Mixed Deck — All DPT Topics Flashcards

A physical therapist is using the talk test to monitor exercise intensity. At which intensity level does the talk test become positive (inability to speak in full sentences)?

Answer: At the ventilatory threshold (anaerobic threshold)

The talk test becomes positive (patient cannot comfortably speak in full sentences) at approximately the ventilatory threshold, marking the transition to higher-intensity exercise.

A patient reports increased pain 24 hours after ultrasound treatment to the Achilles tendon. The most likely cause is:

Answer: Excessive thermal effects from continuous mode at high intensity

Continuous ultrasound at high intensity over a superficial tendon can generate excessive heat, causing delayed inflammatory pain flare-up.

A patient with hemiplegia is being treated using the Bobath (NDT) approach. The concept of 'key points of control' refers to:

Answer: Proximal body segments used to influence distal tone and movement patterns

NDT key points of control are proximal body regions (e.g., shoulder girdle, pelvis) through which the therapist can modulate tone and facilitate normal movement distally.

What is hypothesis testing in clinical reasoning?

Answer: Formulating and testing explanations

Hypothesis testing in clinical reasoning involves generating potential explanations or diagnoses for a patient's symptoms and then systematically gathering and evaluating further information to confirm or refute these hypotheses. This iterative process helps clinicians narrow down possibilities and arrive at the most accurate diagnosis and effective treatment plan. It's a structured approach to problem-solving in a clinical context.

Which outcome measure best assesses functional response to electrotherapy for chronic low back pain?

Answer: Oswestry Disability Index (ODI) before and after treatment course

The ODI measures functional disability across daily activities and is validated for tracking meaningful change in chronic low back pain management.

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate initial intervention for acute CRPS (Complex Regional Pain Syndrome) Type I of the upper extremity?

Answer: Graded motor imagery and desensitization

Graded motor imagery and desensitization are first-line PT interventions for CRPS, targeting central sensitization without provoking pain flares.

When palpating the posterior superior iliac spine (PSIS) during the standing flexion test, the PSIS on the right rises higher. This suggests:

Answer: Right sacroiliac joint restriction

The moving PSIS (right) suggests the sacroiliac joint on that side is restricted and 'drags' the innominate superiorly during lumbar flexion.

When applying iontophoresis for lateral epicondylitis, which ion polarity should dexamethasone be placed under?

Answer: Negative pole (cathode)

Dexamethasone carries a negative charge and must be placed under the cathode (negative pole) for effective iontophoretic delivery.

A 70-year-old presents with sudden onset of severe unilateral facial droop, arm weakness, and slurred speech. The PT's FIRST action should be:

Answer: Call 911 immediately

These signs are a medical emergency consistent with stroke; the PT must activate emergency services immediately before any further assessment.

Which taping technique is designed to facilitate muscle activation by lifting the skin to improve lymphatic drainage and reduce pain?

Answer: Kinesio taping

Kinesio taping uses elastic tape applied with specific tensions to lift skin, reducing pressure on lymphatic channels and mechanoreceptors.

What is neuromuscular reeducation?

Answer: Movement and coordination training

Neuromuscular reeducation focuses on retraining the communication between the brain and muscles to restore normal movement patterns, balance, coordination, and posture. This type of training helps patients regain control over their movements, especially after neurological injuries or conditions, by improving muscle activation and sensory feedback. It's essential for relearning efficient and safe movement.

A PT is evaluating a patient referred for shoulder impingement. During cervical screening, the Spurling's test reproduces the patient's shoulder symptoms. What clinical reasoning action is MOST appropriate?

Answer: Revise the working hypothesis to include cervical radiculopathy as a contributing or alternative diagnosis

A positive Spurling's test reproducing shoulder symptoms shifts the hypothesis toward cervical radiculopathy as a driver of apparent shoulder pain.

In adolescent idiopathic scoliosis (AIS), which brace is the standard of care for curves between 25–40 degrees, worn approximately 23 hours per day?

Answer: Boston TLSO (underarm brace)

The Boston TLSO is the most widely used and evidence-supported full-time brace for AIS curves in the 25–40° range, with studies including the BrAIST trial confirming its effectiveness.

What is the most effective way to measure success in geriatric rehabilitation within DPT professional practice?

Answer: Use a combination of quantitative metrics, qualitative assessments, and stakeholder feedback aligned with defined objectives

Effective measurement combines multiple data sources — quantitative metrics, qualitative assessments, and stakeholder feedback — all aligned with clearly defined objectives for a comprehensive evaluation.

Which factor is the STRONGEST independent predictor of functional decline following hospitalization in older adults?

Answer: Pre-hospital functional status

Pre-hospital functional status is the strongest independent predictor of post-hospitalization functional outcomes, superseding age and diagnosis severity.

What is the most effective way to measure success in pediatric physical therapy within DPT professional practice?

Answer: Use a combination of quantitative metrics, qualitative assessments, and stakeholder feedback aligned with defined objectives

Effective measurement combines multiple data sources — quantitative metrics, qualitative assessments, and stakeholder feedback — all aligned with clearly defined objectives for a comprehensive evaluation.

A child with sensory processing disorder shows gravitational insecurity. Which activity would MOST likely provoke distress for this child?

Answer: Being tilted backward in a tilt-in-space wheelchair or on a therapy swing

Gravitational insecurity is an excessive fear of movement relative to gravity, particularly triggered by having feet off the ground or being tilted.

A patient with Huntington's disease presents with involuntary choreiform movements. Which movement strategy should be incorporated into gait training to improve safety?

Answer: Use rhythmic cueing and slow the pace of movement to reduce amplitude of choreiform interference

Rhythmic cueing and a controlled, slower pace reduce the functional impact of chorea during ambulation by imposing temporal structure on movement and minimizing interference with gait.

A 79-year-old male with Parkinson's disease exhibits festinating gait. Which cueing strategy is MOST effective for improving gait in this patient?

Answer: Auditory rhythmic cueing using a metronome

Auditory rhythmic cueing (e.g., metronome) bypasses defective basal ganglia timing circuits by providing an external rhythm that improves stride length and cadence in Parkinson's disease.

During assessment of a patient with cerebellar ataxia, which finding is MOST characteristic of dysmetria?

Answer: Overshoot and correction during finger-to-nose testing

Dysmetria is characterized by errors in movement endpoint accuracy, typically seen as overshoot (past-pointing) followed by corrective oscillations during the finger-to-nose test.