Mixed Deck — All DVM Topics Flashcards

Prolonged diestrus (persistent corpus luteum) in mares is characterized by:

Answer: Failure of the CL to regress beyond the normal luteal phase, with sustained progesterone suppressing estrus

Persistent CL in mares occurs when normal PGF2α-mediated luteolysis fails, often following early embryonic death, resulting in persistently elevated progesterone and behavioral anestrus.

A 10-year-old Cavalier King Charles Spaniel with known degenerative mitral valve disease presents with an acute onset of coughing and a respiratory rate of 80 breaths/min. Radiographs confirm cardiogenic pulmonary edema. In addition to oxygen therapy, which of the following drugs is most critical for immediate intravenous administration to reduce preload and alleviate the edema?

Answer: Furosemide

Furosemide is a potent loop diuretic that acts quickly to promote diuresis, which reduces circulating blood volume and venous pressure (preload). This action directly alleviates the fluid accumulation in the lungs (pulmonary edema) characteristic of acute congestive heart failure. While pimobendan and enalapril are crucial for long-term management, furosemide provides the most immediate and life-saving relief in this acute crisis. Spironolactone is a much weaker, potassium-sparing diuretic used for chronic management.

A swine herd shows signs of sneezing, nasal discharge, and facial deformity in young pigs. Which pathogen is the primary cause of atrophic rhinitis?

Answer: Pasteurella multocida toxigenic strains

Toxigenic strains of Pasteurella multocida produce a dermonecrotic toxin causing turbinate atrophy and facial deformity in progressive atrophic rhinitis.

A 6-year-old, spayed female Labrador Retriever is diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. The owner has started insulin therapy. Which clinical sign is the most reliable indicator for the owner to monitor at home to assess for hypoglycemia?

Answer: Lethargy, weakness, or ataxia

Lethargy, weakness, ataxia, and in severe cases, seizures, are classic clinical signs of hypoglycemia (low blood sugar) resulting from an insulin overdose. While polyuria, polydipsia, and weight loss are signs of uncontrolled diabetes (hyperglycemia), they are not indicative of an acute hypoglycemic event. An increased appetite can be seen with both hyperglycemia and early hypoglycemia, but weakness and neurologic signs are more specific and urgent indicators of low blood glucose.

A dog has a prolonged APTT with a normal PT. Which coagulation factor deficiency is most consistent with this pattern?

Answer: Factor VIII deficiency (hemophilia A)

Factor VIII is part of the intrinsic pathway (measured by APTT only), so its deficiency prolongs APTT while PT remains normal.

A llama presents with a 2-week history of depression, anorexia, and progressive neurologic signs including ataxia and facial nerve paralysis. Listeria monocytogenes is suspected. Which antimicrobial is the drug of choice?

Answer: Penicillin G at high doses

High-dose penicillin G is the drug of choice for listeriosis in ruminants and camelids, as Listeria monocytogenes is reliably susceptible and penicillin penetrates the CNS adequately at high doses.

A caprine blood smear shows Heinz bodies on new methylene blue stain. Which toxin is most commonly responsible in goats?

Answer: Copper

Copper toxicity in small ruminants causes oxidative damage to hemoglobin, forming Heinz bodies and leading to intravascular hemolytic crisis.

In the context of biosecurity, what does 'biocontainment' specifically refer to?

Answer: Preventing pathogens already present within a facility from spreading outward

Biocontainment refers to measures that prevent pathogens already present within a facility from spreading to other animals, farms, or regions.

Which epidemiological measure describes the probability that an animal without disease will develop disease during a specific time period?

Answer: Cumulative incidence (risk)

Cumulative incidence (risk) is the proportion of disease-free animals that develop disease during a defined time period, expressed as a probability.

Bovine tuberculosis (Mycobacterium bovis) is primarily controlled in US cattle herds through which regulatory program?

Answer: Federal-state cooperative test-and-slaughter program

The US bovine TB eradication program relies on the caudal fold tuberculin test (CFT) with slaughter of reactor animals and traceback investigations under federal-state cooperative authority.

A 2-year-old male Boer goat presents for stranguria and vocalization. You perform a urethral process amputation, which successfully relieves the obstruction. However, the goat re-obstructs 24 hours later. The owner wants to pursue further treatment for this valued pet. What is the most appropriate surgical option to provide long-term patency?

Answer: Tube cystostomy.

A tube cystostomy is considered the gold standard for treating recurrent obstructive urolithiasis in small ruminants intended to be kept long-term. It diverts urine flow, allowing the urethra to heal and small calculi to pass without causing obstruction. A perineal urethrostomy is a salvage procedure often complicated by stricture, and bladder marsupialization has a high rate of ascending infection and urine scald.

PPR disease causes high mortality and is more severe than

Answer: Goats

Peste des Petits Ruminants (PPR), also known as sheep and goat plague, is a highly contagious viral disease primarily affecting small ruminants. While both sheep and goats can be infected, the disease is generally more severe and causes higher mortality rates in goats compared to sheep. This difference in susceptibility is a key epidemiological characteristic of PPR.

Which one is a veterinary assistant responsible for?

Answer: Provide care for before and after surgery and other procedures

Veterinary assistants provide crucial support to veterinarians and veterinary technicians, often handling basic care and administrative duties. Their responsibilities include preparing animals for procedures, monitoring them during recovery, and ensuring their comfort and cleanliness before and after surgery or other medical interventions.

Which reticulocyte response indicates adequate regeneration following acute hemorrhage in a dog?

Answer: Absolute reticulocyte count >80,000/µL

An absolute reticulocyte count above 80,000/µL is generally considered indicative of an adequate regenerative response in dogs.

During equine anesthesia, post-anesthetic myopathy most commonly affects muscles that are:

Answer: Compressed and hypoperfused in the dependent position

Post-anesthetic myopathy results from ischemia in dependent muscles subjected to prolonged compression and hypoperfusion during recumbency.

A dog bite wound from a bat found in a bedroom warrants immediate consideration of rabies post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) for the human involved primarily because:

Answer: Bats are the most common source of rabies exposure in the US and their bites may not be perceived

Bats account for the majority of human rabies deaths in the US because their bites are small and may not be recognized, and because certain situations (sleeping person, bat in room) suggest possible undetected exposure.

Which spinal cord lesion localization is consistent with a dog showing normal thoracic limb function but spastic paraplegia and absent conscious proprioception in pelvic limbs?

Answer: T3-L3

A T3-L3 lesion produces an upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion of the pelvic limbs, causing spastic paresis/paralysis with intact thoracic limb function.

Which reversal agent is used to antagonize the sedative and cardiovascular effects of medetomidine in dogs?

Answer: Atipamezole

Atipamezole is a selective alpha-2 adrenergic antagonist used to reverse medetomidine and dexmedetomidine sedation and bradycardia.

A fine-needle aspirate is performed on a subcutaneous mass from a dog. Which of the following cytologic features is most definitive for a diagnosis of malignancy?

Answer: The presence of prominent anisokaryosis and multiple, variably sized nucleoli.

While inflammation can cause some reactive cellular changes, the presence of marked variation in nuclear size (anisokaryosis), and multiple, large, or variably shaped nucleoli are considered strong criteria of malignancy. These features suggest uncontrolled and abnormal cell division.

Which zoonotic parasite is responsible for causing visceral larva migrans in children and is most commonly associated with dogs?

Answer: Toxocara canis

Toxocara canis larvae cause visceral larva migrans when ingested by children, migrating through visceral organs including the liver, lungs, and eyes.