and may be painless due to nerve damage. The presence of blisters indicates a second-degree burn.

Question 26: What is the purpose of the underwater egress training (HUET) for naval aviation personnel?

Certify swimmers for open ocean rescues
Train divers for underwater ordnance disposal
Train personnel to operate submarines
Teach safe exit from a submerged or inverted helicopter (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Teach safe exit from a submerged or inverted helicopter

HUET (Helicopter Underwater Egress Training) teaches aircrews how to safely exit a helicopter that has ditched and inverted in water.

Question 27: An F/A-18E Super Hornet has just landed and is being taxied onto the apron. You notice the plane director gives a signal by extending their arms outward and then sweeping them forward and upward. What does this signal indicate to the pilot?

Insert chocks
Stop
Slow down
Proceed straight ahead (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Proceed straight ahead

Standard aircraft handling signals are crucial for safe movement in the high-noise environment of a flight deck. The signal described, with arms sweeping forward and upward, directs the pilot to continue moving straight ahead.

Question 28: A work center generates rags contaminated with oil and solvents during daily maintenance. To prevent a fire hazard from spontaneous combustion, what is the correct disposal method for these rags?

Placing them in a designated, approved, and properly labeled fire-safe metal container with a lid. (Correct answer)
Sealing them in a plastic bag to contain the fumes.
Throwing them into the work center's standard plastic trash can.
Leaving them in an open pile on the hangar deck to air dry.

Correct answer: Placing them in a designated, approved, and properly labeled fire-safe metal container with a lid.

Rags soaked with flammable or combustible materials like oils and solvents must be placed in a designated, fire-safe metal container with a self-closing lid. This practice limits oxygen, dissipates heat, and contains any potential fire, mitigating the risk of spontaneous combustion. These containers must be emptied daily.

Question 29: When donning an anti-exposure suit, which area must always be checked for airtightness?

Chest pocket closures
Neck and wrist seals (Correct answer)
Knee joints
Ankle zippers

Correct answer: Neck and wrist seals

The neck and wrist seals of an anti-exposure (immersion) suit must be checked for airtightness to ensure the suit provides thermal protection in cold water.

Question 30: What impact does the EAWS qualification have on a sailor’s sense of professional identity?

It provides no real sense of achievement or distinction.
It enhances their professional identity by recognizing them as experts in naval aviation warfare. (Correct answer)
It forces them to limit their career choices to aviation roles only.
It isolates them from other warfare specialties in the Navy.

Correct answer: It enhances their professional identity by recognizing them as experts in naval aviation warfare.

The EAWS qualification enhances a sailor's professional identity by recognizing them as experts in naval aviation warfare. It is a symbol of their dedication, expertise, and readiness to contribute to naval missions, providing a sense of pride and distinction in their field.

Question 31: What is the primary purpose of the HAVE QUICK frequency-hopping system used in military aviation?

To encrypt voice transmissions end-to-end
To provide anti-jamming protection for UHF radio communications (Correct answer)
To reduce mutual interference between aircraft on the same net
To extend UHF communications range

Correct answer: To provide anti-jamming protection for UHF radio communications

HAVE QUICK is an anti-jam UHF frequency-hopping system that rapidly changes operating frequencies to defeat enemy electronic jamming attempts.

Question 32: A plane director needs to signal the pilot to engage the aircraft's brakes. According to NAVAIR 00-80T-113, what is the correct hand signal for this command?

Make a circular motion with the right hand pointing downwards.
Raise both arms above the head and cross the wands.
Extend an arm horizontally in front of the body with fingers extended, then clench the hand into a fist. (Correct answer)
Extend the left arm down and point to the left main gear.

Correct answer: Extend an arm horizontally in front of the body with fingers extended, then clench the hand into a fist.

The correct signal for 'set brakes' is to extend the arm and hand horizontally in front of the face or body with fingers extended, and then clench the hand into a fist, simulating the application of pressure.

Question 33: A maintenance technician requires a specific solvent for a task. Which of the following ensures the technician is using a chemical that is approved for use within their specific command and for that particular process?

The Safety Data Sheet (SDS) is available online.
The solvent is a well-known brand available at a commercial store.
The solvent is listed on the work center's Authorized Use List (AUL). (Correct answer)
A technician from another work center has used it before.

Correct answer: The solvent is listed on the work center's Authorized Use List (AUL).

The Authorized Use List (AUL) is a command-specific list of all hazardous materials that are approved for use in a particular work center. Only materials on the AUL may be procured, stored, and used, ensuring they have been properly vetted for safety and mission necessity. The availability of an SDS does not by itself constitute authorization for use.

Question 34: What unique capability does the Automatic Carrier Landing System (ACLS) provide to carrier-based aircraft?

