DHA Nursing Licensing Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Which antidote is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression?

Atropine
Flumazenil
Naloxone (Narcan) (Correct answer)
Protamine sulphate

Correct answer: Naloxone (Narcan)

Naloxone is a competitive opioid receptor antagonist that rapidly reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression, sedation, and analgesia.

Question 2: Which social determinant of health most strongly correlates with poor health outcomes in UAE migrant worker populations?

Crowded living conditions, limited healthcare access, and occupational hazards (Correct answer)
Air conditioning use
Excessive screen time
High sugar consumption only

Correct answer: Crowded living conditions, limited healthcare access, and occupational hazards

UAE migrant workers often live in overcrowded labour camps with limited healthcare access and exposure to occupational hazards, which are well-documented social determinants of poor health.

Question 3: A patient with type 2 diabetes is NPO for surgery. Which nursing action is most important regarding their antidiabetic medications?

Discontinue all medications permanently
Clarify with the physician which medications to hold or adjust (Correct answer)
Administer all medications as prescribed regardless
Double the morning insulin dose

Correct answer: Clarify with the physician which medications to hold or adjust

NPO status and surgical stress alter glucose metabolism; the nurse must clarify medication orders with the physician to prevent hypoglycaemia or dangerous hyperglycaemia.

Question 4: Which of the following best describes the primary prevention strategy for type 2 diabetes in a UAE community programme?

Providing free insulin to at-risk individuals
Promoting healthy diet, physical activity, and weight management to prevent disease onset (Correct answer)
Mass screening of the population for diabetes
Treating diagnosed diabetics with medication

Correct answer: Promoting healthy diet, physical activity, and weight management to prevent disease onset

Primary prevention of type 2 diabetes targets modifiable risk factors through lifestyle interventions—diet, exercise, and weight management—before the disease develops.

Question 5: A 3-day-old term newborn develops mild yellow discoloration of the skin and sclera. The nurse suspects which type of jaundice?

ABO incompatibility hemolytic jaundice
Physiological jaundice (Correct answer)
Breast milk jaundice
Pathological jaundice

Correct answer: Physiological jaundice

Physiological jaundice typically appears on days 2–3 in term newborns due to hepatic immaturity and breakdown of fetal hemoglobin, and is self-limiting.

Question 6: What is the DHA requirement for medication administration using barcode scanning?

Only scan the medication package
Barcode scanning replaces all other checks
Scan patient wristband and medication barcode at point of care to verify the 'five rights' electronically before administration (Correct answer)
Barcode scanning is optional

Correct answer: Scan patient wristband and medication barcode at point of care to verify the 'five rights' electronically before administration

DHA requires barcode medication administration (BCMA) scanning of both the patient wristband and medication at the point of care to electronically verify patient identity and medication accuracy.

Question 7: A patient refuses a recommended blood transfusion for religious reasons while fully conscious and informed. What is the nurse's ethical obligation?

Discharge the patient immediately without further care
Respect the patient's autonomous decision and document it, while ensuring they understand the consequences (Correct answer)
Override the decision because life-saving treatment takes priority
Proceed with the transfusion to save the patient's life

Correct answer: Respect the patient's autonomous decision and document it, while ensuring they understand the consequences

Autonomy is a fundamental ethical principle; a competent, informed patient has the right to refuse treatment, and the nurse must document the refusal and continue providing alternative supportive care.

Question 8: How should a DHA nurse manage a medication error?

Hide the error to avoid consequences
Only tell the charge nurse
Immediately assess the patient, notify the physician, document the incident, complete an incident report, and participate in root cause analysis (Correct answer)
Wait to see if the patient shows symptoms

Correct answer: Immediately assess the patient, notify the physician, document the incident, complete an incident report, and participate in root cause analysis

DHA medication error management requires immediate patient assessment, physician notification, accurate documentation, incident reporting through the facility's reporting system, and participation in review processes for learning.

Question 9: What is the DHA protocol for safe patient transport within the hospital?

No special preparations are needed
Only ICU patients need transport preparation
Pre-transport assessment, appropriate monitoring equipment, emergency medications, trained escort, and communication with receiving area (Correct answer)
Only send the patient with a porter

Correct answer: Pre-transport assessment, appropriate monitoring equipment, emergency medications, trained escort, and communication with receiving area

DHA requires pre-transport stability assessment, portable monitoring equipment, emergency medications and airway equipment, trained clinical escort appropriate to acuity, and prior communication with the receiving department.

Question 10: According to DHA regulations, a nurse found to be practicing with an expired license is subject to which consequence?

Administrative fine and possible suspension (Correct answer)
Verbal warning only
Transfer to Ministry of Health jurisdiction
Automatic license renewal

Correct answer: Administrative fine and possible suspension

DHA enforces strict compliance; practicing with an expired license can result in administrative fines and potential suspension of the practitioner from Dubai healthcare facilities.

Question 11: What must a DHA nurse assess before administering an enteral feeding?

Only the feeding rate
Only the patient's appetite
Only the feeding temperature
Tube placement verification, residual volume, patient positioning at 30-45 degrees, and tube patency (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Tube placement verification, residual volume, patient positioning at 30-45 degrees, and tube patency

Before enteral feeding, DHA nurses must verify tube placement (aspiration of gastric contents, pH testing), check residual volume, position the patient upright at 30-45 degrees to prevent aspiration, and confirm tube patency.

Question 12: What does a DHA nurse need to verify before administering an intravenous medication?

Only the medication name
Only the expiry date
Only that the patient has IV access
Compatibility with existing IV fluids, correct dilution, appropriate rate of administration, and line patency (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Compatibility with existing IV fluids, correct dilution, appropriate rate of administration, and line patency

Before IV medication administration, DHA nurses must verify drug compatibility with concurrent infusions, correct dilution and concentration, appropriate infusion rate, IV line patency, and site assessment.

Question 13: What is the DHA protocol for delirium assessment and management in ICU?

Delirium is not assessed in ICU
Screen using validated tools (CAM-ICU), implement prevention bundles (ABCDEF), minimize sedation, and promote sleep-wake cycles (Correct answer)
Only physical restraints are used
Delirium resolves without intervention

Correct answer: Screen using validated tools (CAM-ICU), implement prevention bundles (ABCDEF), minimize sedation, and promote sleep-wake cycles

DHA requires regular delirium screening using validated tools like CAM-ICU, implementation of the ABCDEF bundle (assessment, breathing trials, coordination, delirium monitoring, early mobility, family engagement), and non-pharmacological prevention.

Question 14: A nurse is evaluating developmental milestones in a 12-month-old child during a well-baby visit. Which milestone is expected at this age?

Drawing a straight line
Forming 3-word sentences
Running and climbing stairs
Walking independently (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Walking independently

Walking independently is a gross motor milestone typically achieved by 12 months; running, 3-word sentences, and drawing develop later at 18–24 months.

Question 15: What does the SBAR communication tool stand for?

Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation (Correct answer)
Signs, Background, Advice, Report
Status, Background, Action, Review
Situation, Breathing, Assessment, Response

Correct answer: Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation

SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) is a structured communication framework that improves clarity and safety during handoffs and urgent patient notifications.

Question 16: What is the DHA requirement for clinical handover between nursing shifts?

Informal chat between nurses
Handover is optional
Structured bedside handover using SBAR format, including patient verification, current status, plan of care, and outstanding tasks (Correct answer)
Written report only with no verbal communication

Correct answer: Structured bedside handover using SBAR format, including patient verification, current status, plan of care, and outstanding tasks

DHA requires structured bedside handover using the SBAR format, including patient identification verification, current clinical status, ongoing treatment plan, pending investigations, and outstanding tasks.

Question 17: Which early sign of septic shock distinguishes it from other shock types?

Hypertension with bradycardia
Cold, clammy, mottled skin initially
Absence of fever
Warm, flushed skin with hypotension (warm shock phase) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Warm, flushed skin with hypotension (warm shock phase)

In early septic shock (warm phase), vasodilation causes warm, flushed skin and hypotension, distinguishing it from the cool vasoconstriction seen in cardiogenic or hypovolaemic shock.

Question 18: Which examination must internationally educated nurses typically pass as part of DHA licensure?

OET only
DHA Licensing Examination (Prometric CBT) (Correct answer)
NCLEX-RN
IELTS Academic only

Correct answer: DHA Licensing Examination (Prometric CBT)

Most internationally educated nurses must pass the DHA Prometric computer-based licensing examination to demonstrate clinical competency for Dubai practice.

Question 19: What quality indicators does DHA track for nursing practice?

