DPM Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield DPM facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Chronic venous insufficiency characteristically produces skin changes known as: → Atrophie blanche and lipodermatosclerosis around the medial malleolus
2. When applying a four-layer compression bandage system for a venous leg ulcer, what is the target compression pressure at the ankle? → 35–40 mmHg
3. Which osteotomy is indicated to correct isolated hallux valgus interphalangeus (HVI) deformity? → Akin osteotomy (medial closing wedge proximal phalangeal osteotomy)
4. Which pathogen is most commonly associated with plantar warts? → Human papillomavirus
5. Which standard of practice is MOST important for ensuring quality in Orthotic Device Prescription? → Following evidence-based protocols while adapting to specific circumstances
6. Which dermatophyte species is most commonly responsible for tinea pedis (athlete's foot) in the United States? → Trichophyton rubrum
7. The 'apparent leg length discrepancy' most commonly results from: → Pelvic obliquity or soft tissue contracture
8. In orthotic prescription, what does the term 'Blake inverted orthosis' refer to? → An orthosis cast in maximum supination to create a high-degree varus correction
9. Hallux limitus is defined as restricted dorsiflexion of the first MTP joint. What minimum dorsiflexion angle is generally required for normal propulsive gait? → 45–65 degrees
10. In peripheral arterial disease of the lower extremity, which pathological process primarily underlies atherosclerotic plaque formation? → Subintimal lipid deposition with foam cell accumulation and fibrous cap formation
11. Which systemic antifungal used for severe nail or skin fungal infections inhibits lanosterol 14-alpha-demethylase (CYP51) in fungi? → Itraconazole
12. Erythrasma of the toe webs is caused by which organism? → Corynebacterium minutissimum
13. Steppage gait is most commonly associated with weakness of which muscle group? → Ankle dorsiflexors
14. Which feature distinguishes a UCBL (University of California Biomechanics Laboratory) orthosis from a standard functional foot orthosis? → It extends to the malleoli with trimlines at the medial and lateral borders
15. Which local anesthetic has the longest duration of action? → Bupivacaine
16. A 'Harris-Beath' axial calcaneal view is most useful for evaluating: → Subtalar joint facets and calcaneal varus/valgus deformity
17. What is 'turf toe' in athletic injuries? → Hyperextension sprain of the first metatarsophalangeal joint
18. A patient presents with a venous leg ulcer covered in fibrinous slough. Which debridement method is most appropriate if the patient cannot tolerate pain? → Autolytic debridement with a hydrogel
19. In Dermatological Conditions of the Foot, what is the FIRST step a DPM professional should take when encountering a new case or situation? → Conduct a comprehensive assessment and gather all relevant information
20. What is the most common benign soft tissue tumor found in the foot? → Lipoma
21. The deltoid ligament of the medial ankle is divided into superficial and deep components; which structure does the deep component primarily resist? → Lateral translation and external rotation of talus
22. On plain radiograph, Freiberg's infraction most commonly affects which metatarsal head? → Second
23. A diabetic patient requires local anesthesia for a minor foot procedure. Which local anesthetic has the LONGEST duration of action? → Bupivacaine
24. On CT, which finding is most specific for Lisfranc ligament disruption after midfoot trauma? → Plantar avulsion chip fracture at the base of the second metatarsal
25. Subungual melanoma of the hallux most commonly presents as: → Longitudinal melanonychia with Hutchinson's sign
26. What is the PRIMARY purpose of continuing education requirements in Dermatological Conditions of the Foot for DPM professionals? → Maintaining current knowledge and competency as the field evolves
27. Peroneal tendon subluxation is typically caused by injury to which structure? → Superior peroneal retinaculum
28. Root's criteria for a 'normal' subtalar joint neutral position includes the forefoot being: → Perpendicular to the bisection of the posterior calcaneus
29. Which axis of the subtalar joint is most accurately described? → 42 degrees from the horizontal and 16 degrees from the sagittal plane
30. The os trigonum, when present, is a separate ossicle posterior to the talus at which process? → Posterior talar process (Stieda's process)