Navigation routing from shore base to the carrier
Automated catapult launch sequencing
Fully automatic approach and landing in zero-visibility conditions (Correct answer)
Automated fuel state calculations during approaches

Correct answer: Fully automatic approach and landing in zero-visibility conditions

ACLS uses a shipboard radar and data-link to provide fully automatic approach and landing guidance, allowing recovery in zero-zero visibility conditions.

Question 35: An aircraft's landing gear fails to retract after takeoff. The hydraulic pressure gauge indicates a rapid drop to zero, and a visual inspection from the cabin reveals fluid streaming from the right main gear wheel well. Which of the following components has most likely failed?

An engine-driven pump
The main system reservoir
A pressure relief valve
An actuating cylinder seal (Correct answer)

Correct answer: An actuating cylinder seal

The scenario describes a localized leak associated with a specific component's operation (landing gear). An actuating cylinder is the component that converts hydraulic pressure into the mechanical motion to move the gear. A failure of its seal would result in a significant fluid leak at that location when the system is pressurized, leading to a loss of system pressure as described. A reservoir failure would likely not be localized to the wheel well, a pump failure would cause pressure loss without a massive external leak, and a relief valve failure would typically vent fluid overboard at the valve's location, not necessarily in the wheel well.

Question 36: The Automatic Direction Finder (ADF) determines an aircraft's bearing relative to which type of ground station?

VOR (VHF Omni-Range) station
Non-Directional Beacon (NDB) (Correct answer)
ILS localizer antenna
TACAN transponder

Correct answer: Non-Directional Beacon (NDB)

ADF receives the omnidirectional low/medium frequency signal from a Non-Directional Beacon (NDB) and displays the bearing of that station relative to the aircraft.

Question 37: Most modern naval aircraft fuselages use a semi-monocoque construction. What is the primary characteristic of this design?

The skin is reinforced by a substructure of formers and stringers that share the structural load. (Correct answer)
The external skin is the sole load-bearing component.
All structural loads are carried by a single, central keel beam.
A framework of steel tubes provides the primary structural strength.

Correct answer: The skin is reinforced by a substructure of formers and stringers that share the structural load.

Semi-monocoque construction is a widely used method where the aircraft's skin is attached to a substructure of bulkheads, formers, and stringers. This design allows the skin and the substructure to share the stresses, providing a strong yet relatively lightweight structure. In contrast, a pure monocoque design relies solely on the skin, and a truss structure uses a rigid framework of tubes.

Question 38: What is the military UHF guard (emergency) frequency monitored by all military aircraft and installations?

243.0 MHz (Correct answer)
121.5 MHz
282.8 MHz
156.8 MHz

Correct answer: 243.0 MHz

243.0 MHz is the military UHF emergency guard frequency, exactly double the civilian VHF guard frequency of 121.5 MHz.

Question 39: What is the purpose of a personal locator beacon (PLB)?

Automatically transmit distress signals to search and rescue satellites (Correct answer)
Control drone aircraft
Track aircraft fuel consumption
Monitor aircrew vital signs

Correct answer: Automatically transmit distress signals to search and rescue satellites

A PLB automatically transmits a distress signal on emergency frequencies to COSPAS-SARSAT satellites, enabling rescuers to locate downed personnel.

Question 40: Which of the following events is considered a pivotal moment that halted the Japanese advance in the Pacific and was a strategic victory for the Allies, even though they lost more ships?

The Battle of the Coral Sea (Correct answer)
The Attack on Pearl Harbor
The Battle of Guadalcanal
The Battle of Midway

Correct answer: The Battle of the Coral Sea

The Battle of the Coral Sea is considered a strategic victory for the Allies because it stopped the planned Japanese invasion of Port Moresby, halting their southward advance for the first time, despite the U.S. losing the carrier USS Lexington. The damage to Japanese carriers prevented them from participating in the subsequent Battle of Midway.

Question 41: What is the purpose of 'downloading' ordnance from an aircraft?

Transferring ordnance data to a computer
Removing weapons from the aircraft after a mission (Correct answer)
Uploading targeting data to a missile
Loading ordnance onto the aircraft before a mission

Correct answer: Removing weapons from the aircraft after a mission

Downloading refers to the process of removing weapons and ordnance from an aircraft, typically after a mission or when ordnance is no longer needed.

Question 42: Within the NAMP, what is the core concept of Quality Assurance (QA)?

The rapid replacement of any part that has failed.
The final inspection of an aircraft before it is released for flight.
The prevention of the occurrence of defects. (Correct answer)
The correction of defects after they have occurred.

Correct answer: The prevention of the occurrence of defects.

The fundamental concept of Quality Assurance (QA) within the NAMP is the prevention of defects. This is a proactive approach focused on ensuring processes and procedures are followed correctly to prevent issues from arising in the first place.

Question 43: What does 'HEED' stand for in aviation survival equipment?