No quality indicators are tracked for nursing
Nurse-sensitive indicators including falls rate, pressure injury incidence, CLABSI rate, medication errors, and patient satisfaction (Correct answer)
Only patient satisfaction scores
Only staffing ratios

Correct answer: Nurse-sensitive indicators including falls rate, pressure injury incidence, CLABSI rate, medication errors, and patient satisfaction

DHA tracks nursing-sensitive quality indicators including falls with injury rate, hospital-acquired pressure injury incidence, central line-associated bloodstream infection rates, medication error rates, and patient satisfaction.

Question 20: Which level of prevention focuses on early detection of disease through screening programmes?

Primary prevention
Secondary prevention (Correct answer)
Tertiary prevention
Quaternary prevention

Correct answer: Secondary prevention

Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat disease at an early stage through screening, reducing disease progression and complications.

Question 21: How does the DHA require nurses to respond to rapid deterioration of a patient?

Document the deterioration and continue monitoring
Use early warning scoring systems to detect deterioration, activate rapid response team when criteria are met, and initiate immediate interventions (Correct answer)
Only call the charge nurse
Wait for the physician to notice

Correct answer: Use early warning scoring systems to detect deterioration, activate rapid response team when criteria are met, and initiate immediate interventions

DHA requires nurses to use early warning scores (NEWS/PEWS) to detect clinical deterioration, with clear escalation protocols including rapid response team activation when trigger scores are reached.

Question 22: A nurse suspects a patient has developed a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which classic sign should the nurse assess for?

Sudden severe headache
Unilateral calf pain, warmth, and swelling (Correct answer)
Bilateral ankle oedema with no pain
Chest tightness with diaphoresis

Correct answer: Unilateral calf pain, warmth, and swelling

Classic DVT signs include unilateral calf pain, localised warmth, and swelling due to thrombosis obstructing venous return in the affected limb.

Question 23: A patient's SpO2 drops to 88% on room air. What is the nurse's immediate priority?

Document the finding and wait for rounds
Administer IV morphine
Apply supplemental oxygen and reassess (Correct answer)
Order a chest X-ray first

Correct answer: Apply supplemental oxygen and reassess

An SpO2 of 88% indicates significant hypoxaemia; immediate supplemental oxygen is required to restore adequate tissue oxygenation.

Question 24: A nurse discovers that a colleague has made a medication error but has not reported it. What should the nurse do?

Encourage the colleague to report the error and report it themselves if the colleague refuses (Correct answer)
Do nothing as it is not their responsibility
Report the colleague to the police immediately
Cover for the colleague to avoid embarrassment

Correct answer: Encourage the colleague to report the error and report it themselves if the colleague refuses

Patient safety requires that medication errors be reported; if a colleague refuses, the nurse has a professional and ethical duty to report the incident through proper channels.

Question 25: In the UAE, what is the legal obligation of a nurse who suspects child abuse in a patient?

Notify only the family
Keep it confidential to protect patient privacy
Mandatory reporting to the relevant child protection authority (e.g., Ministry of Community Development) (Correct answer)
Only report if there is a visible fracture

Correct answer: Mandatory reporting to the relevant child protection authority (e.g., Ministry of Community Development)

UAE law and DHA professional guidelines require healthcare workers to mandatorily report suspected child abuse to the appropriate child protection authorities.

Question 26: According to WHO classification, what birth weight defines a newborn as having low birth weight (LBW)?

Less than 3.0 kg
Less than 2.0 kg
Less than 2.5 kg (Correct answer)
Less than 3.5 kg

Correct answer: Less than 2.5 kg

The WHO defines low birth weight as a birth weight of less than 2,500 grams (2.5 kg), regardless of gestational age.

Question 27: A 3-year-old child experiences a febrile seizure. What is the nurse's priority intervention during the seizure?

Administer rectal diazepam at seizure onset
Insert an oral airway device immediately
Restrain the child's limbs to prevent injury
Position the child on the side to maintain airway patency (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Position the child on the side to maintain airway patency

Positioning the child on the side (recovery position) during a seizure prevents aspiration and maintains airway patency; restraint and oral insertion are contraindicated.

Question 28: Which position should a patient be placed in after a lumbar puncture to help prevent a post-procedure headache?

High Fowler's immediately
Supine (flat) for 1–4 hours as instructed (Correct answer)
Ambulate immediately
Left lateral Trendelenburg

Correct answer: Supine (flat) for 1–4 hours as instructed

Lying supine after a lumbar puncture reduces CSF pressure at the puncture site and helps prevent post-lumbar puncture headache caused by CSF leakage.

Question 29: What is the minimum years of post-registration nursing experience required by DHA for most applicants?

1 year
2 years (Correct answer)
6 months
5 years

Correct answer: 2 years

DHA generally requires a minimum of two years of post-registration clinical experience before a nurse can apply for licensure in Dubai.

Question 30: What is the correct method to verify a patient's identity before administering medication?

Check two patient identifiers such as full name and date of birth (Correct answer)
Ask only the patient's room number
Check the medication label alone
Rely on the patient's verbal confirmation only

Correct answer: Check two patient identifiers such as full name and date of birth

Using two independent patient identifiers (e.g., full name and date of birth) minimises the risk of medication errors by confirming the right patient.

Question 31: A nurse notes that a prescribed medication has a narrow therapeutic index. What does this mean clinically?

The difference between the therapeutic dose and the toxic dose is small, requiring careful monitoring (Correct answer)
The drug has no side effects
The drug is safe at any dose
Only one dose per day is required

Correct answer: The difference between the therapeutic dose and the toxic dose is small, requiring careful monitoring

A narrow therapeutic index means the effective and toxic plasma concentrations are close together, requiring frequent monitoring of drug levels and patient response.

Question 32: What type of isolation precautions does DHA require for a patient with active pulmonary tuberculosis?

Droplet precautions only
Standard precautions only
Contact precautions only
Airborne precautions including negative pressure room, N95 respirator, and restricted entry (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Airborne precautions including negative pressure room, N95 respirator, and restricted entry

Active pulmonary TB requires airborne precautions: placement in a negative pressure isolation room, N95 respirator use by all entering staff, and restricted visitor access as per DHA infection control policies.

Question 33: Which vaccination is part of the UAE national immunisation schedule for newborns at birth?

Hepatitis B vaccine (first dose) (Correct answer)
HPV vaccine
MMR vaccine
Influenza vaccine

Correct answer: Hepatitis B vaccine (first dose)

The UAE national immunisation schedule requires the first dose of hepatitis B vaccine to be administered at birth to prevent vertical (mother-to-child) transmission.

Question 34: What is the DHA nursing role in the management of sepsis?

Early recognition using screening tools, obtaining blood cultures, ensuring IV antibiotics within 1 hour, fluid resuscitation, and lactate monitoring (Correct answer)
Sepsis management is only a physician responsibility
Only monitor temperature
Only administer antibiotics

Correct answer: Early recognition using screening tools, obtaining blood cultures, ensuring IV antibiotics within 1 hour, fluid resuscitation, and lactate monitoring

DHA nurses play a critical role in sepsis management: screening for sepsis using validated tools, obtaining blood cultures before antibiotics, ensuring antibiotic administration within 1 hour, initiating fluid resuscitation, and monitoring lactate levels.

Question 35: Which IV fluid is isotonic and most commonly used for fluid resuscitation?

Dextrose 10% in Water
0.9% Normal Saline (NS) (Correct answer)
3% Hypertonic Saline
0.45% Hypotonic Saline

Correct answer: 0.9% Normal Saline (NS)

0.9% Normal Saline is isotonic (osmolality ~308 mOsm/L), making it the standard choice for extracellular fluid replacement and resuscitation.

Question 36: How should a DHA nurse perform a pain assessment for a non-verbal patient?

Assume no pain if the patient is not crying
Use behavioral pain assessment tools such as the FLACC scale or CPOT, observing facial expressions, body movements, and vital signs (Correct answer)
Only assess pain when family members are present
Ask the physician to assess pain

Correct answer: Use behavioral pain assessment tools such as the FLACC scale or CPOT, observing facial expressions, body movements, and vital signs

For non-verbal patients, DHA nurses use validated behavioral pain assessment tools (FLACC, CPOT, BPS) that evaluate facial expressions, body movements, muscle tension, and physiological indicators.

Question 37: What is the DHA standard for personal protective equipment (PPE) donning and doffing sequence?

Don: gown, mask/respirator, goggles, gloves; Doff: gloves, goggles, gown, mask/respirator with hand hygiene between steps (Correct answer)
Only follow sequence during COVID outbreaks
Put everything on simultaneously
No specific sequence is required

Correct answer: Don: gown, mask/respirator, goggles, gloves; Doff: gloves, goggles, gown, mask/respirator with hand hygiene between steps

DHA follows WHO/CDC PPE sequence: donning progresses from gown to mask to eye protection to gloves, while doffing removes the most contaminated items first (gloves) with hand hygiene between each step.

Question 38: What is the DHA requirement for healthcare worker vaccination?

