Anesthesia and Pain Management Flashcards
7 cards from real DVM practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning โ missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Anesthesia and Pain Management flashcards as text
Which inhalant anesthetic agent has the LOWEST blood-gas partition coefficient among those currently used in veterinary medicine?
Answer: Desflurane
Desflurane has the lowest blood-gas partition coefficient (0.42), resulting in the fastest induction and recovery, though it is rarely used in veterinary practice.
A goat is anesthetized for rumenotomy. Which unique physiologic concern requires special positioning and management?
Answer: Regurgitation and aspiration due to forestomach contents
Ruminants are highly prone to regurgitation and passive reflux under anesthesia; head elevation and rapid intubation with a cuffed tube are essential to prevent aspiration.
Which analgesic modality is MOST appropriate for managing chronic osteoarthritis pain in a senior dog with concurrent renal insufficiency?
Answer: Gabapentin as an adjunct analgesic
Gabapentin is renally excreted but is generally safer than NSAIDs in patients with renal insufficiency; NSAIDs reduce renal prostaglandins and can worsen renal function.
During an isoflurane anesthetic in a cat, the vaporizer dial reads 2.5% but the EtCO2 is 60 mmHg. What is the MOST appropriate immediate intervention?
Answer: Manually ventilate or increase ventilator rate to correct hypoventilation
EtCO2 of 60 mmHg indicates hypoventilation; the correct response is to assist or control ventilation to normalize CO2, not to change anesthetic depth.
What is the PRIMARY reason acepromazine is contraindicated as the sole sedative in a dog with suspected pheochromocytoma?
Answer: It blocks alpha-1 receptors, causing vasodilation that unmasks catecholamine hypertension
Acepromazine's alpha-1 blockade can precipitate a hypertensive crisis in pheochromocytoma patients by unmasking the unopposed beta-adrenergic effects of catecholamine surges.
A 12-year-old dog with mitral valve disease (MMVD) requires anesthesia for tooth extraction. Which induction protocol is MOST appropriate?
Answer: Propofol IV titrated to effect after premedication
Propofol titrated IV allows careful dose adjustment to minimize cardiovascular depression in a compromised patient; mask induction causes stress and uncontrolled changes in depth.
Which statement BEST describes the concept of 'preemptive analgesia' in veterinary pain management?
Answer: Providing analgesia before a noxious stimulus to reduce central sensitization and postoperative pain
Preemptive analgesia involves giving analgesics before a painful stimulus to prevent wind-up and central sensitization, resulting in lower postoperative pain scores.