High Explosive Egress Device
Helicopter Emergency Egress Device (Correct answer)
High Endurance Emergency Device
Hazardous Equipment Emergency Disposal

Correct answer: Helicopter Emergency Egress Device

HEED (Helicopter Emergency Egress Device) is a small self-contained underwater breathing apparatus that provides breathable air during helicopter underwater escape.

Question 44: A deploying aviation squadron needs to ensure it has the necessary repair parts and consumables to be self-sufficient for an extended period. Which allowance list specifies the type and quantity of material authorized for this purpose?

Individual Material Readiness List (IMRL)
Aviation Consolidated Allowance List (AVCAL) (Correct answer)
Coordinated Shipboard Allowance List (COSAL)
Allowance Parts List (APL)

Correct answer: Aviation Consolidated Allowance List (AVCAL)

The Aviation Consolidated Allowance List (AVCAL) is a specific list of repair parts and consumables required for a deploying aviation unit or ship to be self-sufficient for a set period, typically 90 days, without external resupply.

Question 45: An Aviation Ordnanceman is preparing a presentation on naval aviation milestones. They need to identify the first ship specifically designed and constructed from the keel up as an aircraft carrier for the U.S. Navy. Which ship should they name?

USS Langley (CV-1)
USS Ranger (CV-4) (Correct answer)
USS Lexington (CV-2)
USS Enterprise (CV-6)

Correct answer: USS Ranger (CV-4)

While the USS Langley was the first aircraft carrier, it was a conversion. The USS Ranger (CV-4), whose keel was laid in 1931 and commissioned in 1934, was the first ship in the U.S. Navy to be designed and built from the hull up as an aircraft carrier.

Question 46: What is the first step a sailor must complete before pursuing the EAWS qualification?

Study the EAWS manual specific to their command. (Correct answer)
Complete the physical readiness test.
Appear before a qualification board.
Receive approval from the Commanding Officer (CO).

Correct answer: Study the EAWS manual specific to their command.

The initial and crucial step for a sailor pursuing EAWS is to thoroughly study the EAWS manual, often tailored to their specific command or platform. This manual contains the foundational knowledge, systems, and procedures required for the qualification, preparing them for subsequent written and oral examinations and ensuring a solid understanding of naval aviation.

Question 47: The Instrument Landing System (ILS) consists of which two primary components that guide an aircraft to the runway?

Glide slope and distance measuring equipment
VOR and DME
TACAN and precision approach radar
Localizer and glide slope (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Localizer and glide slope

ILS uses a localizer for lateral (left/right) alignment with the runway centerline and a glide slope transmitter for vertical (up/down) descent guidance.

Question 48: How can a sailor keep their EAWS qualification current?

By applying for an officer program.
By attending mandatory refresher training and staying updated with changes in aviation operations. (Correct answer)
By completing a physical fitness test.
By transferring to a non-aviation command.

Correct answer: By attending mandatory refresher training and staying updated with changes in aviation operations.

To keep their EAWS qualification current, sailors must actively participate in mandatory refresher training and stay informed about any changes or advancements in aviation operations, systems, and safety regulations. This continuous learning ensures their knowledge and skills remain relevant and up-to-date, reflecting the dynamic nature of naval aviation.

Question 49: An aircraft has just been parked on the flight line during normal weather conditions. What is the minimum number of tie-down chains required for an initial tie-down?

6 chains (Correct answer)
8 chains
4 chains
12 chains

Correct answer: 6 chains

Standard initial tie-down procedures for naval aircraft in normal weather (up to 45 knots of wind) require a minimum of 6 chains. The number of chains increases for intermediate and heavy weather conditions.

Question 50: What does 'NATOPS' stand for?

Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (Correct answer)
Naval Airworthiness Testing and Operations Protocol
National Aviation Training Operations Program
Naval Aviation Tactics and Operations Standards

Correct answer: Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization

NATOPS stands for Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization, which governs standardized procedures for safe naval aviation operations.

Question 51: In addition to written exams, what other component is crucial for EAWS qualification?

Physical fitness test.
Written recommendation from an officer.
Demonstration of practical proficiency in aviation systems and procedures. (Correct answer)
Participation in a combat mission.

Correct answer: Demonstration of practical proficiency in aviation systems and procedures.

Beyond written exams, a critical component of EAWS qualification is the demonstration of practical proficiency in aviation systems and procedures. Sailors must show they can apply their knowledge in real-world scenarios, operate equipment correctly, and understand the practical implications of their duties within naval aviation, ensuring hands-on competence.

Question 52: Which internationally recognized VHF frequency is used for civilian aeronautical distress communications?

156.8 MHz
243.0 MHz
282.8 MHz
121.5 MHz (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 121.5 MHz

121.5 MHz is the international aeronautical VHF emergency frequency monitored by civil aircraft and many rescue agencies.