Mandatory vaccinations including Hepatitis B, influenza, and other role-specific immunizations as per DHA occupational health policy (Correct answer)
Vaccination is optional for all staff
Only Hepatitis B vaccination is required
No vaccinations are required

Correct answer: Mandatory vaccinations including Hepatitis B, influenza, and other role-specific immunizations as per DHA occupational health policy

DHA requires healthcare workers to maintain current vaccinations including Hepatitis B (with confirmed immunity), annual influenza vaccination, and other immunizations based on role and patient population exposure.

Question 39: What is the normal range for adult blood pressure according to DHA clinical guidelines?

100/60 to 110/70 mmHg
140/90 to 160/100 mmHg
Less than 120/80 mmHg (Correct answer)
160/100 to 180/110 mmHg

Correct answer: Less than 120/80 mmHg

DHA guidelines align with international standards defining normal blood pressure as less than 120/80 mmHg. Readings above this require monitoring and potential intervention.

Question 40: What is the DHA requirement for patient allergy assessment before medication administration?

Only check for drug allergies
Verify allergy status on admission, document in the medical record, apply allergy wristband, and check before each medication administration (Correct answer)
Ask only during the first medication dose
Allergy assessment is optional

Correct answer: Verify allergy status on admission, document in the medical record, apply allergy wristband, and check before each medication administration

DHA requires comprehensive allergy assessment on admission covering drug, food, and environmental allergies, documentation in the record, allergy wristband application, and verification before each medication.

Question 41: In a patient with suspected anaphylaxis, which medication is the FIRST-LINE treatment?

IV corticosteroids (hydrocortisone)
Nebulised salbutamol
IV antihistamine (diphenhydramine)
Intramuscular adrenaline (epinephrine) 0.3–0.5 mg (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Intramuscular adrenaline (epinephrine) 0.3–0.5 mg

Intramuscular adrenaline is the first-line and most critical treatment for anaphylaxis, reversing vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, and preventing fatal cardiovascular collapse.

Question 42: What is the purpose of conducting a medication reconciliation on patient admission?

To generate a billing statement
To educate the patient about diet
To reduce the number of prescribed medications
To accurately compare current medications and prevent omissions, duplications, or harmful interactions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To accurately compare current medications and prevent omissions, duplications, or harmful interactions

Medication reconciliation ensures a complete and accurate medication list at care transitions, preventing discrepancies that can lead to patient harm.

Question 43: A nurse must administer potassium chloride (KCl) IV. Which statement is correct?

It can be given as a rapid IV push if diluted
It must always be diluted and given slowly via infusion pump; never as an IV bolus (Correct answer)
KCl should be given subcutaneously if IV access is unavailable
Undiluted KCl can be administered if the patient is severely hypokalaemic

Correct answer: It must always be diluted and given slowly via infusion pump; never as an IV bolus

IV potassium chloride must be diluted and infused slowly via pump because a rapid bolus can cause fatal cardiac arrhythmias.

Question 44: A patient returns from colostomy surgery. What should the nurse teach regarding stoma colour?

The stoma should be moist and pink or red; a dark or black colour indicates ischaemia (Correct answer)
A pale white stoma is normal
A black stoma is expected in the first week
Stoma colour is irrelevant to stoma health

Correct answer: The stoma should be moist and pink or red; a dark or black colour indicates ischaemia

A healthy stoma is moist and pink-to-red due to good blood supply; a dark or black stoma signals ischaemia and requires immediate medical attention.

Question 45: A patient's blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. How is this classified?

Hypotension (Correct answer)
Hypertension
Prehypertension
Normal

Correct answer: Hypotension

A blood pressure reading of 90/60 mmHg falls below the normal threshold and is classified as hypotension, indicating a potentially inadequate perfusion pressure.

Question 46: How should a DHA-licensed nurse document a wound assessment?

Only photograph the wound
Note only the wound size
Write 'wound present' in the chart
Document wound location, size, depth, color, drainage type and amount, surrounding skin condition, and odor (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Document wound location, size, depth, color, drainage type and amount, surrounding skin condition, and odor

DHA documentation standards require comprehensive wound assessment including exact location, measurements (length x width x depth), wound bed color, exudate characteristics, periwound skin condition, and any odor.

Question 47: When applying sterile technique, which action would break sterility?

Opening a sterile package away from the body
Reaching across the sterile field (Correct answer)
Keeping sterile items at waist level
Wearing sterile gloves correctly

Correct answer: Reaching across the sterile field

Reaching across a sterile field allows non-sterile clothing or hands to contaminate the sterile area, breaking the principle of maintaining a contamination-free zone.

Question 48: What is the DHA licensing process for nurses wishing to practice in Dubai?

No license is required
Only submit a resume
Only pass an English language test
Submit credentials for dataflow verification, pass the DHA licensing exam, obtain eligibility letter, and apply for professional license (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Submit credentials for dataflow verification, pass the DHA licensing exam, obtain eligibility letter, and apply for professional license

DHA nursing licensure requires primary source verification through DataFlow, successful completion of the DHA professional licensing examination, obtaining an eligibility letter, and formal license application.

Question 49: A patient in the ICU develops acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which ventilator strategy is recommended?

High tidal volume ventilation to maximise oxygenation
Continuous positive pressure at 20 cmH2O
Spontaneous breathing without ventilator support
Low tidal volume ventilation (lung-protective ventilation, 6 mL/kg ideal body weight) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Low tidal volume ventilation (lung-protective ventilation, 6 mL/kg ideal body weight)

Lung-protective ventilation using low tidal volumes (6 mL/kg IBW) reduces ventilator-induced lung injury and is the evidence-based standard for ARDS management.

Question 50: A patient with Cushing's syndrome is most at risk for which metabolic complication?

Hyponatraemia
Hypoglycaemia
Hypocalcaemia
Hyperglycaemia and diabetes mellitus (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hyperglycaemia and diabetes mellitus

Excess cortisol in Cushing's syndrome promotes gluconeogenesis and insulin resistance, leading to hyperglycaemia and secondary diabetes mellitus.

Question 51: What is the DHA guideline for look-alike/sound-alike (LASA) medication management?

No special precautions are needed
LASA medications do not exist in Dubai
Separate storage, use tall-man lettering, alert stickers, and include both generic and brand names on orders to prevent confusion (Correct answer)
Only store alphabetically

Correct answer: Separate storage, use tall-man lettering, alert stickers, and include both generic and brand names on orders to prevent confusion

DHA requires special handling of LASA medications including physical separation in storage, tall-man lettering (e.g., DOPamine vs DOBUTamine), alert stickers, and inclusion of both names on prescriptions.

Question 52: Which ECG finding is the hallmark of ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)?

Widened QRS complex only
ST segment elevation of ≥1 mm in two or more contiguous leads (Correct answer)
Prolonged PR interval
T-wave inversion in one lead

Correct answer: ST segment elevation of ≥1 mm in two or more contiguous leads

STEMI is diagnosed by ST elevation of ≥1 mm in two or more anatomically contiguous leads, indicating complete occlusion of a coronary artery requiring urgent reperfusion.

Question 53: What is the DHA requirement for pain management in critically ill patients?

Pain management is not a priority in ICU
Pain assessment is only done once daily
Only administer morphine on request
Regular pain assessment using appropriate tools, multimodal analgesia, sedation-analgesia protocols, and daily sedation interruption trials (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Regular pain assessment using appropriate tools, multimodal analgesia, sedation-analgesia protocols, and daily sedation interruption trials

DHA requires systematic pain assessment using appropriate tools (CPOT, BPS for ventilated patients), multimodal analgesia approaches, protocol-guided sedation, and daily sedation vacation trials for ventilated patients.

Question 54: What surveillance activities must DHA nurses participate in for infection prevention?

Only completing annual surveys
No surveillance is required
Monitoring and reporting healthcare-associated infections, surgical site infections, device-related infections, and antimicrobial usage (Correct answer)
Only reporting outbreaks

Correct answer: Monitoring and reporting healthcare-associated infections, surgical site infections, device-related infections, and antimicrobial usage

DHA requires active surveillance participation including monitoring HAIs (CLABSI, CAUTI, VAP, SSI), reporting notifiable diseases, tracking antimicrobial usage, and participating in outbreak investigations.

Question 55: What is the DHA protocol for managing a patient on mechanical ventilation?

Mechanical ventilation does not require nursing assessment
Set ventilator and check once daily
Continuous monitoring of ventilator parameters, regular ABG analysis, oral care every 4 hours, and VAP prevention bundle compliance (Correct answer)
Only monitor oxygen saturation

Correct answer: Continuous monitoring of ventilator parameters, regular ABG analysis, oral care every 4 hours, and VAP prevention bundle compliance

DHA ICU nursing requires continuous ventilator monitoring (tidal volumes, pressures, FiO2), regular ABG analysis, oral care with chlorhexidine every 4 hours, head-of-bed elevation, and full VAP prevention bundle compliance.

