DVM Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield DVM facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Q fever is caused by which organism, and what is its primary transmission route to humans in veterinary settings? → Coxiella burnetii via inhalation of contaminated aerosols during parturition
2. In reptiles, the preferred site for intramuscular (IM) injection to avoid the renal portal system is: → Forelimb musculature
3. Which serological test format produces the fewest false positives in a population with low disease prevalence? → A test with high specificity (>99%) applied to a low-prevalence population
4. Which suture material is most appropriate for closing the uterine incision during a bovine caesarean section? → Chromic catgut in a Lembert pattern
5. A dog presents with a PCV of 18% and marked spherocytosis on blood smear. Which Coombs test result would confirm immune-mediated hemolytic anemia? → Positive direct Coombs
6. Which approach is preferred for surgical repair of a fractured third metacarpus in a horse intended for return to performance? → Internal fixation with dynamic compression plates and screws
7. Which local anesthetic has the LONGEST duration of action when used for a peripheral nerve block? → Bupivacaine
8. A veterinarian identifies a reportable foreign animal disease suspicion on a farm. What is the FIRST action they should take? → Contact the state veterinarian or USDA APHIS immediately and quarantine the premises
9. Antimicrobial stewardship in veterinary medicine requires that extra-label drug use (ELDU) in food animals must NEVER include which class of antimicrobials? → Fluoroquinolones in food-producing animals (except as labeled)
10. Which parameter best reflects the minimum alveolar concentration (MAC) needed to prevent movement in 50% of patients exposed to a painful stimulus? → Alveolar partial pressure at steady state
11. A dairy farm worker develops flu-like symptoms, hepatitis, and endocarditis weeks after exposure to parturient cattle. The most likely zoonotic diagnosis is: → Q fever (Coxiella burnetii)
12. Which opioid is most appropriate for epidural analgesia in dogs due to its hydrophilicity and prolonged duration of action? → Morphine
13. Which ligament must be transected during a standing bovine caesarean section via the left paralumbar flank? → Broad ligament of the uterus
14. In cattle, fertilization normally occurs at the: → Ampullary-isthmic junction of the uterine tube (oviduct)
15. What is the mechanism by which NSAIDs provide analgesia in veterinary patients? → Inhibition of cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes reducing prostaglandin synthesis
16. Psittacosis in humans is caused by Chlamydia psittaci. Which group of workers is at highest occupational risk? → Pet bird owners, aviary workers, and poultry processing plant employees
17. Which anesthetic drug combination is most commonly used for total intravenous anesthesia (TIVA) in standing equine procedures? → Detomidine-butorphanol-ketamine (triple drip)
18. Which one is a veterinary assistant responsible for? → Provide care for before and after surgery and other procedures
19. A goat kid 3 days old presents with watery diarrhea and weakness. Fecal ELISA is positive for rotavirus. What is the most critical supportive treatment? → Oral electrolyte fluid therapy
20. Which statistical test is most appropriate for comparing the means of three or more independent groups in a veterinary clinical study? → One-way ANOVA
21. When does a dog go into estrus? → Between 4-21 days with a mean of 19 days
22. A bovine blood sample shows a fibrinogen concentration of 900 mg/dL (reference 200–400 mg/dL). Which condition is most consistent with this finding? → Acute inflammation or infection
23. Wound closure by second intention (healing by granulation) is most appropriate for which of the following scenarios in a dog? → A heavily contaminated degloving injury of the distal limb
24. Which nerve is most commonly damaged during dystocia in cattle, resulting in the cow being unable to extend the hind limb and knuckling at the fetlock? → Peroneal (fibular) nerve
25. What is the primary husbandry recommendation to prevent stasis (GI hypomotility) in guinea pigs? → Unlimited access to hay
26. The definitive diagnosis of diabetes mellitus in a dog requires the presence of which of the following findings? → Persistent fasting hyperglycemia and glycosuria
27. How long does it take to become a veterinarian? → 7-9 years
28. What is the most common cause of dysecdysis (retained shed) in snakes? → Inadequate environmental humidity
29. What is the significance of the 'eclipse period' in the replication cycle of a virus? → Period when no intact virions are detectable inside the cell
30. Which fish disease caused by Ichthyophthirius multifiliis appears as white spots on the skin and gills? → White spot disease (Ich)