Question 53: Which of the following provides aviation maintenance and material management with an automated, real-time system for managing and tracking maintenance actions, supply requisitions, and aircraft configuration data at the organizational level?

SERMIS (Support Equipment Resources Management Information System)
AMSRR (Aircraft Material Service Readiness Report)
ATOLS (Automated Technical Order Licensing System)
NALCOMIS (OOMA) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: NALCOMIS (OOMA)

NALCOMIS (Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System) with the Optimized Organizational Maintenance Activity (OOMA) subsystem is the primary tool used at the squadron level. It provides a centralized, real-time database for managing maintenance, ordering parts, and tracking aircraft data, linking the maintenance department directly with the supply system.

Question 54: What explosive hazard classification applies to most aircraft bombs and missiles?

Class 5 Division 5.2
Class 1 Division 1.1 (Correct answer)
Class 2 Division 2.1
Class 8 Corrosive

Correct answer: Class 1 Division 1.1

Most aircraft bombs and missiles fall under Class 1 Division 1.1, which represents mass detonating explosives with the highest hazard.

Question 55: The USS Langley (CV-1), the first aircraft carrier of the U.S. Navy, was converted from what type of ship?

A collier (Correct answer)
A cruiser
A battleship
A destroyer

Correct answer: A collier

The USS Langley (CV-1) was commissioned in March 1922 after being converted from the collier USS Jupiter (AC-3). This conversion marked the birth of the U.S. Navy's carrier fleet.

Question 56: Movement of an aircraft around its longitudinal axis, also known as roll, is controlled by which primary flight control surface?

Ailerons (Correct answer)
Elevators
Flaps
Rudder

Correct answer: Ailerons

The longitudinal axis runs from the nose to the tail of the aircraft. Movement around this axis is called roll. Ailerons, located on the outboard trailing edge of the wings, move in opposite directions to create a differential in lift, causing the aircraft to roll left or right.

Question 57: A maintainer needs to request a consumable part from the squadron's Aviation Support Division (ASD). Which form is the standard document used to request and provide a receipt for the issue of material from stock?

NAVCOMPT 2276
DD Form 200 (FLIPL)
OPNAV 4790/60 (VIDS/MAF)
DD Form 1348-1A (Correct answer)

Correct answer: DD Form 1348-1A

The DD Form 1348-1A is the standard DoD Issue Release/Receipt Document. It is used throughout the supply system to document the issue and receipt of material, serving as the primary 'pick ticket' and receipt when a maintainer gets parts from the supply window.

Question 58: Within a turbofan engine, what is the primary function of the compressor section?

To drive the fan and other engine accessories.
To decrease the velocity of the exhaust gases to reduce noise.
To squeeze incoming air and increase its pressure and temperature before combustion. (Correct answer)
To ignite the fuel-air mixture.

Correct answer: To squeeze incoming air and increase its pressure and temperature before combustion.

The compressor section, located behind the fan, is composed of rotating blades and stationary stators that draw in air and compress it. This process significantly increases the pressure and temperature of the air, making it more volatile for efficient combustion when mixed with fuel in the combustion chamber.

Question 59: What does 'HERO' stand for in ordnance safety?

Hazardous Explosive Range Operations
High-Energy Rocket Ordnance
Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance (Correct answer)
Hazardous Equipment Readiness Operations

Correct answer: Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance

HERO stands for Hazards of Electromagnetic Radiation to Ordnance, addressing the danger that RF energy poses to electrically initiated explosive devices.

Question 60: A fellow sailor on the flight deck suffers a deep laceration to their forearm that is bleeding profusely. After applying direct pressure, which of the following is the next recommended step for controlling the bleeding?

Apply pressure to the brachial pressure point (Correct answer)
Immediately apply a tourniquet above the wound
Lower the arm below the heart
Clean the wound with hydrogen peroxide

Correct answer: Apply pressure to the brachial pressure point

The four methods for controlling bleeding are direct pressure, elevation, pressure points, and tourniquet (as a last resort). After direct pressure, applying pressure to the appropriate pressure point (in this case, the brachial artery in the upper arm) is a standard procedure to reduce blood flow to the limb.

Question 61: What is the purpose of the EAWS qualification board?

To assess the sailor's comprehensive knowledge and practical proficiency in aviation warfare. (Correct answer)
To assign sailors to flight crew positions.
To promote sailors to a higher pay grade.
To evaluate the sailor's ability to manage aviation logistics.

Correct answer: To assess the sailor's comprehensive knowledge and practical proficiency in aviation warfare.

The EAWS qualification board serves as the final evaluation step, where senior enlisted and officer personnel assess a sailor's comprehensive knowledge and practical proficiency in aviation warfare. This rigorous review ensures the sailor can articulate their understanding, demonstrate competency across various aviation-related topics, and is truly qualified to wear the insignia.