Question 56: What is the most common early sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in a neuro-surgical patient?

Decreasing level of consciousness / altered mental status (Correct answer)
Hypertension alone
Vomiting without nausea
Bradycardia alone

Correct answer: Decreasing level of consciousness / altered mental status

A change in level of consciousness is the earliest and most sensitive indicator of rising intracranial pressure as cerebral perfusion is compromised.

Question 57: What is the DHA nursing role in managing patients receiving continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT)?

CRRT does not require nursing monitoring
CRRT is managed only by physicians
Only check the machine once per shift
Monitor circuit pressures, anticoagulation, fluid balance hourly, electrolyte levels, and access site integrity (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Monitor circuit pressures, anticoagulation, fluid balance hourly, electrolyte levels, and access site integrity

DHA ICU nurses managing CRRT must monitor circuit pressures and patency, anticoagulation therapy, strict hourly fluid balance calculations, electrolyte monitoring, and vascular access site assessment.

Question 58: What is the correct nursing intervention for a patient experiencing a generalised tonic-clonic seizure?

Protect the patient from injury, position on side, and time the seizure (Correct answer)
Insert a tongue depressor to prevent biting
Restrain the patient's limbs firmly
Give oral medication immediately

Correct answer: Protect the patient from injury, position on side, and time the seizure

During a seizure, nurses must protect the patient from injury, turn them to the side to prevent aspiration, and time the event to guide medical management.

Question 59: Which class of medications requires the nurse to monitor for signs of angioedema as a rare but serious side effect?

ACE inhibitors (e.g., lisinopril) (Correct answer)
Thiazide diuretics
Beta-blockers
Statins

Correct answer: ACE inhibitors (e.g., lisinopril)

ACE inhibitors can cause bradykinin accumulation, which in rare cases leads to angioedema—potentially life-threatening swelling of the face, lips, and airway.

Question 60: What is the correct needle angle for an intradermal (ID) injection?

5–15 degrees (Correct answer)
90 degrees
30–45 degrees
45 degrees

Correct answer: 5–15 degrees

Intradermal injections are administered at a 5–15 degree angle with the bevel up, delivering small volumes just beneath the skin surface to form a wheal.

Question 61: What is the DHA nursing protocol for assessing a patient's fall risk?

Only assess patients over 65 years old
Only assess surgical patients
Use a validated fall risk assessment tool on admission, after a fall, with any change in condition, and at regular intervals (Correct answer)
Fall risk assessment is optional

Correct answer: Use a validated fall risk assessment tool on admission, after a fall, with any change in condition, and at regular intervals

DHA requires fall risk assessment using validated tools (such as the Morse Fall Scale) on admission, after any fall event, whenever the patient's condition changes, and at regular intervals throughout hospitalization.

Question 62: What is the DHA protocol for medication reconciliation?

Not required in Dubai healthcare facilities
Only performed at discharge
Only required for elderly patients
Compare the patient's current medications against new orders at admission, transfer, and discharge to identify and resolve discrepancies (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Compare the patient's current medications against new orders at admission, transfer, and discharge to identify and resolve discrepancies

DHA requires medication reconciliation at every transition of care (admission, transfer, discharge), comparing home medications against new orders to identify duplications, omissions, and interactions.

Question 63: Which drug interaction is a contraindication when a patient is taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)?

Paracetamol (acetaminophen)
Tyramine-rich foods and sympathomimetic drugs (Correct answer)
Vitamin C supplements
Standard saline IV fluids

Correct answer: Tyramine-rich foods and sympathomimetic drugs

MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of tyramine and catecholamines; consuming tyramine-rich foods or sympathomimetics can trigger a hypertensive crisis.

Question 64: What ethical principles guide DHA nursing practice?

Only following hospital rules
Autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, justice, veracity, and fidelity in all patient care decisions (Correct answer)
Ethics are subjective and not regulated
Only maintaining confidentiality

Correct answer: Autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, justice, veracity, and fidelity in all patient care decisions

DHA nursing ethics are built on fundamental principles: autonomy (patient self-determination), beneficence (doing good), non-maleficence (do no harm), justice (fair treatment), veracity (truthfulness), and fidelity (keeping promises).

Question 65: A patient on heparin infusion has an aPTT of 200 seconds (therapeutic range 60–100 seconds). What is the priority nursing action?

Ignore the result and recheck in 6 hours
Increase the heparin infusion rate
Hold the heparin infusion and notify the physician immediately (Correct answer)
Administer vitamin K

Correct answer: Hold the heparin infusion and notify the physician immediately

An aPTT of 200 seconds is significantly supratherapeutic, indicating a high bleeding risk; the infusion must be stopped and the physician notified for dose adjustment.

Question 66: What is the DHA protocol for management of needlestick injuries?

Apply antiseptic and continue working
Immediately wash with soap and water, report to occupational health, complete incident report, and initiate post-exposure prophylaxis assessment (Correct answer)
Report at end of shift
No action is needed if wearing gloves

Correct answer: Immediately wash with soap and water, report to occupational health, complete incident report, and initiate post-exposure prophylaxis assessment

DHA needlestick protocol requires immediate wound washing with soap and water (not squeezing), prompt reporting to occupational health, incident documentation, baseline blood tests, and PEP assessment within recommended timeframes.

Question 67: How should a DHA nurse calculate pediatric medication doses?

Estimate based on the child's age
Use a standard dose for all children
Use adult doses divided by half
Calculate based on the child's weight in kilograms using the mg/kg formula and verify against recommended dose ranges (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Calculate based on the child's weight in kilograms using the mg/kg formula and verify against recommended dose ranges

DHA pediatric medication dosing requires weight-based calculations using mg/kg formulas, verified against recommended dose ranges for the specific medication and age group, with mandatory independent double-checking.

Question 68: What is the DHA requirement for antibiotic stewardship in nursing practice?

Only physicians participate in stewardship
Ensure correct timing of antibiotic administration, obtain cultures before first dose, monitor for adverse effects, and report antibiotic duration (Correct answer)
Nurses have no role in antibiotic stewardship
Only administer antibiotics as ordered

Correct answer: Ensure correct timing of antibiotic administration, obtain cultures before first dose, monitor for adverse effects, and report antibiotic duration

DHA nursing responsibilities in antibiotic stewardship include timely administration (within 1 hour of order), obtaining cultures before first antibiotic dose, monitoring for adverse effects, and tracking treatment duration.

Question 69: Which nursing action is most important BEFORE administering any new medication to a patient?

Double the dose if the patient is obese
Skip the check if the medication is over-the-counter
Ask the patient if they feel like taking the medication
Check for allergies and verify the five/six rights (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Check for allergies and verify the five/six rights

Verifying allergies and applying the five/six rights of medication administration are the fundamental safety steps that prevent adverse drug reactions and medication errors.

Question 70: A child with suspected bacterial meningitis is to undergo a lumbar puncture. What is the correct patient positioning for this procedure?

Lateral recumbent with knees drawn to the chest (fetal position) (Correct answer)
Supine with arms extended overhead
Prone with a pillow under the abdomen
Sitting upright with arms raised above the head

Correct answer: Lateral recumbent with knees drawn to the chest (fetal position)

The lateral recumbent fetal position maximally flexes the lumbar spine, widening the intervertebral spaces to facilitate safe needle insertion for lumbar puncture.

Question 71: Which model of community nursing focuses on the family as the unit of care rather than the individual?

Family-centred care model (Correct answer)
Hospital-centric model
Biomedical model
Individual patient model

Correct answer: Family-centred care model

Family-centred care recognises that family dynamics, support, and health behaviours profoundly affect individual health outcomes, making the family the focus of nursing assessment and intervention.

Question 72: A 2-year-old presents with a barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and low-grade fever. Which condition is most likely?

Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) (Correct answer)
Bronchiolitis
Epiglottitis
Acute asthma

Correct answer: Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)

Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) is characterized by a distinctive barking or seal-like cough, inspiratory stridor, and mild fever, typically caused by parainfluenza virus.

Question 73: According to the UAE Expanded Programme on Immunization (EPI), which vaccines are administered to all newborns within 24 hours of birth?

Polio (OPV) and DTP
BCG and Hepatitis B (Correct answer)
MMR and Varicella
Hepatitis A and Rotavirus

Correct answer: BCG and Hepatitis B

In the UAE and WHO-recommended schedules, BCG (tuberculosis) and Hepatitis B vaccines are both administered within 24 hours of birth.

Question 74: Which assessment tool is commonly used to identify early clinical deterioration in ward patients before ICU transfer?

