DPM Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield DPM facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Chronic venous insufficiency characteristically produces skin changes known as: → Atrophie blanche and lipodermatosclerosis around the medial malleolus
2. Which pathogen is most commonly associated with plantar warts? → Human papillomavirus
3. Which standard of practice is MOST important for ensuring quality in Orthotic Device Prescription? → Following evidence-based protocols while adapting to specific circumstances
4. Which local anesthetic has the longest duration of action? → Bupivacaine
5. What is 'turf toe' in athletic injuries? → Hyperextension sprain of the first metatarsophalangeal joint
6. In Dermatological Conditions of the Foot, what is the FIRST step a DPM professional should take when encountering a new case or situation? → Conduct a comprehensive assessment and gather all relevant information
7. What is the most common benign soft tissue tumor found in the foot? → Lipoma
8. What is the PRIMARY purpose of continuing education requirements in Dermatological Conditions of the Foot for DPM professionals? → Maintaining current knowledge and competency as the field evolves
9. Peroneal tendon subluxation is typically caused by injury to which structure? → Superior peroneal retinaculum
10. What is the preferred initial management for a first-time mild lateral ankle sprain? → PRICE protocol and early functional rehabilitation
11. Metatarsus adductus is best described as: → Medial deviation of the forefoot relative to the hindfoot
12. An ABI value greater than 1.3 in a diabetic patient suggests: → Non-compressible calcified vessels giving falsely elevated readings
13. The most common cause of in-toeing gait in children aged 3–10 years is: → Femoral anteversion
14. Which phase of gait is most associated with maximum ankle dorsiflexion? → Midstance
15. In peripheral arterial disease, which lifestyle modification has the strongest evidence for improving walking distance? → Supervised aerobic exercise therapy
16. Which condition is characterized by pain at the posterior insertion of the Achilles tendon with a palpable bump at the heel? → Haglund's deformity
17. Which imaging modality is best for evaluating a suspected stress fracture not visible on plain radiograph? → MRI
18. In Foot & Ankle Anatomy, what is the FIRST step a DPM professional should take when encountering a new case or situation? → Conduct a comprehensive assessment and gather all relevant information
19. Which of the following is a hallmark microscopic finding in gouty arthritis affecting the toe joints? → Monosodium urate crystals
20. What is Charcot-Marie-Tooth (CMT) disease? → An inherited peripheral neuropathy causing distal muscle weakness and sensory loss
21. Polydactyly of the foot most commonly involves extra digits on which side? → Lateral (postaxial/fibular) side
22. Which type of nerve fiber is first affected in diabetic peripheral neuropathy? → Small unmyelinated C fibers and Aδ fibers
23. Sever's disease (calcaneal apophysitis) most commonly presents in which age group? → 8–14 years
24. Which class of antibiotics is most commonly used to treat diabetic foot infections? → Beta-lactams
25. Which medication is best for acute gout attacks? → Colchicine
26. Which treatment method is considered the gold standard first-line approach for congenital talipes equinovarus (clubfoot)? → Ponseti casting method
27. Which standard of practice is MOST important for ensuring quality in Diabetic Foot Care & Management? → Following evidence-based protocols while adapting to specific circumstances
28. Which finding on weight-bearing radiograph is the key diagnostic sign of a Lisfranc injury? → Widening between the first and second metatarsal bases
29. What grade of lateral ankle sprain involves a complete tear of all three lateral ligaments? → Grade III
30. What is the primary concern when treating plantar fasciitis with corticosteroid injection? → Plantar fascia rupture and fat pad atrophy