Question 62: A maintenance technician requires a hydraulic pump which is designated as a Depot Level Repairable (DLR). What is the standard procedure required before the Aviation Support Division (ASD) will issue a replacement part?

Completing a special request form signed by the Department Head.
Providing the failed or unserviceable component as a 'one-for-one' turn-in. (Correct answer)
Paying the full 'standard price' for the new component up front.
Presenting a completed Maintenance Action Form (MAF) documenting the troubleshooting steps.

Correct answer: Providing the failed or unserviceable component as a 'one-for-one' turn-in.

The Depot Level Repairable (DLR) program operates on a 'one-for-one' exchange basis to save costs by repairing high-value components. The standard process requires the unserviceable or 'Not Ready For Issue' (NRFI) part to be turned in to Supply before a 'Ready For Issue' (RFI) replacement is provided.

Question 63: Which of the following is a mandatory requirement for the individual acting as the brake rider during an aircraft tow operation?

Must wear a brown jersey to signify their role.
Must be fully qualified and certified on the specific aircraft's brake system. (Correct answer)
Must be a designated Plane Captain for the aircraft model being moved.
Must maintain constant radio contact with the tow tractor driver.

Correct answer: Must be fully qualified and certified on the specific aircraft's brake system.

The brake rider's primary and most critical responsibility is to operate the aircraft's brakes in an emergency. Therefore, they must be fully qualified and certified on that specific aircraft's brake system to ensure they can do so safely and effectively.

Question 64: What is the primary purpose of an Individual Material Readiness List (IMRL)?

To document the qualifications and certifications of all maintenance personnel in a work center.
To specify the types and quantities of Support Equipment (SE) required for an activity to perform its assigned maintenance functions. (Correct answer)
To list the personal protective equipment required for each maintenance task.
To track all repairable components currently installed on an aircraft.

Correct answer: To specify the types and quantities of Support Equipment (SE) required for an activity to perform its assigned maintenance functions.

The Individual Material Readiness List (IMRL) is a consolidated allowance list that specifies all items of Support Equipment (SE) and specialized tools required for an aviation maintenance activity to perform its assigned duties. It ensures the unit has the correct ground support capabilities.

Question 65: An Aviation Ordnanceman removes a component from a bomb rack. The component is unserviceable but can be economically repaired at an Intermediate Maintenance Activity (IMA). Which supply condition code should be assigned to the component tag?

Condition Code F (Correct answer)
Condition Code H
Condition Code A
Condition Code D

Correct answer: Condition Code F

Condition Code F is specifically used to identify material that is unserviceable but is considered economically repairable. Condition Code A is serviceable, H is condemned/unrepairable, and D is serviceable but requires testing or modification.

Question 66: What must a sailor do before appearing before the EAWS qualification board?

Obtain a recommendation from a fellow junior sailor.
Pass both oral and written exams. (Correct answer)
Complete a 30-day training program.
Complete officer candidate school.

Correct answer: Pass both oral and written exams.

Before facing the EAWS qualification board, sailors must demonstrate their comprehensive knowledge by successfully passing both written and oral examinations. These exams assess their understanding of naval aviation systems, operations, and emergency procedures, ensuring they possess the necessary theoretical foundation and can articulate their expertise effectively.

Question 67: Which of the following is the primary objective of the Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP)?

To standardize maintenance terminology across all branches of the military.
To reduce the operational costs of naval aviation by extending inspection intervals.
To achieve and continually improve aviation material readiness and safety standards. (Correct answer)
To exclusively manage the procurement of new aircraft and support equipment.

Correct answer: To achieve and continually improve aviation material readiness and safety standards.

The primary objective of the NAMP, as stated in COMNAVAIRFORINST 4790.2, is to achieve and continually improve aviation material readiness and safety standards established by the Chief of Naval Operations (CNO).

Question 68: Which IFF squawk code indicates that an aircraft has lost radio communications (NORDO)?

7600 (Correct answer)
7500
1200
7700

Correct answer: 7600

Squawk 7600 signals a loss of two-way radio communications, alerting ATC that the aircraft is NORDO and allowing controllers to apply lost-comms procedures.

Question 69: What does the acronym TACAN stand for?

Tactical Air Command and Navigation
Terminal Area Control and Navigation
Tactical Air Navigation (Correct answer)
Total Aircraft Navigation

Correct answer: Tactical Air Navigation

TACAN stands for Tactical Air Navigation, a military UHF navigation system that provides bearing and slant-range distance to a ground or ship-based station.

Question 70: What U.S. Navy aircraft carrier served as the launch platform for the Doolittle Raid on Tokyo in April 1942?