SOFA score
National Early Warning Score (NEWS2) (Correct answer)
APACHE II
Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

Correct answer: National Early Warning Score (NEWS2)

NEWS2 is a validated bedside scoring system using vital signs to detect early deterioration and trigger escalation of care before a patient reaches critical status.

Question 75: What is the recommended frequency for neurological observations using the Glasgow Coma Scale in DHA acute care settings?

Once per nursing shift
Only on admission
Every 15 minutes to 4 hours depending on patient acuity and clinical condition (Correct answer)
Once daily

Correct answer: Every 15 minutes to 4 hours depending on patient acuity and clinical condition

DHA protocols require neurological observations at frequencies determined by patient acuity: every 15 minutes for acute neurosurgical patients, progressing to 1-4 hourly as the patient stabilizes.

Question 76: What is the primary role of a community health nurse in a school health programme?

Health screening, health promotion, and early referral of students with identified needs (Correct answer)
Conducting surgical procedures on campus
Managing pharmacy stock for the school
Treating acute illnesses requiring hospitalisation

Correct answer: Health screening, health promotion, and early referral of students with identified needs

School health nurses focus on preventive care: screening for developmental and health issues, promoting healthy lifestyles, and referring students requiring further assessment.

Question 77: What is the minimum duration for alcohol-based hand rub application according to DHA standards?

20-30 seconds covering all surfaces of both hands until dry (Correct answer)
10 seconds
5 seconds
1 minute

Correct answer: 20-30 seconds covering all surfaces of both hands until dry

DHA standards require alcohol-based hand rub to be applied to all surfaces of both hands and rubbed together for 20-30 seconds until completely dry to ensure effective microbial reduction.

Question 78: Which APGAR score component specifically assesses a newborn's muscle tone?

Grimace
Activity (Correct answer)
Respiration
Pulse

Correct answer: Activity

In the APGAR scoring system, 'Activity' (A) refers to muscle tone, scored from 0 (limp) to 2 (active flexion of limbs).

Question 79: Which type of wound healing occurs when wound edges are surgically approximated and closed?

Primary intention (Correct answer)
Secondary intention
Tertiary intention
Delayed primary closure

Correct answer: Primary intention

Primary intention healing occurs when clean wound edges are brought together (e.g., by sutures or staples), allowing rapid healing with minimal scarring.

Question 80: A mechanically ventilated patient develops sudden hypotension and absent breath sounds on one side. What complication should the nurse suspect?

Tension pneumothorax (Correct answer)
Aspiration pneumonia
Ventilator-associated pneumonia
Pulmonary embolism

Correct answer: Tension pneumothorax

Sudden hypotension with unilateral absent breath sounds in a ventilated patient is the hallmark presentation of tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening emergency.

Question 81: Which method is the most accurate for measuring body temperature in an unconscious adult?

Rectal thermometry (Correct answer)
Tympanic thermometry
Axillary thermometry
Oral thermometry

Correct answer: Rectal thermometry

Rectal temperature measurement is the most accurate core temperature method for unconscious adults as it closely reflects internal body temperature without patient cooperation.

Question 82: What is the DHA protocol for managing IV infiltration or extravasation?

Only apply a warm compress
Continue the infusion at a slower rate
Ignore if the patient does not complain
Immediately stop the infusion, aspirate residual fluid, apply appropriate compresses, elevate the limb, document and report (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Immediately stop the infusion, aspirate residual fluid, apply appropriate compresses, elevate the limb, document and report

DHA protocols require immediate cessation of the infusion, aspiration of residual fluid through the catheter, application of hot or cold compresses depending on the medication, limb elevation, and detailed documentation.

Question 83: What does the principle of 'justice' mean in nursing ethics?

Referring all care decisions to the legal system
Always prioritising high-paying patients
Distributing healthcare resources and treatment fairly and equitably (Correct answer)
Punishing unethical colleagues

Correct answer: Distributing healthcare resources and treatment fairly and equitably

Justice in nursing ethics requires fair, equitable distribution of care and resources, ensuring all patients receive treatment based on need rather than social status or ability to pay.

Question 84: What does the term 'triage' mean in an emergency nursing context?

Discharging stable patients
Sorting patients by urgency to prioritise care (Correct answer)
Documenting patient allergies
Transferring patients between departments

Correct answer: Sorting patients by urgency to prioritise care

Triage is the systematic process of sorting patients according to the urgency of their condition to ensure those with the greatest need receive care first.

Question 85: What minimum English language proficiency score is generally accepted by DHA for nursing applicants?

No English test required
TOEFL 80
IELTS 6.0 overall or OET Grade B (Correct answer)
IELTS 7.5 overall

Correct answer: IELTS 6.0 overall or OET Grade B

DHA typically requires a minimum IELTS overall band of 6.0 or an OET Grade B to ensure nurses can communicate safely with patients and colleagues.

Question 86: In adult basic life support (BLS), what is the correct chest compression rate?

100–120 compressions per minute (Correct answer)
40–60 compressions per minute
60–80 compressions per minute
130–150 compressions per minute

Correct answer: 100–120 compressions per minute

The American Heart Association and current BLS guidelines recommend a chest compression rate of 100–120 per minute to maintain adequate cardiac output during CPR.

Question 87: What is the correct sequence for defibrillation using an AED?

Power on, attach pads, analyse rhythm, deliver shock if advised, resume CPR (Correct answer)
Attach pads, shock immediately without analysis, then assess
Assess pulse first, then attach pads, shock if pulseless
Start CPR, shock after 5 cycles, then attach AED

Correct answer: Power on, attach pads, analyse rhythm, deliver shock if advised, resume CPR

AED use follows: power on, attach pads to dry skin, allow rhythm analysis, deliver the shock if advised, then immediately resume CPR for 2 minutes.

Question 88: What is the primary purpose of a nursing care plan?

To record medication costs
To communicate with insurance companies
To provide a structured, individualised roadmap for patient care (Correct answer)
To document billing information

Correct answer: To provide a structured, individualised roadmap for patient care

A nursing care plan provides a systematic, individualised guide that coordinates nursing interventions and goals to meet each patient's specific health needs.

Question 89: Which assessment finding in a post-thyroidectomy patient requires immediate nursing action?

Low-grade fever of 37.5°C
Mild throat soreness
Slight hoarseness on day one
Tetany, tingling around the mouth, and positive Trousseau's sign (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Tetany, tingling around the mouth, and positive Trousseau's sign

Tetany and positive Trousseau's sign indicate hypocalcaemia due to accidental parathyroid gland damage during thyroidectomy, a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention.

Question 90: Digoxin toxicity is most likely to occur when a patient also has which electrolyte imbalance?

Hypercalcaemia (high calcium)
Hypokalaemia (low potassium) (Correct answer)
Hypernatraemia (high sodium)
Hyperkalaemia (high potassium)

Correct answer: Hypokalaemia (low potassium)

Hypokalaemia potentiates digoxin toxicity because potassium and digoxin compete for the same Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase receptor on cardiac cells; low potassium increases digoxin binding.

Question 91: What is the primary purpose of incentive spirometry in post-operative patients?

To administer inhaled medications
To measure peak expiratory flow
To monitor carbon dioxide levels
To encourage deep breathing and prevent atelectasis (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To encourage deep breathing and prevent atelectasis

Incentive spirometry promotes sustained maximal inspiration, expanding alveoli and preventing atelectasis—a common post-operative pulmonary complication.

Question 92: What is the DHA nursing responsibility for organ donation management?

Nurses have no role in organ donation
Identify potential donors, notify the organ donation coordinator, maintain physiological stability of the donor, and support the family (Correct answer)
Only physicians manage organ donation
Organ donation does not occur in UAE

Correct answer: Identify potential donors, notify the organ donation coordinator, maintain physiological stability of the donor, and support the family

DHA nurses play key roles in organ donation: identifying potential donors through clinical triggers, notifying coordinators, maintaining donor physiological stability (hemodynamics, oxygenation, temperature), and providing family support.

Question 93: When a nurse transfers from another Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) country to Dubai, which process facilitates license recognition?

Automatic mutual recognition with no examination
IELTS waiver for GCC nurses
Only a letter from the previous employer
Gulf Health Council Dataflow and Prometric Gulf examination (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Gulf Health Council Dataflow and Prometric Gulf examination

The Gulf Health Council's Prometric examination and DataFlow verification process facilitates standardised recognition of healthcare credentials across GCC member states.

Question 94: What are the DHA requirements for sterile technique during central line dressing changes?

Only hand washing is required
Full aseptic technique including sterile gloves, mask, cap, sterile drapes, and chlorhexidine skin antisepsis (Correct answer)
Clean technique is sufficient
No specific technique is required

Correct answer: Full aseptic technique including sterile gloves, mask, cap, sterile drapes, and chlorhexidine skin antisepsis

DHA requires maximal sterile barrier precautions for central line dressing changes including sterile gloves, mask, cap, sterile drapes, and chlorhexidine-based antiseptic for skin preparation to prevent CLABSI.

