Diagnosis & Treatment Planning Flashcards

Per ADA/FDA radiographic selection guidelines, what is the recommended posterior bitewing interval for an adult recall patient with no clinical caries and low caries risk?

Answer: 24-36 months

Low-risk adult recall patients should receive posterior bitewings every 24-36 months.

Under the 2017 AAP/EFP classification, a patient with 3-4 mm interdental CAL, maximum probing depth of 5 mm, and no tooth loss due to periodontitis is staged as:

Answer: Stage II

Stage II is defined by 3-4 mm interdental CAL, probing depth up to 5 mm, and no periodontal tooth loss.

Which finding directly assigns Grade C (rapid progression) in the 2017 periodontitis classification?

Answer: Percent bone loss divided by age greater than 1.0

A %bone loss/age ratio greater than 1.0 indicates Grade C rapid progression.

In CAMBRA, which finding is a disease indicator that automatically places a patient at high caries risk?

Answer: Radiographic lesion penetrating into dentin

Cavitations or radiographic lesions into dentin are disease indicators signifying high caries risk.

A low-risk adult has a non-cavitated smooth-surface enamel lesion (ICDAS code 2). What is the most appropriate management?

Answer: Professional fluoride varnish and monitoring

Non-cavitated enamel lesions are managed non-invasively with remineralization and monitoring.

Which imaging modality is best for evaluating the three-dimensional relationship of an impacted mandibular third molar to the inferior alveolar canal when panoramic signs suggest proximity?

Answer: Cone-beam CT

CBCT provides cross-sectional 3D views of the root-canal relationship.

A Nabers probe enters a furcation horizontally but does not pass through to the opposite side. This is classified as Glickman:

Answer: Grade II

Grade II involves partial horizontal bone loss forming a cul-de-sac without through-and-through communication.