USS Saratoga (CV-3)
USS Enterprise (CV-6)
USS Lexington (CV-2)
USS Hornet (CV-8) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: USS Hornet (CV-8)

On April 18, 1942, sixteen U.S. Army Air Forces B-25B Mitchell medium bombers, led by Lieutenant Colonel James Doolittle, were launched from the deck of the USS Hornet (CV-8) to conduct a surprise raid on Tokyo.

Question 71: A pilot is conducting a pre-flight check and cycles the flight controls. When they push the control stick forward, a specific control surface moves. What is the primary purpose of this action during flight?

To increase the rate of climb.
To increase wing lift for takeoff.
To yaw the aircraft's nose to the right.
To decrease the aircraft's pitch and cause the nose to lower. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To decrease the aircraft's pitch and cause the nose to lower.

Pushing the control stick forward actuates the elevators, which are located on the horizontal stabilizer. This movement causes the elevators to deflect downwards, which in turn pushes the aircraft's tail up and the nose down. This action controls the aircraft's movement around the lateral (pitch) axis.

Question 72: What is the purpose of an AIM-9 Sidewinder missile?

Suppression of enemy air defenses
Anti-ship strike
Ground attack
Air-to-air heat-seeking engagement (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Air-to-air heat-seeking engagement

The AIM-9 Sidewinder is a short-range infrared heat-seeking air-to-air missile designed to engage enemy aircraft.

Question 73: Which of the following is a primary safety concern and a major cause of premature aircraft engine replacement, requiring constant vigilance on the flight deck and airfield?

Corrosion
Improper hand signals
Hydraulic fluid spills
Foreign Object Damage (FOD) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Foreign Object Damage (FOD)

Foreign Object Damage (FOD) is a critical safety concern. It is caused by loose objects (tools, hardware, personal items) being ingested into aircraft engines, which can cause catastrophic failure. FOD walkdowns are conducted regularly to mitigate this risk.

Question 74: The Maintenance Data System (MDS) is a critical component of aviation maintenance management. What is its primary function?

To automatically order new parts when inventory is low.
To serve as the primary communication platform between maintenance and operations.
To provide a standardized system for troubleshooting and repair procedures.
To collect, store, and report statistical data on maintenance actions and equipment reliability. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To collect, store, and report statistical data on maintenance actions and equipment reliability.

The Maintenance Data System (MDS) is a management information system designed to provide statistical data on equipment maintainability, reliability, utilization, and material usage to assist managers in planning and directing the maintenance effort.

Question 75: Which organization publishes the Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization (NATOPS) manual?

BUPERS
NAVAIR (Correct answer)
CNO
NAVSEA

Correct answer: NAVAIR

NAVAIR (Naval Air Systems Command) is responsible for publishing and maintaining NATOPS manuals for naval aviation.

Question 76: At what temperature does hypothermia become life-threatening for a person in the water?

Below 60°F (16°C)
Below 98°F (37°C)
Below 70°F (21°C) water temperature only
Below 95°F (35°C) core body temperature (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Below 95°F (35°C) core body temperature

Hypothermia becomes life-threatening when core body temperature drops below 95°F (35°C), impairing heart function and cognitive ability.

Question 77: Why is the EAWS qualification significant for an enlisted sailor?

It allows the sailor to command an aircraft carrier.
It signifies advanced knowledge of aviation warfare and operational readiness. (Correct answer)
It automatically qualifies the sailor for a promotion to officer rank.
It is required only for sailors who want to leave the aviation field.

Correct answer: It signifies advanced knowledge of aviation warfare and operational readiness.

The EAWS qualification is significant because it represents a sailor's advanced understanding of aviation warfare, systems, safety and operations. It enhances their professional standing and readiness to contribute to the aviation mission. It does not lead directly to command or automatic promotions.

Question 78: During flight operations, a crew member wearing a purple jersey is observed on the flight deck. What is this individual's role?

Aviation Fuel Crew (Correct answer)
Ordnance Handling Personnel
Plane Captain
Aircraft Handling and Chock Crewman

Correct answer: Aviation Fuel Crew

Personnel wearing purple jerseys on the flight deck are responsible for handling aviation fuel, a critical and hazardous job. This color designation ensures they are easily identifiable during flight and hangar deck operations.

Question 79: What is the minimum altitude at which an ejection seat is typically effective for a zero-zero ejection?

0 feet and 0 knots (zero-zero capable) (Correct answer)
200 knots airspeed only
500 feet AGL
1,000 feet AGL

Correct answer: 0 feet and 0 knots (zero-zero capable)

Modern zero-zero ejection seats are designed to safely eject aircrew at zero altitude and zero airspeed on the ground, providing full parachute deployment.

Question 80: What is the minimum safe distance from a running jet engine intake for personnel?

50 feet
10 feet
15 feet
25 feet (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 25 feet

Personnel must maintain a minimum of 25 feet from a running jet engine intake to avoid the danger of ingestion.

Question 81: Which signal mirror technique is used to aim reflected sunlight at a rescue aircraft?