Question 95: Which type of wound drainage is thin, watery, and blood-tinged?

Purulent
Serosanguineous (Correct answer)
Sanguineous
Serous

Correct answer: Serosanguineous

Serosanguineous drainage is a mixture of serum and blood, appearing pale pink and watery, commonly seen in the early stages of wound healing.

Question 96: What is the correct sequence of the nursing process?

Diagnosis, Assessment, Planning, Evaluation, Implementation
Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation (Correct answer)
Implementation, Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Evaluation
Planning, Assessment, Diagnosis, Implementation, Evaluation

Correct answer: Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation

The nursing process follows the ADPIE sequence: Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation to provide systematic patient care.

Question 97: Which position is recommended for a patient experiencing respiratory distress to maximise lung expansion?

Supine
Prone
High Fowler's (90°) (Correct answer)
Trendelenburg

Correct answer: High Fowler's (90°)

High Fowler's position at 90 degrees allows maximum diaphragm descent and lung expansion, improving oxygenation in patients with breathing difficulty.

Question 98: Which medication is routinely administered to newborns immediately after birth to prevent hemorrhagic disease of the newborn?

Vitamin D injection
Erythromycin eye ointment
Hepatitis B vaccine
Vitamin K injection (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Vitamin K injection

Vitamin K is administered intramuscularly at birth because newborns have low stores and lack gut bacteria to synthesize it, preventing potentially fatal bleeding.

Question 99: What are the WHO 'Five Moments for Hand Hygiene' that DHA nurses must follow?

Only after patient contact
Only before procedures
Before and after meals only
Before patient contact, before aseptic procedure, after body fluid exposure, after patient contact, after touching patient surroundings (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Before patient contact, before aseptic procedure, after body fluid exposure, after patient contact, after touching patient surroundings

DHA follows the WHO Five Moments: before touching a patient, before clean/aseptic procedures, after body fluid exposure risk, after touching a patient, and after touching patient surroundings.

Question 100: A patient post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) reports sudden onset chest pain and shortness of breath on day 2. What should the nurse assess first?

Last bowel movement
Urine output only
Pain scale rating
Airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs)

Following cardiac surgery, sudden chest pain and dyspnoea may indicate life-threatening complications such as cardiac tamponade or pulmonary embolism, requiring immediate ABC assessment.

Question 101: Which vital sign range indicates a normal adult respiratory rate?

25–35 breaths per minute
12–20 breaths per minute (Correct answer)
40–50 breaths per minute
6–10 breaths per minute

Correct answer: 12–20 breaths per minute

A normal adult respiratory rate is 12–20 breaths per minute; values outside this range may indicate respiratory compromise.

Question 102: How should DHA nurses handle contaminated linen?

Mix with regular laundry
Rinse before placing in laundry bag
Place in designated color-coded bags at the point of use, minimize handling, and do not sort or rinse at the bedside (Correct answer)
Store in the patient room until end of shift

Correct answer: Place in designated color-coded bags at the point of use, minimize handling, and do not sort or rinse at the bedside

DHA protocols require contaminated linen to be placed in appropriate color-coded bags at the point of use, handled minimally to reduce contamination spread, and never sorted or rinsed at the bedside.

Question 103: What is the DHA protocol for targeted temperature management after cardiac arrest?

Temperature management is not performed in Dubai
Only use ice packs
Only cool the patient to room temperature
Maintain target temperature of 32-36°C using cooling devices, continuous temperature monitoring, and sedation management (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Maintain target temperature of 32-36°C using cooling devices, continuous temperature monitoring, and sedation management

DHA post-cardiac arrest care includes targeted temperature management at 32-36°C using specialized cooling devices, continuous core temperature monitoring, appropriate sedation, and prevention of shivering.

Question 104: Which parenteral route is used to administer the hepatitis B vaccine?

Intravenous (IV) infusion
Intradermal injection
Intramuscular (IM) injection into the deltoid (Correct answer)
Subcutaneous (SC) injection

Correct answer: Intramuscular (IM) injection into the deltoid

The hepatitis B vaccine is administered intramuscularly into the deltoid muscle to ensure adequate immune response while avoiding subcutaneous fat, which impairs immunogenicity.

Question 105: Insulin glargine (Lantus) is classified as which type of insulin?

Intermediate-acting insulin
Long-acting basal insulin (Correct answer)
Short-acting regular insulin
Rapid-acting insulin

Correct answer: Long-acting basal insulin

Insulin glargine is a long-acting basal insulin with a relatively flat, peakless profile lasting approximately 24 hours, used to control fasting blood glucose.

Question 106: Which action should a nurse take FIRST upon discovering an unresponsive patient?

Obtain a 12-lead ECG
Administer oxygen immediately
Assess responsiveness and call for help (Correct answer)
Insert an IV line

Correct answer: Assess responsiveness and call for help

The first step in an emergency is to assess the patient's responsiveness and activate the emergency response system to ensure help arrives promptly.

Question 107: During the assessment of a laboring patient, the nurse observes the fetal head visible at the vaginal opening without retraction between contractions. This is known as:

Engagement
Station +2
Crowning (Correct answer)
Effacement

Correct answer: Crowning

Crowning occurs when the widest diameter of the fetal head is visible at the vaginal opening and does not retract between contractions, indicating imminent delivery.

Question 108: Which document is mandatory when applying for a DHA nursing license as a foreign graduate?

Letter from a UAE hospital
Local Emirates ID only
Certificate of Good Standing from the home country licensing authority (Correct answer)
UAE residence visa only

Correct answer: Certificate of Good Standing from the home country licensing authority

A Certificate of Good Standing (or Letter of Good Standing) from the nurse's home country licensing authority confirms their professional standing and is required by DHA.

Question 109: What does 'informed consent' require before a nursing procedure?

Written consent is only needed for surgery
A relative's signature is sufficient
Consent given under sedation is valid
The patient must receive adequate information, understand it, and voluntarily agree without coercion (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The patient must receive adequate information, understand it, and voluntarily agree without coercion

Valid informed consent requires disclosure of relevant information in understandable language, patient comprehension, and voluntary decision-making free from pressure.

Question 110: A patient is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory test is used to monitor therapeutic levels?

Serum potassium
Complete blood count (CBC)
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Prothrombin time / INR (PT/INR) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Prothrombin time / INR (PT/INR)

Warfarin's anticoagulant effect is monitored using PT/INR, which measures the extrinsic clotting pathway that warfarin inhibits.

Question 111: A nurse is providing anticipatory guidance to a mother of a 2-year-old who refuses to eat vegetables. What is the most appropriate recommendation?

Refer immediately to a dietitian for nutritional deficiency testing
Replace vegetables with vitamin supplements indefinitely
Force the child to eat vegetables at every meal
Offer vegetables repeatedly in a positive, pressure-free environment (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Offer vegetables repeatedly in a positive, pressure-free environment

Repeated, low-pressure exposure to new foods helps toddlers gradually accept them; forcing food creates negative associations and power struggles.

Question 112: A nurse assesses a breastfed newborn on day 5 of life. Which finding best indicates adequate milk intake?

2–3 wet diapers per day
Infant feeds only when visibly distressed
Infant sleeps for 6-hour stretches
6–8 wet diapers per day (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 6–8 wet diapers per day

By day 4–5, a well-hydrated, adequately fed newborn should produce 6–8 wet diapers per day, indicating sufficient fluid and caloric intake.

Question 113: What is the DHA blood gas interpretation competency required for ICU nurses?

Only monitor oxygen levels
Only physicians interpret blood gases
Interpret pH, PaCO2, PaO2, HCO3, base excess, and identify respiratory/metabolic acidosis/alkalosis (Correct answer)
Not a nursing competency

Correct answer: Interpret pH, PaCO2, PaO2, HCO3, base excess, and identify respiratory/metabolic acidosis/alkalosis

DHA requires ICU nurses to competently interpret arterial blood gas results including pH, PaCO2, PaO2, HCO3, and base excess to identify acid-base disturbances and oxygenation status for timely intervention.

Question 114: What is the DHA process for handling professional misconduct complaints against nurses?

Complaints are ignored
Nurses cannot face disciplinary action
Formal investigation by DHA licensing department, opportunity for the nurse to respond, disciplinary hearing, and potential sanctions ranging from warning to license revocation (Correct answer)
Only verbal warnings are given

Correct answer: Formal investigation by DHA licensing department, opportunity for the nurse to respond, disciplinary hearing, and potential sanctions ranging from warning to license revocation

DHA handles professional misconduct through formal investigation, providing the nurse opportunity to respond, conducting disciplinary hearings when warranted, with potential sanctions from warnings to license suspension or revocation.

