DPSST Emergency Services 2 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Under DPSST standards, what is the primary purpose of an Incident Action Plan (IAP) in emergency operations?
- To document post-incident critiques
- To communicate objectives and assignments for each operational period (Correct answer)
- To request mutual aid from neighboring jurisdictions
- To record personnel hours for payroll
Correct answer: To communicate objectives and assignments for each operational period
An IAP communicates strategic goals, tactical objectives, and resource assignments for each operational period under ICS.
Question 2: Which NIMS principle requires that a single supervisor manage no more than seven subordinates during an incident?
- Unity of Command
- Span of Control (Correct answer)
- Modular Organization
- Accountability
Correct answer: Span of Control
Span of Control under NIMS/ICS recommends one supervisor oversee three to seven personnel, with five being optimal.
Question 3: A first responder arrives at a structure fire and notices the roof is sagging. What is the correct immediate action?
- Proceed with interior attack using two hoselines
- Notify the IC and establish a collapse zone (Correct answer)
- Wait for the fire investigator before taking action
- Vent the roof to reduce heat buildup
Correct answer: Notify the IC and establish a collapse zone
A sagging roof indicates imminent structural collapse; the responder must notify the Incident Commander and establish a collapse zone for safety.
Question 4: In Oregon, which agency is responsible for certifying Emergency Medical Technicians (EMTs) under DPSST-affiliated standards?
- Oregon Department of Transportation
- Oregon Health Authority (Correct answer)
- Oregon State Police
- Oregon Office of Emergency Management
Correct answer: Oregon Health Authority
The Oregon Health Authority oversees EMS certification, including EMT credentialing, in coordination with state public safety standards.
Question 5: What does the term 'hot zone' refer to in a hazardous materials incident?
- Area where command post is established
- Exclusion zone immediately surrounding the release point (Correct answer)
- Zone where decontamination occurs
- Area reserved for media and observers
Correct answer: Exclusion zone immediately surrounding the release point
The hot zone (exclusion zone) is the area of highest contamination risk directly around the hazmat release, requiring full PPE for entry.
Question 6: During a mass casualty incident (MCI), START triage classifies a victim who is breathing, has a radial pulse, and follows commands as which category?
- Immediate (Red)
- Delayed (Green)
- Minor (Green) — walking wounded
- Delayed (Yellow) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Delayed (Yellow)
Under START triage, a victim who breathes spontaneously, has a radial pulse, and obeys commands is classified Delayed (Yellow), meaning not immediately life-threatening.
Question 7: When establishing a unified command at a multi-agency incident, who participates in the unified command structure?
- Only the agency with the largest number of personnel on scene
- Representatives from each agency that has jurisdictional authority or functional responsibility (Correct answer)
- The first agency to arrive at the incident
- Only agencies providing mutual aid resources
Correct answer: Representatives from each agency that has jurisdictional authority or functional responsibility
Unified command includes representatives from all agencies with jurisdictional authority or functional responsibility, enabling coordinated decision-making.
DPSST Emergency Services 2
Under DPSST standards, what is the primary purpose of an Incident Action Plan (IAP) in emergency operations?