Cover mirror until aircraft is within 500 feet
Use the aim-through hole to align reflection with target (Correct answer)
Flash mirror randomly to attract attention
Hold mirror behind your back

Correct answer: Use the aim-through hole to align reflection with target

The aim-through hole technique allows the survivor to direct reflected sunlight precisely at a rescue aircraft or ship by aligning the reflection through the sighting hole.

Question 82: A junior sailor is studying for their EAWS board and is asked about the significance of the Battle of the Coral Sea. Which of the following statements is the most accurate description?

It was the first naval battle where opposing fleets engaged each other with surface gunfire at close range.
It was exclusively fought by submarines and resulted in a tactical victory for the U.S. Navy.
It was the decisive battle that led to the immediate surrender of Japanese forces in World War II.
It was the first naval battle in history where the opposing ships never saw or fired directly upon one another. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It was the first naval battle in history where the opposing ships never saw or fired directly upon one another.

The Battle of the Coral Sea, fought in May 1942, was the first naval engagement in which the opposing fleets' ships never sighted or fired directly at each other. All attacks were carried out by carrier-launched aircraft.

Question 83: Which transponder squawk code must an aircrew select when declaring a general emergency?

7700 (Correct answer)
7600
7500
1200

Correct answer: 7700

Squawk 7700 is the universally recognized emergency code that alerts ATC and other radar facilities that the aircraft is experiencing a general emergency.

Question 84: What is a key benefit of earning the EAWS qualification for an enlisted sailor?

It guarantees an automatic promotion to the pay grade.
It allows them to transfer to a non-aviation-related command immediately.
It enhances their career prospects by showcasing their expertise in aviation operations. (Correct answer)
It certifies that they can pilot aircraft.

Correct answer: It enhances their career prospects by showcasing their expertise in aviation operations.

Earning the EAWS qualification is a significant career enhancer for enlisted sailors, as it formally recognizes their specialized expertise and dedication to naval aviation. This distinction can lead to increased opportunities for advancement, specialized assignments, and greater respect within the naval community, demonstrating a commitment to professional development and operational excellence.

Question 85: A Sailor is preparing to work on the flight line. Which of the following combinations of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is mandatory?

Protective jersey, leather gloves, and a whistle
Flight suit, steel-toed boots, and sunglasses
Steel-toed safety shoes, cranial helmet, protective eye goggles, and leather gloves (Correct answer)
Coveralls, hearing protection, and a float coat

Correct answer: Steel-toed safety shoes, cranial helmet, protective eye goggles, and leather gloves

The minimum required PPE for working on the flight line includes steel-toed safety shoes, a cranial impact helmet, protective eye goggles, and leather gloves to protect against the various impact, noise, and operational hazards present.

Question 86: What situation does an aircrew indicate when squawking transponder code 7500?

VFR flight below 18,000 feet MSL
Unlawful interference or hijacking (Correct answer)
Loss of radio communications
General aircraft emergency

Correct answer: Unlawful interference or hijacking

Squawk 7500 signals that the aircraft is being subjected to unlawful interference (hijacking), prompting an immediate response from military and civil authorities.

Question 87: What does IFF stand for in military aviation?

Identification, Friend or Foe (Correct answer)
In-Flight Formation
Instrument Flight Functions
Integrated Fire and Flight

Correct answer: Identification, Friend or Foe

IFF stands for Identification Friend or Foe, a transponder-based system used by military forces to identify aircraft as friendly, hostile, or unknown.

Question 88: Why is the EAWS qualification valued within the aviation community?

It is required for all non-aviation roles in the Navy.
It shows that a sailor can perform advanced maintenance duties without supervision.
It allows the sailor to bypass regular safety checks.
It reflects a sailor’s broad knowledge and capability in supporting complex aviation operations. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It reflects a sailor’s broad knowledge and capability in supporting complex aviation operations.

The EAWS qualification is highly valued within the aviation community because it demonstrates that a sailor has the necessary knowledge and practical skills to support and maintain aviation operations, contributing to mission success and safety.

Question 89: According to the EAWS PQS, which of the following are the three primary objectives of first aid?

Stop bleeding, splint fractures, and administer medication
Diagnose the injury, transport the victim, and file a report
Assess the scene, call for help, and provide comfort
Prevent further injury, prevent infection, and prevent the loss of life (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Prevent further injury, prevent infection, and prevent the loss of life

The fundamental goals of providing first aid are to keep the victim's condition from worsening, protect them from contamination, and take necessary steps to save their life. These are often summarized as preventing further injury, infection, and loss of life.

Question 90: What color is used to identify explosive ordnance on the flight deck?

Red
Green
Yellow (Correct answer)
Blue

Correct answer: Yellow

Yellow jerseys and yellow markings are associated with ordnance handling on the flight deck, while red is used for firefighting.

