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General Practice Flashcards

7 cards from real DVM practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning โ€” missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 General Practice flashcards as text
  1. A rabbit is presented with acute torticollis, rolling, and nystagmus. No ear discharge is noted. Which organism is the most common cause of encephalitozoonosis in rabbits?

    Answer: Encephalitozoon cuniculi

    Encephalitozoon cuniculi is the most common cause of vestibular disease and neurological signs in rabbits, transmitted via urine of infected animals.

  2. Which analgesic is contraindicated in cats due to their deficiency in glucuronyl transferase enzymes and risk of fatal toxicity?

    Answer: Acetaminophen

    Cats lack adequate glucuronyl transferase to metabolize acetaminophen, leading to methemoglobinemia, hepatotoxicity, and death at doses safe for other species.

  3. During a wellness exam, you detect a grade III/VI left basilar systolic heart murmur in a 6-year-old Doberman Pinscher. Which condition is this breed most predisposed to?

    Answer: Dilated cardiomyopathy

    Doberman Pinschers have a genetic predisposition to dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM), which can present with arrhythmias and congestive heart failure.

  4. A goat kid 3 days old presents with watery diarrhea and weakness. Fecal ELISA is positive for rotavirus. What is the most critical supportive treatment?

    Answer: Oral electrolyte fluid therapy

    Viral neonatal diarrhea causes severe dehydration and electrolyte imbalances; oral electrolyte replacement is the cornerstone of treatment since antibiotics are ineffective against viruses.

  5. A ferret presents with alopecia starting at the tail and progressing cranially, lethargy, and vulvar swelling in a spayed female. Which condition is most likely?

    Answer: Adrenocortical disease

    Adrenocortical disease is the most common endocrine disorder in ferrets, causing estrogen excess that leads to alopecia, pruritus, and vulvar swelling in females.

  6. Which of the following is the correct dosing frequency for melarsomine dihydrochloride (Immiticide) using the split-dose protocol for heartworm treatment in dogs?

    Answer: One injection, rest 30 days, then two injections 24 hours apart

    The AHS-recommended split-dose protocol involves one IM injection, a 30-day rest, then two injections 24 hours apart to reduce the risk of pulmonary thromboembolic complications.

  7. A 2-year-old intact male dog presents with bilateral testicular asymmetry; one testicle is firm and enlarged. Cytology of the mass shows round cells with abundant pale cytoplasm and prominent nucleoli. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Seminoma

    Seminomas arise from germ cells and are characterized by sheets of uniform round cells on cytology; they are the second most common testicular tumor in dogs.

General Practice Flashcards โ€” DVM Study Cards with Answers