Question 115: What is the DHA protocol for blood glucose monitoring in hospitalized patients?

Once weekly for all patients
Only test fasting glucose on admission
Monitor before meals and at bedtime for diabetic patients, with additional checks for insulin drips or symptomatic patients (Correct answer)
Test only when symptoms appear

Correct answer: Monitor before meals and at bedtime for diabetic patients, with additional checks for insulin drips or symptomatic patients

DHA protocols require blood glucose monitoring before meals and at bedtime for diabetic patients, with more frequent monitoring (every 1-2 hours) for patients on insulin infusions or experiencing glycemic instability.

Question 116: What is the DHA requirement for nurse competency assessment?

Annual competency assessments covering clinical skills, medication safety, emergency response, and infection control (Correct answer)
Only assessed when a complaint is filed
Self-assessment only
Only assessed during initial licensing

Correct answer: Annual competency assessments covering clinical skills, medication safety, emergency response, and infection control

DHA requires regular competency assessments covering core clinical skills, medication administration safety, emergency response procedures, and infection prevention practices, typically conducted annually.

Question 117: Which finding indicates fluid volume excess (hypervolaemia) in a medical-surgical patient?

Concentrated urine and thirst
Hypotension and tachycardia
Dry mucous membranes and poor skin turgor
Bounding pulse, crackles in lung bases, and peripheral oedema (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Bounding pulse, crackles in lung bases, and peripheral oedema

Fluid volume excess causes increased vascular pressure, leading to a bounding pulse, pulmonary oedema heard as crackles, and peripheral oedema from fluid shifting into tissues.

Question 118: What is the DHA protocol for managing multidrug-resistant organism (MDRO) infections?

No special precautions beyond standard
Only antibiotics are needed
Isolation is not required for MDRO
Contact precautions with gowning, gloving, dedicated equipment, enhanced environmental cleaning, and antimicrobial stewardship (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Contact precautions with gowning, gloving, dedicated equipment, enhanced environmental cleaning, and antimicrobial stewardship

DHA MDRO management includes contact precautions (gown and gloves), dedicated patient equipment, enhanced environmental cleaning, active surveillance cultures, and antimicrobial stewardship to prevent spread.

Question 119: What is the DHA standard for patient identification before medication administration?

Checking the room number only
Using at least two patient identifiers such as full name and medical record number, verified against the medication order and ID band (Correct answer)
Asking the patient their name only
Verifying with the patient's family member

Correct answer: Using at least two patient identifiers such as full name and medical record number, verified against the medication order and ID band

DHA patient safety standards require verification of at least two identifiers (typically full name and medical record number/date of birth) against the medication order and patient ID band before any medication administration.

Question 120: Which stage of labor begins with complete cervical dilation and ends with delivery of the baby?

Fourth stage
Second stage (Correct answer)
First stage
Third stage

Correct answer: Second stage

The second stage of labor spans from full (10 cm) cervical dilation to the birth of the baby, during which the mother actively pushes.

Question 121: When documenting patient care, which principle is essential for legal and professional accuracy?

Personal opinions about the patient should be included
Record entries must be accurate, timely, objective, and signed (Correct answer)
Pencil is acceptable for hard-copy records
Documentation can be completed 24 hours after care

Correct answer: Record entries must be accurate, timely, objective, and signed

Nursing documentation must be accurate, timely, objective, and properly signed to constitute a legally defensible and professionally sound record of care.

Question 122: A patient at 36 weeks gestation presents with sudden onset severe abdominal pain, a rigid board-like uterus, and dark vaginal bleeding. Which condition is most likely?

Uterine rupture
Abruptio placentae (Correct answer)
Placenta previa
Premature rupture of membranes

Correct answer: Abruptio placentae

Abruptio placentae (placental abruption) classically presents with painful dark vaginal bleeding and uterine rigidity due to concealed or revealed retroplacental hemorrhage.

Question 123: A patient's urine turns orange-red after starting rifampicin. What should the nurse tell the patient?

This indicates severe kidney damage
This is a harmless expected side effect of rifampicin (Correct answer)
Increase oral fluid intake to 5 litres per day
Stop the medication immediately

Correct answer: This is a harmless expected side effect of rifampicin

Rifampicin causes harmless orange-red discolouration of urine, sweat, and tears; patients should be reassured this is expected and not a sign of harm.

Question 124: What are the DHA International Patient Safety Goals that nurses must know?

Only medication safety and fall prevention
There are no specific safety goals
Only hand hygiene
Patient identification, communication effectiveness, medication safety, surgical safety, infection reduction, and fall prevention (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Patient identification, communication effectiveness, medication safety, surgical safety, infection reduction, and fall prevention

DHA aligns with international patient safety goals covering: correct patient identification, effective communication, high-alert medication safety, correct site/procedure/patient surgery, HAI reduction, and fall prevention.

Question 125: A pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation presents with painless bright red vaginal bleeding. Which condition should be suspected first?

Abruptio placentae
Ectopic pregnancy
Threatened miscarriage
Placenta previa (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Placenta previa

Placenta previa classically presents with painless bright red vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester due to the low-lying placenta separating from the uterine wall.

Question 126: Which isolation precaution is required for a patient diagnosed with active pulmonary tuberculosis?

Contact precautions only
Droplet precautions only
Standard precautions alone
Airborne precautions with a negative pressure room (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Airborne precautions with a negative pressure room

Active pulmonary TB is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei; airborne precautions with a negative pressure isolation room are mandatory to prevent spread.

Question 127: Which nursing theorist developed the Hierarchy of Needs model commonly applied to patient care prioritisation?

Dorothea Orem
Florence Nightingale
Abraham Maslow (Correct answer)
Virginia Henderson

Correct answer: Abraham Maslow

Abraham Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, though a psychology model, is widely used in nursing to prioritise patient needs from physiological to self-actualisation.

Question 128: What is the DHA requirement for patient education and discharge planning?

Discharge instructions are optional
Only provide written instructions at discharge
Education is the physician's responsibility only
Begin discharge planning on admission, provide written and verbal education in the patient's language, and ensure understanding through teach-back method (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Begin discharge planning on admission, provide written and verbal education in the patient's language, and ensure understanding through teach-back method

DHA requires discharge planning to begin on admission, with patient education provided in the patient's preferred language using both written and verbal methods, with understanding verified through the teach-back method.

Question 129: In a patient with a nasogastric (NG) tube, how should the nurse verify correct tube placement before feeding?

Test with litmus paper placed in the mouth
Rely on patient comfort as indicator
Listen for air insufflation sounds only
Aspirate gastric contents and check pH (≤5.5) or confirm with X-ray (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Aspirate gastric contents and check pH (≤5.5) or confirm with X-ray

Aspirating gastric contents and checking pH ≤5.5 or confirming with X-ray are evidence-based methods to verify NG tube placement and prevent aspiration.

Question 130: A nurse observes variable decelerations on continuous fetal heart rate monitoring. What is the priority nursing action?

Notify the physician immediately
Increase IV fluid rate
Administer oxygen via face mask
Reposition the mother (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Reposition the mother

Variable decelerations are caused by umbilical cord compression; repositioning the mother (e.g., left lateral or knee-chest position) is the first action to relieve compression.

Question 131: Which route of drug administration has the fastest onset of action?

Subcutaneous (SC)
Intramuscular (IM)
Oral (PO)
Intravenous (IV) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Intravenous (IV)

Intravenous administration delivers drug directly into the bloodstream, bypassing absorption barriers and providing the fastest onset of therapeutic effect.

Question 132: A patient with a chest tube to water-seal drainage shows continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber. What does this indicate?

Suction level too high
Air leak in the system or lung (Correct answer)
Fluid drainage complete
Normal functioning

Correct answer: Air leak in the system or lung

Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber (not during respiration only) suggests an ongoing air leak, either from the patient's lung or a break in the drainage system.

Question 133: What is the DHA regulation regarding nurse administration of controlled substances?

Any nurse can administer controlled substances without verification
Controlled substances are only given by physicians
Controlled substances require dual-nurse verification, accurate documentation in the controlled drug register, and secure storage (Correct answer)
No special regulations exist

Correct answer: Controlled substances require dual-nurse verification, accurate documentation in the controlled drug register, and secure storage

DHA regulations require two nurses to verify controlled substance administration, with precise documentation in the controlled drug register including time, dose, patient, and both nurses' signatures, with medications stored in locked cabinets.

Question 134: A nurse is preparing to administer morphine 4 mg IV. The vial contains 10 mg/mL. How many mL should be drawn up?

1 mL
4 mL
0.4 mL (Correct answer)
0.04 mL

Correct answer: 0.4 mL

Using the formula: Dose required ÷ Concentration = 4 mg ÷ 10 mg/mL = 0.4 mL of the morphine solution.