Question 91: What is the function of a fuze on an aerial bomb?

Initiate detonation at the correct time or condition (Correct answer)
Stabilize the bomb in flight
Guide the bomb to the target
Attach the bomb to the aircraft

Correct answer: Initiate detonation at the correct time or condition

A fuze is a device that initiates detonation of a bomb at the correct time, on impact, or under specified conditions.

Question 92: While working on the flight deck, you observe an individual in a white jersey with a green cross. What is their primary role?

Medical Personnel (Correct answer)
Air Boss
Safety Observer
Landing Signal Officer

Correct answer: Medical Personnel

White jerseys are worn by several key personnel, including safety observers and LSOs. However, the addition of a green cross specifically designates medical personnel, ensuring they are quickly and easily identifiable during an emergency.

Question 93: What type of propellant is used to initiate most modern ejection seats?

Liquid fuel rocket
Pyrotechnic cartridge or solid rocket motor (Correct answer)
Compressed air
Hydraulic pressure

Correct answer: Pyrotechnic cartridge or solid rocket motor

Most modern ejection seats use a pyrotechnic cartridge or solid rocket motor to generate the explosive force needed to eject the seat from the aircraft.

Question 94: During night flight operations, what piece of equipment is mandatory for a plane director to use while marshaling aircraft?

Standard orange reflective gloves.
A pair of illuminated wands. (Correct answer)
A sound-powered telephone headset.
A high-intensity flashlight with a red lens.

Correct answer: A pair of illuminated wands.

Illuminated wands are required for marshaling during night or low-visibility conditions to ensure the director's hand signals are clearly visible to the pilot.

Question 95: What does 'AMMO' stand for in the context of naval aviation ratings?

Aviation Ordnanceman (Correct answer)
Airborne Missile and Munitions Operations
Aircraft Mechanical Munitions Officer
Aviation Munitions and Missile Operations

Correct answer: Aviation Ordnanceman

In naval aviation, 'AO' is the rating designator for Aviation Ordnanceman, the enlisted rating responsible for aircraft weapons systems.

Question 96: Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate action for a shipmate who has fainted but is still breathing?

Shake them vigorously to restore consciousness
Have them sit with their head between their knees or lie them down (Correct answer)
Prop them up into a sitting position against a bulkhead
Force them to drink water immediately

Correct answer: Have them sit with their head between their knees or lie them down

For a simple fainting spell where the victim is conscious or regaining consciousness and is breathing, the primary goal is to improve blood flow to the brain. Having the person sit with their head between their knees or, more effectively, lying them down (and possibly elevating their legs) accomplishes this.

Question 97: What does 'SERE' training prepare naval aviators for?

Standard Equipment Readiness Evaluation
Search, Extraction, Rescue, and Evacuation
Survival, Evasion, Resistance, and Escape (Correct answer)
Systems Engineering and Rapid Egress

Correct answer: Survival, Evasion, Resistance, and Escape

SERE training prepares aircrews to survive, evade enemy forces, resist interrogation, and escape captivity if shot down behind enemy lines.

Question 98: Who is recognized as the first U.S. Navy officer to be designated as a naval aviator?

John H. Towers
Theodore G. Ellyson (Correct answer)
Eugene Ely
Glenn Curtiss

Correct answer: Theodore G. Ellyson

Theodore G. 'Spuds' Ellyson was the first U.S. Navy officer designated as an aviator, bearing the title Naval Aviator No. 1. He began his flight training in 1910 under Glenn Curtiss.

Question 99: What is the function of a survival radio carried by naval aircrews?

Communicate with rescue forces after ejection or ditching (Correct answer)
Navigate using GPS
Monitor weather conditions
Control the aircraft remotely

Correct answer: Communicate with rescue forces after ejection or ditching

A survival radio enables downed aircrews to communicate their position and status to search and rescue forces after an ejection or emergency landing.

Question 100: What does the EAWS qualification signify about a sailor's abilities?

They are ready to assume command of any naval vessel.
They can transfer to another branch of military without further training.
They possess a deep understanding of aviation systems, safety, and operations. (Correct answer)
They are fully capable of flying naval aircraft.

Correct answer: They possess a deep understanding of aviation systems, safety, and operations.

The EAWS qualification signifies that a sailor has a comprehensive understanding of naval aviation systems, operational procedures, and safety protocols, allowing them to contribute more effectively to aviation missions. It does not mean they can fly aircraft or assume command of a vessel.

Enlisted Aviation Warfare Specialist (EAWS)

The EAWS qualification certifies that Navy enlisted personnel have demonstrated comprehensive knowledge of naval aviation operations, including aircraft systems, safety, maintenance, ordnance, and aviation heritage. It is a prerequisite for senior enlisted sailors assigned to aviation commands.

100

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90 min

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