DRE Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield DRE facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. A DRE subject has an elevated body temperature of 103°F, muscle rigidity, and extremely dilated pupils. This constellation of signs MOST suggests: → Stimulant toxicity or serotonin syndrome
2. Which tool does the DRE protocol recommend to objectively document pupil size as part of risk and impairment assessment? → A pupilometer or pupil size gauge card
3. From a QA standpoint, why is it important that a DRE NOT know the subject's BAC before completing the 12-step evaluation? → Prior knowledge of BAC can create confirmation bias that distorts clinical observations
4. A urine immunoassay screening test that returns a positive result must then undergo which step before being admissible in court? → GC-MS confirmatory testing
5. Which of the following is NOT one of the seven drug categories recognized in the DRE program? → Antidepressants
6. Which organization partners with NHTSA to administer the International Drug Evaluation and Classification Program and maintain DRE standards? → International Association of Chiefs of Police (IACP)
7. A DRE program's QA policy requires supervisors to review 100% of DIRs within 72 hours of submission. This policy PRIMARILY addresses which QA goal? → Ensuring timely error detection and feedback while the evaluation is still fresh
8. A subject's pupils measure 8.0 mm in near-total darkness. Under the DRE pupil size scale, this measurement is classified as: → Dilated
9. When completing a DRE Drug Influence Evaluation Report, at what point should the evaluating officer record the subject's statements? → Contemporaneously during or immediately after each phase
10. Which step in the 12-step DRE protocol involves the DRE forming a preliminary opinion BEFORE conducting the full examination? → Step 5: Preliminary Examination and First Pulse
11. During the HGN test, the DRE observes that the subject's eyes cannot follow a stimulus smoothly. This lack of smooth pursuit is indicative of: → Nystagmus caused by CNS depressant or dissociative anesthetic use
12. What is the correct order for administering the three divided attention field sobriety tests in a DRE evaluation? → Romberg, Walk-and-Turn, One-Leg-Stand
13. A DRE officer discovers during an evaluation that the suspect is a personal acquaintance. What is the most appropriate action? → Recuse yourself and request another qualified DRE officer
14. Why are vital signs recorded during the DRE evaluation? → To identify physiological signs of drug use
15. Maintaining the chain of custody for toxicological samples is essential primarily to: → Ensure the sample's integrity and admissibility in court
16. PCP (phencyclidine) belongs to which of the seven DRE drug categories? → Dissociative Anesthetics
17. When a DRE forms an opinion that a subject is impaired but the toxicology screen returns negative, the DRE should: → Document the disparity and consider whether the drug may not be detected by the panel used
18. A DRE report shows horizontal gaze nystagmus (HGN) onset before 45 degrees but the officer opined CNS stimulant impairment. Why is this report data problematic? → HGN is a primary indicator of CNS depressants or inhalants, not stimulants
19. When assessing muscle tone during the DRE evaluation, the examiner flexes and extends the subject's arm at the elbow. What does 'lead-pipe rigidity' suggest? → Dissociative anesthetic or stimulant influence
20. When risk-assessing a subject impaired by hallucinogens, which hazard is most uniquely associated with this drug category? → Unpredictable behavior from perceptual distortions and panic
21. A DRE officer is called to evaluate a suspect in a jurisdiction where they are not certified. What must the officer do? → Decline and advise that a certified local DRE should be summoned
22. A DRE is aware that a colleague submitted a falsified evaluation report. What is the ethical obligation? → Report the misconduct through proper agency channels immediately
23. A DRE is asked to speak at a community town hall about drugged driving. The most effective message to convey is: → How the DRE program identifies impaired drivers and contributes to community road safety
24. Which drug category is characterized by elevated pulse but DECREASED blood pressure, along with red eyes and an odor of the substance? → Cannabis
25. What is the legal significance of a DRE completing all 12 steps of the evaluation protocol before rendering an opinion? → It establishes methodological completeness supporting admissibility and credibility
26. From a risk management perspective, why must a DRE officer document the time of each evaluation step? → To track drug absorption and elimination timelines affecting risk levels
27. If a subject invokes the right to counsel during the DRE evaluation, the officer must: → Immediately cease questioning and allow attorney access
28. Which U.S. Supreme Court case established that a blood draw without a warrant could violate the Fourth Amendment in DUI cases? → Missouri v. McNeely
29. Which risk factor most significantly elevates danger during a DRE evaluation of a subject suspected of using multiple CNS depressants? → Synergistic respiratory depression exceeding that of any single drug
30. A DRE officer discovers that a fellow officer misrepresented DRE findings in a report. The correct course of action is to: → Report the discrepancy through proper supervisory channels