Question 135: The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assesses which three patient responses?

Eye opening, verbal response, motor response (Correct answer)
Pulse, pressure, pupils
Pupil size, pain response, breathing
Orientation, memory, reflexes

Correct answer: Eye opening, verbal response, motor response

The GCS evaluates eye opening (4 points), verbal response (5 points), and motor response (6 points) to objectively quantify level of consciousness.

Question 136: Which complication is most commonly associated with prolonged bed rest in post-surgical patients?

Hyperkalaemia
Hyperglycaemia
Hypertension
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

Venous stasis from immobility during prolonged bed rest is the primary risk factor for deep vein thrombosis in post-surgical patients.

Question 137: Which measure is most effective in preventing the spread of communicable diseases in the community?

Antibiotic administration to entire communities
Isolation of all community members
Vaccination programmes and public health education (Correct answer)
Restricting access to healthcare facilities

Correct answer: Vaccination programmes and public health education

Vaccination creates population immunity (herd immunity) and public health education promotes hygiene and behaviour change, making these the most effective tools for preventing communicable disease spread.

Question 138: What is the DHA protocol for environmental cleaning of isolation rooms?

Enhanced cleaning with approved disinfectants, dedicated equipment, cleaning from clean to dirty areas, and terminal cleaning upon discharge (Correct answer)
Only clean after patient discharge
Clean the same as regular rooms
Cleaning is done by the patient's family

Correct answer: Enhanced cleaning with approved disinfectants, dedicated equipment, cleaning from clean to dirty areas, and terminal cleaning upon discharge

DHA requires enhanced environmental cleaning for isolation rooms using approved hospital-grade disinfectants, dedicated cleaning equipment, systematic clean-to-dirty progression, and thorough terminal cleaning at discharge.

Question 139: What is the 'six rights' framework used for in nursing practice?

Ensuring safe medication administration (Correct answer)
Discharge planning steps
Surgical time-out protocol
Patient admission checklist

Correct answer: Ensuring safe medication administration

The six rights (right patient, drug, dose, route, time, documentation) serve as a systematic safety framework to prevent medication administration errors.

Question 140: What is the DHA incident reporting system and when should nurses use it?

Only for serious harm events
Incident reporting is voluntary
Only when requested by management
Report all incidents, near-misses, and adverse events through the electronic incident reporting system within 24 hours (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Report all incidents, near-misses, and adverse events through the electronic incident reporting system within 24 hours

DHA requires reporting of all incidents including near-misses, adverse events, and sentinel events through the electronic reporting system within 24 hours, fostering a just culture of learning and improvement.

Question 141: What is the DHA protocol for high-alert medication administration?

High-alert medications do not require special handling
Require independent double-check by two qualified nurses, standardized concentrations, and distinct labeling (Correct answer)
Only require verbal confirmation
Treat the same as regular medications

Correct answer: Require independent double-check by two qualified nurses, standardized concentrations, and distinct labeling

DHA classifies certain medications as high-alert (insulin, anticoagulants, opioids, concentrated electrolytes) requiring independent double-checks, standardized concentrations, and distinctive labeling to prevent errors.

Question 142: Which nursing measure is most effective in preventing surgical site infections (SSI)?

Administering oral antibiotics without a prescription
Keeping the wound covered for six weeks without inspection
Applying topical antibiotics routinely to all wounds
Strict sterile technique during dressing changes and proper hand hygiene (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Strict sterile technique during dressing changes and proper hand hygiene

Maintaining sterile technique during wound care and rigorous hand hygiene are the most evidence-based measures to prevent surgical site infections.

Question 143: Which device is used to deliver the highest concentration of oxygen to a spontaneously breathing patient in the ICU?

Venturi mask (24–60% controlled O2)
Simple face mask (35–55% O2)
Nasal cannula (maximum ~44% O2)
Non-rebreather mask (delivers up to 90–100% O2) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Non-rebreather mask (delivers up to 90–100% O2)

A non-rebreather mask with an oxygen reservoir can deliver up to 90–100% inspired oxygen concentration, making it the highest delivery device for spontaneously breathing patients.

Question 144: What does 'non-maleficence' mean in healthcare ethics?

Acting for the patient's benefit
The obligation to avoid causing harm to the patient (Correct answer)
Respecting patient decisions
Distributing resources fairly

Correct answer: The obligation to avoid causing harm to the patient

Non-maleficence is the principle of 'do no harm,' requiring healthcare providers to avoid actions that may cause unnecessary harm, suffering, or risk to patients.

Question 145: Hand hygiene should be performed for at least how many seconds when using soap and water according to WHO guidelines?

40–60 seconds (Correct answer)
5–10 seconds
2 minutes
10–15 seconds

Correct answer: 40–60 seconds

WHO guidelines recommend 40–60 seconds of handwashing with soap and water to effectively remove pathogens and reduce healthcare-associated infections.

Question 146: What is the DHA protocol for managing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

Only provide high-flow oxygen
Lung-protective ventilation strategy, prone positioning, strict fluid management, and continuous monitoring of oxygenation and compliance (Correct answer)
ARDS is not managed in Dubai
Only increase oxygen to 100%

Correct answer: Lung-protective ventilation strategy, prone positioning, strict fluid management, and continuous monitoring of oxygenation and compliance

DHA ARDS management includes lung-protective ventilation (low tidal volumes 6ml/kg), prone positioning for 16+ hours, conservative fluid management, continuous SpO2/ABG monitoring, and sedation management.

Question 147: What is the purpose of the Braden Scale used in DHA healthcare facilities?

To measure pain levels
To assess a patient's risk for developing pressure injuries (Correct answer)
To evaluate fall risk
To calculate medication doses

Correct answer: To assess a patient's risk for developing pressure injuries

The Braden Scale assesses six risk factors (sensory perception, moisture, activity, mobility, nutrition, friction/shear) to predict pressure injury risk, guiding preventive interventions in DHA facilities.

Question 148: What scope of practice restrictions apply to DHA-licensed nurses?

Nurses can perform any medical procedure
Only restrictions apply to new graduates
Practice is limited to the scope defined by the nurse's qualification level, license category, and facility-specific credentialing (Correct answer)
There are no scope restrictions in Dubai

Correct answer: Practice is limited to the scope defined by the nurse's qualification level, license category, and facility-specific credentialing

DHA defines nursing scope of practice based on qualification level (enrolled nurse, registered nurse, specialist), license category, and individual facility credentialing and privileging processes.

Question 149: What is the DHA rapid response team activation criteria?

There are no specific criteria
Only senior nurses can activate the team
Only when cardiac arrest occurs
Defined triggers including acute change in heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, oxygen saturation, or consciousness level (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Defined triggers including acute change in heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, oxygen saturation, or consciousness level

DHA rapid response team activation is triggered by specific physiological criteria including acute changes in vital signs or consciousness level, allowing any concerned staff member to activate the team.

Question 150: Which dietary deficiency is most commonly associated with pressure ulcer development in hospitalised patients?

Vitamin C deficiency only
Iron deficiency anaemia
Protein and caloric malnutrition (Correct answer)
Excess sodium intake

Correct answer: Protein and caloric malnutrition

Protein and caloric malnutrition impair tissue repair, reduce immune defences, and decrease skin integrity, making patients significantly more prone to pressure ulcers.

Question 151: What hemodynamic monitoring parameters must DHA ICU nurses understand?

Hemodynamic monitoring is only for physicians
Only blood pressure and heart rate
Only oxygen saturation
Arterial blood pressure, central venous pressure, cardiac output, mean arterial pressure, and their clinical significance (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Arterial blood pressure, central venous pressure, cardiac output, mean arterial pressure, and their clinical significance

DHA ICU nurses must understand and monitor multiple hemodynamic parameters including arterial BP, CVP, cardiac output/index, MAP, SVR, and their significance for guiding fluid and vasopressor therapy.

Question 152: What are the 'Rights' of medication administration that DHA nurses must follow?

Right patient, right drug, right dose only
Right patient only
Right dose and right time only
Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time, right documentation, right reason, right response (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time, right documentation, right reason, right response

DHA extends the traditional '5 Rights' to include right documentation (recording administration), right reason (understanding the indication), and right response (monitoring for expected and adverse effects).

DHA Nursing Licensing Exam

The DHA Nursing exam is administered by the Dubai Health Authority via Prometric to assess the competency of nurses seeking licensure in Dubai, covering fundamentals of nursing, medical-surgical nursing, pharmacology, patient safety, critical care, infection control, and DHA licensing requirements.

150

Questions

180 min

Time Limit

60%

To Pass

Checking for saved progress...

Exam Rules

You can skip questions and return to them later
Flag questions for review before submitting
No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
Timer auto-submits when time runs out
Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds