DHA Nursing Licensing Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assesses which three patient responses?

Pulse, pressure, pupils
Orientation, memory, reflexes
Eye opening, verbal response, motor response (Correct answer)
Pupil size, pain response, breathing

Correct answer: Eye opening, verbal response, motor response

The GCS evaluates eye opening (4 points), verbal response (5 points), and motor response (6 points) to objectively quantify level of consciousness.

Question 2: How should DHA nurses handle contaminated linen?

Store in the patient room until end of shift
Place in designated color-coded bags at the point of use, minimize handling, and do not sort or rinse at the bedside (Correct answer)
Rinse before placing in laundry bag
Mix with regular laundry

Correct answer: Place in designated color-coded bags at the point of use, minimize handling, and do not sort or rinse at the bedside

DHA protocols require contaminated linen to be placed in appropriate color-coded bags at the point of use, handled minimally to reduce contamination spread, and never sorted or rinsed at the bedside.

Question 3: What is the DHA requirement for nurse competency assessment?

Annual competency assessments covering clinical skills, medication safety, emergency response, and infection control (Correct answer)
Only assessed during initial licensing
Only assessed when a complaint is filed
Self-assessment only

Correct answer: Annual competency assessments covering clinical skills, medication safety, emergency response, and infection control

DHA requires regular competency assessments covering core clinical skills, medication administration safety, emergency response procedures, and infection prevention practices, typically conducted annually.

Question 4: Which laboratory value is the primary indicator of kidney function monitored in medical-surgical patients?

White blood cell count
Haemoglobin
Serum creatinine (Correct answer)
Serum albumin

Correct answer: Serum creatinine

Serum creatinine is the most reliable routine indicator of glomerular filtration rate and overall kidney function in clinical settings.

Question 5: Which vaccination is part of the UAE national immunisation schedule for newborns at birth?

MMR vaccine
HPV vaccine
Influenza vaccine
Hepatitis B vaccine (first dose) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hepatitis B vaccine (first dose)

The UAE national immunisation schedule requires the first dose of hepatitis B vaccine to be administered at birth to prevent vertical (mother-to-child) transmission.

Question 6: Which antidote is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression?

Flumazenil
Protamine sulphate
Naloxone (Narcan) (Correct answer)
Atropine

Correct answer: Naloxone (Narcan)

Naloxone is a competitive opioid receptor antagonist that rapidly reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression, sedation, and analgesia.

Question 7: During a mass casualty incident in the UAE, which triage colour designates patients who are deceased or have unsurvivable injuries?

Yellow
Red
Green
Black (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Black

In the START triage system, black tags are assigned to patients who are deceased or have injuries incompatible with survival, indicating they will not receive active treatment.

Question 8: What are the DHA International Patient Safety Goals that nurses must know?

Patient identification, communication effectiveness, medication safety, surgical safety, infection reduction, and fall prevention (Correct answer)
Only hand hygiene
There are no specific safety goals
Only medication safety and fall prevention

Correct answer: Patient identification, communication effectiveness, medication safety, surgical safety, infection reduction, and fall prevention

DHA aligns with international patient safety goals covering: correct patient identification, effective communication, high-alert medication safety, correct site/procedure/patient surgery, HAI reduction, and fall prevention.

Question 9: Which device is used to deliver the highest concentration of oxygen to a spontaneously breathing patient in the ICU?

Non-rebreather mask (delivers up to 90–100% O2) (Correct answer)
Nasal cannula (maximum ~44% O2)
Simple face mask (35–55% O2)
Venturi mask (24–60% controlled O2)

Correct answer: Non-rebreather mask (delivers up to 90–100% O2)

A non-rebreather mask with an oxygen reservoir can deliver up to 90–100% inspired oxygen concentration, making it the highest delivery device for spontaneously breathing patients.

Question 10: During the third stage of labor, the nurse observes a sudden gush of blood and lengthening of the umbilical cord. What does this indicate?

Postpartum hemorrhage has occurred
Uterine inversion is imminent
Cord prolapse has occurred
Placental separation is complete (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Placental separation is complete

A sudden gush of blood and cord lengthening are the two classic signs that the placenta has separated from the uterine wall and is ready to be delivered.

Question 11: Which vital sign range indicates a normal adult respiratory rate?

6–10 breaths per minute
25–35 breaths per minute
12–20 breaths per minute (Correct answer)
40–50 breaths per minute

Correct answer: 12–20 breaths per minute

A normal adult respiratory rate is 12–20 breaths per minute; values outside this range may indicate respiratory compromise.

Question 12: When documenting patient care, which principle is essential for legal and professional accuracy?

Pencil is acceptable for hard-copy records
Documentation can be completed 24 hours after care
Personal opinions about the patient should be included
Record entries must be accurate, timely, objective, and signed (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Record entries must be accurate, timely, objective, and signed

Nursing documentation must be accurate, timely, objective, and properly signed to constitute a legally defensible and professionally sound record of care.

Question 13: What is the correct method to verify a patient's identity before administering medication?

Check the medication label alone
Ask only the patient's room number
Check two patient identifiers such as full name and date of birth (Correct answer)
Rely on the patient's verbal confirmation only

Correct answer: Check two patient identifiers such as full name and date of birth

Using two independent patient identifiers (e.g., full name and date of birth) minimises the risk of medication errors by confirming the right patient.

Question 14: A patient's blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. How is this classified?

Prehypertension
Hypotension (Correct answer)
Normal
Hypertension

Correct answer: Hypotension

A blood pressure reading of 90/60 mmHg falls below the normal threshold and is classified as hypotension, indicating a potentially inadequate perfusion pressure.

Question 15: A postpartum patient on day 5 reports a painful, warm, erythematous area on one breast accompanied by fever of 38.9°C and flu-like symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Mastitis (Correct answer)
Breast engorgement
Galactocele
Breast abscess

Correct answer: Mastitis

Mastitis is a breast infection typically occurring 2–5 weeks postpartum, presenting with localized pain, warmth, erythema, fever, and flu-like symptoms.

Question 16: Which ventilator alarm should prompt the nurse to assess the patient first for a disconnection or leak?

High pressure alarm
Low pressure / low minute volume alarm (Correct answer)
High respiratory rate alarm
High FiO2 alarm

Correct answer: Low pressure / low minute volume alarm

A low pressure or low minute volume alarm in a ventilated patient indicates loss of circuit integrity such as a disconnection, leak, or dislodged endotracheal tube.

Question 17: What does the principle of 'justice' mean in nursing ethics?

Distributing healthcare resources and treatment fairly and equitably (Correct answer)
Punishing unethical colleagues
Always prioritising high-paying patients
Referring all care decisions to the legal system

Correct answer: Distributing healthcare resources and treatment fairly and equitably

Justice in nursing ethics requires fair, equitable distribution of care and resources, ensuring all patients receive treatment based on need rather than social status or ability to pay.

Question 18: A mechanically ventilated patient develops sudden hypotension and absent breath sounds on one side. What complication should the nurse suspect?

Ventilator-associated pneumonia
Tension pneumothorax (Correct answer)
Aspiration pneumonia
Pulmonary embolism

Correct answer: Tension pneumothorax

Sudden hypotension with unilateral absent breath sounds in a ventilated patient is the hallmark presentation of tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening emergency.

Question 19: What is the DHA protocol for managing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

Only increase oxygen to 100%
Lung-protective ventilation strategy, prone positioning, strict fluid management, and continuous monitoring of oxygenation and compliance (Correct answer)
Only provide high-flow oxygen
ARDS is not managed in Dubai

Correct answer: Lung-protective ventilation strategy, prone positioning, strict fluid management, and continuous monitoring of oxygenation and compliance

DHA ARDS management includes lung-protective ventilation (low tidal volumes 6ml/kg), prone positioning for 16+ hours, conservative fluid management, continuous SpO2/ABG monitoring, and sedation management.

Question 20: What is the primary online portal used to apply for a DHA nursing license?

DubaiNow
TAMM
MOHAP Portal
Sheryan (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Sheryan

Sheryan is the DHA's official online licensing portal where healthcare professionals submit their licensing applications.

Question 21: What is the DHA nursing responsibility for organ donation management?

Only physicians manage organ donation
Nurses have no role in organ donation
Organ donation does not occur in UAE
Identify potential donors, notify the organ donation coordinator, maintain physiological stability of the donor, and support the family (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Identify potential donors, notify the organ donation coordinator, maintain physiological stability of the donor, and support the family

DHA nurses play key roles in organ donation: identifying potential donors through clinical triggers, notifying coordinators, maintaining donor physiological stability (hemodynamics, oxygenation, temperature), and providing family support.

Question 22: A patient is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory test is used to monitor therapeutic levels?

Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Complete blood count (CBC)
Prothrombin time / INR (PT/INR) (Correct answer)
Serum potassium

Correct answer: Prothrombin time / INR (PT/INR)

Warfarin's anticoagulant effect is monitored using PT/INR, which measures the extrinsic clotting pathway that warfarin inhibits.

Question 23: What is the DHA protocol for environmental cleaning of isolation rooms?

Cleaning is done by the patient's family
Clean the same as regular rooms
Only clean after patient discharge
Enhanced cleaning with approved disinfectants, dedicated equipment, cleaning from clean to dirty areas, and terminal cleaning upon discharge (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Enhanced cleaning with approved disinfectants, dedicated equipment, cleaning from clean to dirty areas, and terminal cleaning upon discharge

DHA requires enhanced environmental cleaning for isolation rooms using approved hospital-grade disinfectants, dedicated cleaning equipment, systematic clean-to-dirty progression, and thorough terminal cleaning at discharge.

Question 24: A nurse working in a UAE public health clinic is asked by an employer to falsify a patient's health record. What is the correct response?

Refuse and report the request through appropriate professional and legal channels (Correct answer)
Seek advice from colleagues before acting
Comply if a manager instructs it
Alter only minor details to satisfy the employer

Correct answer: Refuse and report the request through appropriate professional and legal channels

Falsifying health records is illegal and unethical; the nurse must refuse and report the request to the DHA or relevant professional body to protect patient safety and professional integrity.

Question 25: What is the DHA requirement for patient education and discharge planning?

Discharge instructions are optional
Begin discharge planning on admission, provide written and verbal education in the patient's language, and ensure understanding through teach-back method (Correct answer)
Education is the physician's responsibility only
Only provide written instructions at discharge

Correct answer: Begin discharge planning on admission, provide written and verbal education in the patient's language, and ensure understanding through teach-back method

DHA requires discharge planning to begin on admission, with patient education provided in the patient's preferred language using both written and verbal methods, with understanding verified through the teach-back method.

Question 26: In the UAE, what is the legal obligation of a nurse who suspects child abuse in a patient?

Keep it confidential to protect patient privacy
Notify only the family
Mandatory reporting to the relevant child protection authority (e.g., Ministry of Community Development) (Correct answer)
Only report if there is a visible fracture

Correct answer: Mandatory reporting to the relevant child protection authority (e.g., Ministry of Community Development)

UAE law and DHA professional guidelines require healthcare workers to mandatorily report suspected child abuse to the appropriate child protection authorities.

Question 27: Which assessment tool is commonly used to identify early clinical deterioration in ward patients before ICU transfer?

National Early Warning Score (NEWS2) (Correct answer)
SOFA score
APACHE II
Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

Correct answer: National Early Warning Score (NEWS2)

NEWS2 is a validated bedside scoring system using vital signs to detect early deterioration and trigger escalation of care before a patient reaches critical status.

Question 28: What does the term 'triage' mean in an emergency nursing context?

Discharging stable patients
Transferring patients between departments
Sorting patients by urgency to prioritise care (Correct answer)
Documenting patient allergies

Correct answer: Sorting patients by urgency to prioritise care

Triage is the systematic process of sorting patients according to the urgency of their condition to ensure those with the greatest need receive care first.

Question 29: What is the maximum single recommended dose of adrenaline (epinephrine) administered IV during adult cardiac arrest?

1 mg IV every 3–5 minutes (Correct answer)
0.1 mg IV every minute
10 mg IV once only
5 mg IV bolus every 2 minutes

Correct answer: 1 mg IV every 3–5 minutes

Current ACLS guidelines recommend 1 mg of IV epinephrine every 3–5 minutes during adult cardiac arrest to maintain coronary and cerebral perfusion pressure.

Question 30: In a patient with suspected anaphylaxis, which medication is the FIRST-LINE treatment?

IV corticosteroids (hydrocortisone)
Intramuscular adrenaline (epinephrine) 0.3–0.5 mg (Correct answer)
Nebulised salbutamol
IV antihistamine (diphenhydramine)

Correct answer: Intramuscular adrenaline (epinephrine) 0.3–0.5 mg

Intramuscular adrenaline is the first-line and most critical treatment for anaphylaxis, reversing vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, and preventing fatal cardiovascular collapse.

Question 31: What is the DHA policy on nurse staffing ratios in critical care units?

One nurse for the entire unit
No specific ratios are defined
Ratios are only guidelines, not mandatory
DHA mandates minimum nurse-to-patient ratios based on unit acuity, typically 1:1 or 1:2 for ICU settings (Correct answer)

Correct answer: DHA mandates minimum nurse-to-patient ratios based on unit acuity, typically 1:1 or 1:2 for ICU settings

DHA mandates minimum nurse-to-patient ratios that vary by unit type and acuity, with ICU typically requiring 1:1 or 1:2 ratios, ensuring adequate staffing for safe patient care.

Question 32: A patient in the ICU develops acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which ventilator strategy is recommended?

Continuous positive pressure at 20 cmH2O
High tidal volume ventilation to maximise oxygenation
Low tidal volume ventilation (lung-protective ventilation, 6 mL/kg ideal body weight) (Correct answer)
Spontaneous breathing without ventilator support

Correct answer: Low tidal volume ventilation (lung-protective ventilation, 6 mL/kg ideal body weight)

Lung-protective ventilation using low tidal volumes (6 mL/kg IBW) reduces ventilator-induced lung injury and is the evidence-based standard for ARDS management.

Question 33: A patient's urine turns orange-red after starting rifampicin. What should the nurse tell the patient?

This indicates severe kidney damage
Stop the medication immediately
Increase oral fluid intake to 5 litres per day
This is a harmless expected side effect of rifampicin (Correct answer)

Correct answer: This is a harmless expected side effect of rifampicin

Rifampicin causes harmless orange-red discolouration of urine, sweat, and tears; patients should be reassured this is expected and not a sign of harm.

Question 34: In adult basic life support (BLS), what is the correct chest compression rate?

130–150 compressions per minute
100–120 compressions per minute (Correct answer)
40–60 compressions per minute
60–80 compressions per minute

Correct answer: 100–120 compressions per minute

The American Heart Association and current BLS guidelines recommend a chest compression rate of 100–120 per minute to maintain adequate cardiac output during CPR.

Question 35: How should a DHA nurse calculate pediatric medication doses?

Use a standard dose for all children
Estimate based on the child's age
Use adult doses divided by half
Calculate based on the child's weight in kilograms using the mg/kg formula and verify against recommended dose ranges (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Calculate based on the child's weight in kilograms using the mg/kg formula and verify against recommended dose ranges

DHA pediatric medication dosing requires weight-based calculations using mg/kg formulas, verified against recommended dose ranges for the specific medication and age group, with mandatory independent double-checking.

Question 36: What quality indicators does DHA track for nursing practice?

No quality indicators are tracked for nursing
Only patient satisfaction scores
Only staffing ratios
Nurse-sensitive indicators including falls rate, pressure injury incidence, CLABSI rate, medication errors, and patient satisfaction (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Nurse-sensitive indicators including falls rate, pressure injury incidence, CLABSI rate, medication errors, and patient satisfaction

DHA tracks nursing-sensitive quality indicators including falls with injury rate, hospital-acquired pressure injury incidence, central line-associated bloodstream infection rates, medication error rates, and patient satisfaction.

Question 37: What hemodynamic monitoring parameters must DHA ICU nurses understand?

Hemodynamic monitoring is only for physicians
Only blood pressure and heart rate
Only oxygen saturation
Arterial blood pressure, central venous pressure, cardiac output, mean arterial pressure, and their clinical significance (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Arterial blood pressure, central venous pressure, cardiac output, mean arterial pressure, and their clinical significance

DHA ICU nurses must understand and monitor multiple hemodynamic parameters including arterial BP, CVP, cardiac output/index, MAP, SVR, and their significance for guiding fluid and vasopressor therapy.

Question 38: What is the DHA requirement for antibiotic stewardship in nursing practice?

Only physicians participate in stewardship
Ensure correct timing of antibiotic administration, obtain cultures before first dose, monitor for adverse effects, and report antibiotic duration (Correct answer)
Nurses have no role in antibiotic stewardship
Only administer antibiotics as ordered

Correct answer: Ensure correct timing of antibiotic administration, obtain cultures before first dose, monitor for adverse effects, and report antibiotic duration

DHA nursing responsibilities in antibiotic stewardship include timely administration (within 1 hour of order), obtaining cultures before first antibiotic dose, monitoring for adverse effects, and tracking treatment duration.

Question 39: Which IV fluid is isotonic and most commonly used for fluid resuscitation?

0.45% Hypotonic Saline
0.9% Normal Saline (NS) (Correct answer)
3% Hypertonic Saline
Dextrose 10% in Water

Correct answer: 0.9% Normal Saline (NS)

0.9% Normal Saline is isotonic (osmolality ~308 mOsm/L), making it the standard choice for extracellular fluid replacement and resuscitation.

Question 40: Before administering a blood transfusion, which nursing action is the most critical safety step?

Checking the patient's haemoglobin level
Taking the patient's blood pressure only
Hanging normal saline after the blood
Two-nurse verification of patient identity and blood product compatibility (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Two-nurse verification of patient identity and blood product compatibility

Two-nurse identity and blood product verification is the critical safety check that prevents transfusion reactions caused by administering incompatible blood.

Question 41: How long is a DHA nursing license typically valid before renewal is required?

5 years
1 year
2 years (Correct answer)
3 years

Correct answer: 2 years

DHA healthcare professional licenses are generally valid for two years, after which the practitioner must apply for renewal and fulfil CME requirements.

Question 42: Which nursing measure is most effective in preventing surgical site infections (SSI)?

Strict sterile technique during dressing changes and proper hand hygiene (Correct answer)
Keeping the wound covered for six weeks without inspection
Applying topical antibiotics routinely to all wounds
Administering oral antibiotics without a prescription

Correct answer: Strict sterile technique during dressing changes and proper hand hygiene

Maintaining sterile technique during wound care and rigorous hand hygiene are the most evidence-based measures to prevent surgical site infections.

Question 43: What is the DHA requirement for pain management in critically ill patients?

Pain assessment is only done once daily
Regular pain assessment using appropriate tools, multimodal analgesia, sedation-analgesia protocols, and daily sedation interruption trials (Correct answer)
Pain management is not a priority in ICU
Only administer morphine on request

Correct answer: Regular pain assessment using appropriate tools, multimodal analgesia, sedation-analgesia protocols, and daily sedation interruption trials

DHA requires systematic pain assessment using appropriate tools (CPOT, BPS for ventilated patients), multimodal analgesia approaches, protocol-guided sedation, and daily sedation vacation trials for ventilated patients.

Question 44: What is the DHA requirement for clinical handover between nursing shifts?

Informal chat between nurses
Structured bedside handover using SBAR format, including patient verification, current status, plan of care, and outstanding tasks (Correct answer)
Handover is optional
Written report only with no verbal communication

Correct answer: Structured bedside handover using SBAR format, including patient verification, current status, plan of care, and outstanding tasks

DHA requires structured bedside handover using the SBAR format, including patient identification verification, current clinical status, ongoing treatment plan, pending investigations, and outstanding tasks.

Question 45: A patient with type 2 diabetes is NPO for surgery. Which nursing action is most important regarding their antidiabetic medications?

Clarify with the physician which medications to hold or adjust (Correct answer)
Administer all medications as prescribed regardless
Discontinue all medications permanently
Double the morning insulin dose

Correct answer: Clarify with the physician which medications to hold or adjust

NPO status and surgical stress alter glucose metabolism; the nurse must clarify medication orders with the physician to prevent hypoglycaemia or dangerous hyperglycaemia.

Question 46: Which route of drug administration has the fastest onset of action?

Oral (PO)
Subcutaneous (SC)
Intramuscular (IM)
Intravenous (IV) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Intravenous (IV)

Intravenous administration delivers drug directly into the bloodstream, bypassing absorption barriers and providing the fastest onset of therapeutic effect.

Question 47: What is the purpose of the Braden Scale used in DHA healthcare facilities?

To calculate medication doses
To evaluate fall risk
To assess a patient's risk for developing pressure injuries (Correct answer)
To measure pain levels

Correct answer: To assess a patient's risk for developing pressure injuries

The Braden Scale assesses six risk factors (sensory perception, moisture, activity, mobility, nutrition, friction/shear) to predict pressure injury risk, guiding preventive interventions in DHA facilities.

Question 48: Which model of community nursing focuses on the family as the unit of care rather than the individual?

Hospital-centric model
Family-centred care model (Correct answer)
Individual patient model
Biomedical model

Correct answer: Family-centred care model

Family-centred care recognises that family dynamics, support, and health behaviours profoundly affect individual health outcomes, making the family the focus of nursing assessment and intervention.

Question 49: When applying sterile technique, which action would break sterility?

Opening a sterile package away from the body
Reaching across the sterile field (Correct answer)
Keeping sterile items at waist level
Wearing sterile gloves correctly

Correct answer: Reaching across the sterile field

Reaching across a sterile field allows non-sterile clothing or hands to contaminate the sterile area, breaking the principle of maintaining a contamination-free zone.

Question 50: What is the DHA nursing role in the management of sepsis?

Sepsis management is only a physician responsibility
Early recognition using screening tools, obtaining blood cultures, ensuring IV antibiotics within 1 hour, fluid resuscitation, and lactate monitoring (Correct answer)
Only monitor temperature
Only administer antibiotics

Correct answer: Early recognition using screening tools, obtaining blood cultures, ensuring IV antibiotics within 1 hour, fluid resuscitation, and lactate monitoring

DHA nurses play a critical role in sepsis management: screening for sepsis using validated tools, obtaining blood cultures before antibiotics, ensuring antibiotic administration within 1 hour, initiating fluid resuscitation, and monitoring lactate levels.

Question 51: A nurse observes variable decelerations on continuous fetal heart rate monitoring. What is the priority nursing action?

Increase IV fluid rate
Administer oxygen via face mask
Reposition the mother (Correct answer)
Notify the physician immediately

Correct answer: Reposition the mother

Variable decelerations are caused by umbilical cord compression; repositioning the mother (e.g., left lateral or knee-chest position) is the first action to relieve compression.

Question 52: What is the DHA requirement for surgical safety checklist compliance?

Mandatory completion of the WHO Surgical Safety Checklist (sign-in, time-out, sign-out) for all surgical procedures (Correct answer)
Optional for minor procedures
Only the surgeon needs to participate
Only required for cardiac surgery

Correct answer: Mandatory completion of the WHO Surgical Safety Checklist (sign-in, time-out, sign-out) for all surgical procedures

DHA mandates the WHO Surgical Safety Checklist for all surgical procedures, including sign-in (before anesthesia), time-out (before incision), and sign-out (before patient leaves OR), involving the entire surgical team.

Question 53: What is the DHA nursing role in managing patients receiving continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT)?

Only check the machine once per shift
CRRT does not require nursing monitoring
Monitor circuit pressures, anticoagulation, fluid balance hourly, electrolyte levels, and access site integrity (Correct answer)
CRRT is managed only by physicians

Correct answer: Monitor circuit pressures, anticoagulation, fluid balance hourly, electrolyte levels, and access site integrity

DHA ICU nurses managing CRRT must monitor circuit pressures and patency, anticoagulation therapy, strict hourly fluid balance calculations, electrolyte monitoring, and vascular access site assessment.

Question 54: A patient at 36 weeks gestation presents with sudden onset severe abdominal pain, a rigid board-like uterus, and dark vaginal bleeding. Which condition is most likely?

Uterine rupture
Premature rupture of membranes
Abruptio placentae (Correct answer)
Placenta previa

Correct answer: Abruptio placentae

Abruptio placentae (placental abruption) classically presents with painful dark vaginal bleeding and uterine rigidity due to concealed or revealed retroplacental hemorrhage.

Question 55: In the UAE, which government authority is responsible for national public health policy and health sector regulation?

Emirates Health Services (EHS)
Dubai Health Authority (DHA)
Ministry of Health and Prevention (MOHAP) (Correct answer)
Department of Health Abu Dhabi (DOH)

Correct answer: Ministry of Health and Prevention (MOHAP)

MOHAP is the federal government authority responsible for overall national health policy, regulation, and public health initiatives across the UAE.

Question 56: Which isolation precaution is required for a patient diagnosed with active pulmonary tuberculosis?

Droplet precautions only
Standard precautions alone
Contact precautions only
Airborne precautions with a negative pressure room (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Airborne precautions with a negative pressure room

Active pulmonary TB is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei; airborne precautions with a negative pressure isolation room are mandatory to prevent spread.

Question 57: What is the DHA protocol for management of needlestick injuries?

Report at end of shift
Apply antiseptic and continue working
Immediately wash with soap and water, report to occupational health, complete incident report, and initiate post-exposure prophylaxis assessment (Correct answer)
No action is needed if wearing gloves

Correct answer: Immediately wash with soap and water, report to occupational health, complete incident report, and initiate post-exposure prophylaxis assessment

DHA needlestick protocol requires immediate wound washing with soap and water (not squeezing), prompt reporting to occupational health, incident documentation, baseline blood tests, and PEP assessment within recommended timeframes.

Question 58: What is the purpose of conducting a medication reconciliation on patient admission?

To reduce the number of prescribed medications
To generate a billing statement
To educate the patient about diet
To accurately compare current medications and prevent omissions, duplications, or harmful interactions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To accurately compare current medications and prevent omissions, duplications, or harmful interactions

Medication reconciliation ensures a complete and accurate medication list at care transitions, preventing discrepancies that can lead to patient harm.

Question 59: What is the DHA protocol for managing a sentinel event?

Only complete an incident report
Immediate patient stabilization, notification of administration and risk management, root cause analysis, and implementation of corrective actions (Correct answer)
Sentinel events do not require special attention
Document and continue routine care

Correct answer: Immediate patient stabilization, notification of administration and risk management, root cause analysis, and implementation of corrective actions

DHA sentinel event management requires immediate patient care, administration notification, preservation of evidence, comprehensive root cause analysis, development of corrective action plans, and ongoing monitoring of improvements.

Question 60: A nurse is caring for a patient receiving a norepinephrine infusion for septic shock. What is the primary goal of this vasopressor therapy?

Raise diastolic blood pressure above 100 mmHg
Reduce fluid requirements to zero
Maintain mean arterial pressure (MAP) ≥65 mmHg to ensure organ perfusion (Correct answer)
Decrease heart rate to 60 bpm

Correct answer: Maintain mean arterial pressure (MAP) ≥65 mmHg to ensure organ perfusion

Norepinephrine is the first-line vasopressor in septic shock, titrated to maintain a MAP ≥65 mmHg to sustain adequate perfusion pressure to vital organs.

Question 61: A nurse is providing anticipatory guidance to a mother of a 2-year-old who refuses to eat vegetables. What is the most appropriate recommendation?

Refer immediately to a dietitian for nutritional deficiency testing
Force the child to eat vegetables at every meal
Replace vegetables with vitamin supplements indefinitely
Offer vegetables repeatedly in a positive, pressure-free environment (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Offer vegetables repeatedly in a positive, pressure-free environment

Repeated, low-pressure exposure to new foods helps toddlers gradually accept them; forcing food creates negative associations and power struggles.

Question 62: Which category of DHA nursing license is issued to a nurse who has met all requirements and has no practice restrictions?

Temporary License
Full License (Correct answer)
Provisional License
Trainee License

Correct answer: Full License

A Full License is awarded to nurses who have satisfied all DHA educational, experiential, examination, and verification requirements without restrictions.

Question 63: Digoxin toxicity is most likely to occur when a patient also has which electrolyte imbalance?

Hyperkalaemia (high potassium)
Hypercalcaemia (high calcium)
Hypernatraemia (high sodium)
Hypokalaemia (low potassium) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hypokalaemia (low potassium)

Hypokalaemia potentiates digoxin toxicity because potassium and digoxin compete for the same Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase receptor on cardiac cells; low potassium increases digoxin binding.

Question 64: What is the DHA requirement for patient allergy assessment before medication administration?

Allergy assessment is optional
Only check for drug allergies
Verify allergy status on admission, document in the medical record, apply allergy wristband, and check before each medication administration (Correct answer)
Ask only during the first medication dose

Correct answer: Verify allergy status on admission, document in the medical record, apply allergy wristband, and check before each medication administration

DHA requires comprehensive allergy assessment on admission covering drug, food, and environmental allergies, documentation in the record, allergy wristband application, and verification before each medication.

Question 65: A child with suspected bacterial meningitis is to undergo a lumbar puncture. What is the correct patient positioning for this procedure?

Sitting upright with arms raised above the head
Lateral recumbent with knees drawn to the chest (fetal position) (Correct answer)
Supine with arms extended overhead
Prone with a pillow under the abdomen

Correct answer: Lateral recumbent with knees drawn to the chest (fetal position)

The lateral recumbent fetal position maximally flexes the lumbar spine, widening the intervertebral spaces to facilitate safe needle insertion for lumbar puncture.

Question 66: What is the DHA blood gas interpretation competency required for ICU nurses?

Only monitor oxygen levels
Not a nursing competency
Interpret pH, PaCO2, PaO2, HCO3, base excess, and identify respiratory/metabolic acidosis/alkalosis (Correct answer)
Only physicians interpret blood gases

Correct answer: Interpret pH, PaCO2, PaO2, HCO3, base excess, and identify respiratory/metabolic acidosis/alkalosis

DHA requires ICU nurses to competently interpret arterial blood gas results including pH, PaCO2, PaO2, HCO3, and base excess to identify acid-base disturbances and oxygenation status for timely intervention.

Question 67: What is the DHA standard for restraint use in nursing practice?

Chemical restraint is always preferred
Restraints do not require documentation
Nurses can apply restraints at their discretion
Restraints require physician order, are used only as last resort, require continuous monitoring, and must be regularly reassessed for removal (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Restraints require physician order, are used only as last resort, require continuous monitoring, and must be regularly reassessed for removal

DHA restraint use requires a physician order, must be a last resort after alternative interventions, requires continuous patient monitoring with neurovascular checks, and must be reassessed regularly for earliest possible removal.

Question 68: A patient with a chest tube to water-seal drainage shows continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber. What does this indicate?

Air leak in the system or lung (Correct answer)
Suction level too high
Fluid drainage complete
Normal functioning

Correct answer: Air leak in the system or lung

Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber (not during respiration only) suggests an ongoing air leak, either from the patient's lung or a break in the drainage system.

Question 69: Which nursing action is most important BEFORE administering any new medication to a patient?

Double the dose if the patient is obese
Check for allergies and verify the five/six rights (Correct answer)
Ask the patient if they feel like taking the medication
Skip the check if the medication is over-the-counter

Correct answer: Check for allergies and verify the five/six rights

Verifying allergies and applying the five/six rights of medication administration are the fundamental safety steps that prevent adverse drug reactions and medication errors.

Question 70: A nurse suspects a patient has developed a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which classic sign should the nurse assess for?

Sudden severe headache
Chest tightness with diaphoresis
Unilateral calf pain, warmth, and swelling (Correct answer)
Bilateral ankle oedema with no pain

Correct answer: Unilateral calf pain, warmth, and swelling

Classic DVT signs include unilateral calf pain, localised warmth, and swelling due to thrombosis obstructing venous return in the affected limb.

Question 71: In a patient with a nasogastric (NG) tube, how should the nurse verify correct tube placement before feeding?

Rely on patient comfort as indicator
Listen for air insufflation sounds only
Test with litmus paper placed in the mouth
Aspirate gastric contents and check pH (≤5.5) or confirm with X-ray (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Aspirate gastric contents and check pH (≤5.5) or confirm with X-ray

Aspirating gastric contents and checking pH ≤5.5 or confirming with X-ray are evidence-based methods to verify NG tube placement and prevent aspiration.

Question 72: A nurse must administer potassium chloride (KCl) IV. Which statement is correct?

It can be given as a rapid IV push if diluted
KCl should be given subcutaneously if IV access is unavailable
Undiluted KCl can be administered if the patient is severely hypokalaemic
It must always be diluted and given slowly via infusion pump; never as an IV bolus (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It must always be diluted and given slowly via infusion pump; never as an IV bolus

IV potassium chloride must be diluted and infused slowly via pump because a rapid bolus can cause fatal cardiac arrhythmias.

Question 73: What surveillance activities must DHA nurses participate in for infection prevention?

Only completing annual surveys
Monitoring and reporting healthcare-associated infections, surgical site infections, device-related infections, and antimicrobial usage (Correct answer)
Only reporting outbreaks
No surveillance is required

Correct answer: Monitoring and reporting healthcare-associated infections, surgical site infections, device-related infections, and antimicrobial usage

DHA requires active surveillance participation including monitoring HAIs (CLABSI, CAUTI, VAP, SSI), reporting notifiable diseases, tracking antimicrobial usage, and participating in outbreak investigations.

Question 74: A patient on heparin infusion has an aPTT of 200 seconds (therapeutic range 60–100 seconds). What is the priority nursing action?

Hold the heparin infusion and notify the physician immediately (Correct answer)
Ignore the result and recheck in 6 hours
Increase the heparin infusion rate
Administer vitamin K

Correct answer: Hold the heparin infusion and notify the physician immediately

An aPTT of 200 seconds is significantly supratherapeutic, indicating a high bleeding risk; the infusion must be stopped and the physician notified for dose adjustment.

Question 75: Which action should a nurse take FIRST upon discovering an unresponsive patient?

Administer oxygen immediately
Obtain a 12-lead ECG
Assess responsiveness and call for help (Correct answer)
Insert an IV line

Correct answer: Assess responsiveness and call for help

The first step in an emergency is to assess the patient's responsiveness and activate the emergency response system to ensure help arrives promptly.

Question 76: What is the most common early sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in a neuro-surgical patient?

Vomiting without nausea
Hypertension alone
Bradycardia alone
Decreasing level of consciousness / altered mental status (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Decreasing level of consciousness / altered mental status

A change in level of consciousness is the earliest and most sensitive indicator of rising intracranial pressure as cerebral perfusion is compromised.

Question 77: Which document is mandatory when applying for a DHA nursing license as a foreign graduate?

Letter from a UAE hospital
Certificate of Good Standing from the home country licensing authority (Correct answer)
Local Emirates ID only
UAE residence visa only

Correct answer: Certificate of Good Standing from the home country licensing authority

A Certificate of Good Standing (or Letter of Good Standing) from the nurse's home country licensing authority confirms their professional standing and is required by DHA.

Question 78: A 3-day-old term newborn develops mild yellow discoloration of the skin and sclera. The nurse suspects which type of jaundice?

Physiological jaundice (Correct answer)
Breast milk jaundice
Pathological jaundice
ABO incompatibility hemolytic jaundice

Correct answer: Physiological jaundice

Physiological jaundice typically appears on days 2–3 in term newborns due to hepatic immaturity and breakdown of fetal hemoglobin, and is self-limiting.

Question 79: Which APGAR score component specifically assesses a newborn's muscle tone?

Pulse
Grimace
Activity (Correct answer)
Respiration

Correct answer: Activity

In the APGAR scoring system, 'Activity' (A) refers to muscle tone, scored from 0 (limp) to 2 (active flexion of limbs).

Question 80: A nurse discovers that a colleague has made a medication error but has not reported it. What should the nurse do?

Encourage the colleague to report the error and report it themselves if the colleague refuses (Correct answer)
Do nothing as it is not their responsibility
Report the colleague to the police immediately
Cover for the colleague to avoid embarrassment

Correct answer: Encourage the colleague to report the error and report it themselves if the colleague refuses

Patient safety requires that medication errors be reported; if a colleague refuses, the nurse has a professional and ethical duty to report the incident through proper channels.

Question 81: A nurse is preparing to administer morphine 4 mg IV. The vial contains 10 mg/mL. How many mL should be drawn up?

0.4 mL (Correct answer)
1 mL
4 mL
0.04 mL

Correct answer: 0.4 mL

Using the formula: Dose required ÷ Concentration = 4 mg ÷ 10 mg/mL = 0.4 mL of the morphine solution.

Question 82: According to DHA regulations, a nurse found to be practicing with an expired license is subject to which consequence?

Verbal warning only
Automatic license renewal
Transfer to Ministry of Health jurisdiction
Administrative fine and possible suspension (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Administrative fine and possible suspension

DHA enforces strict compliance; practicing with an expired license can result in administrative fines and potential suspension of the practitioner from Dubai healthcare facilities.

Question 83: What is the correct nursing intervention for a patient experiencing a generalised tonic-clonic seizure?

Insert a tongue depressor to prevent biting
Give oral medication immediately
Restrain the patient's limbs firmly
Protect the patient from injury, position on side, and time the seizure (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Protect the patient from injury, position on side, and time the seizure

During a seizure, nurses must protect the patient from injury, turn them to the side to prevent aspiration, and time the event to guide medical management.

Question 84: What continuing education does DHA require for nurses regarding medication safety?

No continuing education is required
Annual medication safety competency assessments, updates on new medications and protocols, and high-alert medication training (Correct answer)
Education only after a medication error occurs
Only orientation training

Correct answer: Annual medication safety competency assessments, updates on new medications and protocols, and high-alert medication training

DHA requires ongoing medication safety education including annual competency assessments, updates on formulary changes and new medications, high-alert medication training, and participation in safety improvement initiatives.

Question 85: A patient post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) reports sudden onset chest pain and shortness of breath on day 2. What should the nurse assess first?

Pain scale rating
Last bowel movement
Airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs) (Correct answer)
Urine output only

Correct answer: Airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs)

Following cardiac surgery, sudden chest pain and dyspnoea may indicate life-threatening complications such as cardiac tamponade or pulmonary embolism, requiring immediate ABC assessment.

Question 86: Which method is the most accurate for measuring body temperature in an unconscious adult?

Oral thermometry
Tympanic thermometry
Axillary thermometry
Rectal thermometry (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Rectal thermometry

Rectal temperature measurement is the most accurate core temperature method for unconscious adults as it closely reflects internal body temperature without patient cooperation.

Question 87: What is the normal resting heart rate range for a healthy term newborn?

60–100 bpm
140–200 bpm
80–120 bpm
100–160 bpm (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 100–160 bpm

A normal resting heart rate for a term newborn is 100–160 bpm; rates below 100 bpm (bradycardia) or above 160 bpm at rest may require evaluation.

Question 88: Insulin glargine (Lantus) is classified as which type of insulin?

Intermediate-acting insulin
Long-acting basal insulin (Correct answer)
Short-acting regular insulin
Rapid-acting insulin

Correct answer: Long-acting basal insulin

Insulin glargine is a long-acting basal insulin with a relatively flat, peakless profile lasting approximately 24 hours, used to control fasting blood glucose.

Question 89: A patient returns from colostomy surgery. What should the nurse teach regarding stoma colour?

The stoma should be moist and pink or red; a dark or black colour indicates ischaemia (Correct answer)
A pale white stoma is normal
A black stoma is expected in the first week
Stoma colour is irrelevant to stoma health

Correct answer: The stoma should be moist and pink or red; a dark or black colour indicates ischaemia

A healthy stoma is moist and pink-to-red due to good blood supply; a dark or black stoma signals ischaemia and requires immediate medical attention.

Question 90: How should a DHA nurse manage a medication error?

Hide the error to avoid consequences
Immediately assess the patient, notify the physician, document the incident, complete an incident report, and participate in root cause analysis (Correct answer)
Only tell the charge nurse
Wait to see if the patient shows symptoms

Correct answer: Immediately assess the patient, notify the physician, document the incident, complete an incident report, and participate in root cause analysis

DHA medication error management requires immediate patient assessment, physician notification, accurate documentation, incident reporting through the facility's reporting system, and participation in review processes for learning.

Question 91: What is the primary purpose of a nursing care plan?

To provide a structured, individualised roadmap for patient care (Correct answer)
To document billing information
To communicate with insurance companies
To record medication costs

Correct answer: To provide a structured, individualised roadmap for patient care

A nursing care plan provides a systematic, individualised guide that coordinates nursing interventions and goals to meet each patient's specific health needs.

Question 92: Which of the following best describes the primary prevention strategy for type 2 diabetes in a UAE community programme?

Treating diagnosed diabetics with medication
Mass screening of the population for diabetes
Promoting healthy diet, physical activity, and weight management to prevent disease onset (Correct answer)
Providing free insulin to at-risk individuals

Correct answer: Promoting healthy diet, physical activity, and weight management to prevent disease onset

Primary prevention of type 2 diabetes targets modifiable risk factors through lifestyle interventions—diet, exercise, and weight management—before the disease develops.

Question 93: A patient with Cushing's syndrome is most at risk for which metabolic complication?

Hypocalcaemia
Hypoglycaemia
Hyponatraemia
Hyperglycaemia and diabetes mellitus (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hyperglycaemia and diabetes mellitus

Excess cortisol in Cushing's syndrome promotes gluconeogenesis and insulin resistance, leading to hyperglycaemia and secondary diabetes mellitus.

Question 94: What are the DHA requirements for sterile technique during central line dressing changes?

No specific technique is required
Only hand washing is required
Clean technique is sufficient
Full aseptic technique including sterile gloves, mask, cap, sterile drapes, and chlorhexidine skin antisepsis (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Full aseptic technique including sterile gloves, mask, cap, sterile drapes, and chlorhexidine skin antisepsis

DHA requires maximal sterile barrier precautions for central line dressing changes including sterile gloves, mask, cap, sterile drapes, and chlorhexidine-based antiseptic for skin preparation to prevent CLABSI.

Question 95: What is the correct needle angle for an intradermal (ID) injection?

30–45 degrees
45 degrees
5–15 degrees (Correct answer)
90 degrees

Correct answer: 5–15 degrees

Intradermal injections are administered at a 5–15 degree angle with the bevel up, delivering small volumes just beneath the skin surface to form a wheal.

Question 96: Which finding indicates fluid volume excess (hypervolaemia) in a medical-surgical patient?

Hypotension and tachycardia
Dry mucous membranes and poor skin turgor
Concentrated urine and thirst
Bounding pulse, crackles in lung bases, and peripheral oedema (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Bounding pulse, crackles in lung bases, and peripheral oedema

Fluid volume excess causes increased vascular pressure, leading to a bounding pulse, pulmonary oedema heard as crackles, and peripheral oedema from fluid shifting into tissues.

Question 97: A nurse assesses a breastfed newborn on day 5 of life. Which finding best indicates adequate milk intake?

Infant feeds only when visibly distressed
2–3 wet diapers per day
6–8 wet diapers per day (Correct answer)
Infant sleeps for 6-hour stretches

Correct answer: 6–8 wet diapers per day

By day 4–5, a well-hydrated, adequately fed newborn should produce 6–8 wet diapers per day, indicating sufficient fluid and caloric intake.

Question 98: What is the DHA requirement for mandatory reporting by nurses?

Nurses must report suspected child abuse, elder abuse, communicable diseases, and any condition threatening public health (Correct answer)
Reporting is only required by physicians
Only report medication errors
Reporting is never mandatory

Correct answer: Nurses must report suspected child abuse, elder abuse, communicable diseases, and any condition threatening public health

DHA legally requires nurses to report suspected abuse (child, elder, domestic), notifiable communicable diseases, and conditions posing a threat to public health, with protection from retaliation for good-faith reporting.

Question 99: What are the 'Rights' of medication administration that DHA nurses must follow?

Right patient, right drug, right dose only
Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time, right documentation, right reason, right response (Correct answer)
Right patient only
Right dose and right time only

Correct answer: Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time, right documentation, right reason, right response

DHA extends the traditional '5 Rights' to include right documentation (recording administration), right reason (understanding the indication), and right response (monitoring for expected and adverse effects).

Question 100: What is the DHA protocol for managing a patient on mechanical ventilation?

Only monitor oxygen saturation
Continuous monitoring of ventilator parameters, regular ABG analysis, oral care every 4 hours, and VAP prevention bundle compliance (Correct answer)
Set ventilator and check once daily
Mechanical ventilation does not require nursing assessment

Correct answer: Continuous monitoring of ventilator parameters, regular ABG analysis, oral care every 4 hours, and VAP prevention bundle compliance

DHA ICU nursing requires continuous ventilator monitoring (tidal volumes, pressures, FiO2), regular ABG analysis, oral care with chlorhexidine every 4 hours, head-of-bed elevation, and full VAP prevention bundle compliance.

Question 101: Which DHA category covers nurses with advanced specialisation such as nurse practitioners or clinical nurse specialists?

Registered Nurse (General)
Advanced Practice Nurse (APN) (Correct answer)
Healthcare Assistant
Nursing Aide

Correct answer: Advanced Practice Nurse (APN)

DHA's Advanced Practice Nurse category recognises nurses with postgraduate qualifications and expanded clinical roles beyond those of a general registered nurse.

Question 102: Which drug interaction is a contraindication when a patient is taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)?

Paracetamol (acetaminophen)
Standard saline IV fluids
Tyramine-rich foods and sympathomimetic drugs (Correct answer)
Vitamin C supplements

Correct answer: Tyramine-rich foods and sympathomimetic drugs

MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of tyramine and catecholamines; consuming tyramine-rich foods or sympathomimetics can trigger a hypertensive crisis.

Question 103: What is the DHA nursing protocol for assessing a patient's fall risk?

Fall risk assessment is optional
Use a validated fall risk assessment tool on admission, after a fall, with any change in condition, and at regular intervals (Correct answer)
Only assess surgical patients
Only assess patients over 65 years old

Correct answer: Use a validated fall risk assessment tool on admission, after a fall, with any change in condition, and at regular intervals

DHA requires fall risk assessment using validated tools (such as the Morse Fall Scale) on admission, after any fall event, whenever the patient's condition changes, and at regular intervals throughout hospitalization.

Question 104: What is the DHA protocol for targeted temperature management after cardiac arrest?

Only use ice packs
Temperature management is not performed in Dubai
Maintain target temperature of 32-36°C using cooling devices, continuous temperature monitoring, and sedation management (Correct answer)
Only cool the patient to room temperature

Correct answer: Maintain target temperature of 32-36°C using cooling devices, continuous temperature monitoring, and sedation management

DHA post-cardiac arrest care includes targeted temperature management at 32-36°C using specialized cooling devices, continuous core temperature monitoring, appropriate sedation, and prevention of shivering.

Question 105: A nurse is evaluating developmental milestones in a 12-month-old child during a well-baby visit. Which milestone is expected at this age?

Forming 3-word sentences
Running and climbing stairs
Drawing a straight line
Walking independently (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Walking independently

Walking independently is a gross motor milestone typically achieved by 12 months; running, 3-word sentences, and drawing develop later at 18–24 months.

Question 106: What is the minimum duration for alcohol-based hand rub application according to DHA standards?

1 minute
20-30 seconds covering all surfaces of both hands until dry (Correct answer)
5 seconds
10 seconds

Correct answer: 20-30 seconds covering all surfaces of both hands until dry

DHA standards require alcohol-based hand rub to be applied to all surfaces of both hands and rubbed together for 20-30 seconds until completely dry to ensure effective microbial reduction.

Question 107: Which position is recommended for a patient experiencing respiratory distress to maximise lung expansion?

Trendelenburg
High Fowler's (90°) (Correct answer)
Supine
Prone

Correct answer: High Fowler's (90°)

High Fowler's position at 90 degrees allows maximum diaphragm descent and lung expansion, improving oxygenation in patients with breathing difficulty.

Question 108: What minimum English language proficiency score is generally accepted by DHA for nursing applicants?

TOEFL 80
IELTS 7.5 overall
No English test required
IELTS 6.0 overall or OET Grade B (Correct answer)

Correct answer: IELTS 6.0 overall or OET Grade B

DHA typically requires a minimum IELTS overall band of 6.0 or an OET Grade B to ensure nurses can communicate safely with patients and colleagues.

Question 109: Which dietary deficiency is most commonly associated with pressure ulcer development in hospitalised patients?

Vitamin C deficiency only
Excess sodium intake
Iron deficiency anaemia
Protein and caloric malnutrition (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Protein and caloric malnutrition

Protein and caloric malnutrition impair tissue repair, reduce immune defences, and decrease skin integrity, making patients significantly more prone to pressure ulcers.

Question 110: Which type of wound drainage is thin, watery, and blood-tinged?

Purulent
Serous
Sanguineous
Serosanguineous (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Serosanguineous

Serosanguineous drainage is a mixture of serum and blood, appearing pale pink and watery, commonly seen in the early stages of wound healing.

Question 111: What is the DHA requirement for medication administration using barcode scanning?

Only scan the medication package
Barcode scanning replaces all other checks
Barcode scanning is optional
Scan patient wristband and medication barcode at point of care to verify the 'five rights' electronically before administration (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Scan patient wristband and medication barcode at point of care to verify the 'five rights' electronically before administration

DHA requires barcode medication administration (BCMA) scanning of both the patient wristband and medication at the point of care to electronically verify patient identity and medication accuracy.

Question 112: During the assessment of a laboring patient, the nurse observes the fetal head visible at the vaginal opening without retraction between contractions. This is known as:

Engagement
Effacement
Crowning (Correct answer)
Station +2

Correct answer: Crowning

Crowning occurs when the widest diameter of the fetal head is visible at the vaginal opening and does not retract between contractions, indicating imminent delivery.

Question 113: If a DHA-licensed nurse commits a serious professional misconduct, which DHA body handles the disciplinary case?

Healthcare Professionals Qualifications Committee (Correct answer)
UAE Nurses Syndicate
Dubai Police
Ministry of Interior

Correct answer: Healthcare Professionals Qualifications Committee

The DHA's Healthcare Professionals Qualifications Committee oversees professional conduct investigations and disciplinary actions against licensed practitioners.

Question 114: What is the DHA requirement for healthcare worker vaccination?

Mandatory vaccinations including Hepatitis B, influenza, and other role-specific immunizations as per DHA occupational health policy (Correct answer)
Vaccination is optional for all staff
No vaccinations are required
Only Hepatitis B vaccination is required

Correct answer: Mandatory vaccinations including Hepatitis B, influenza, and other role-specific immunizations as per DHA occupational health policy

DHA requires healthcare workers to maintain current vaccinations including Hepatitis B (with confirmed immunity), annual influenza vaccination, and other immunizations based on role and patient population exposure.

Question 115: According to WHO classification, what birth weight defines a newborn as having low birth weight (LBW)?

Less than 3.0 kg
Less than 3.5 kg
Less than 2.0 kg
Less than 2.5 kg (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Less than 2.5 kg

The WHO defines low birth weight as a birth weight of less than 2,500 grams (2.5 kg), regardless of gestational age.

Question 116: Which stage of labor begins with complete cervical dilation and ends with delivery of the baby?

Second stage (Correct answer)
Fourth stage
Third stage
First stage

Correct answer: Second stage

The second stage of labor spans from full (10 cm) cervical dilation to the birth of the baby, during which the mother actively pushes.

Question 117: Which assessment finding in a post-thyroidectomy patient requires immediate nursing action?

Mild throat soreness
Tetany, tingling around the mouth, and positive Trousseau's sign (Correct answer)
Slight hoarseness on day one
Low-grade fever of 37.5°C

Correct answer: Tetany, tingling around the mouth, and positive Trousseau's sign

Tetany and positive Trousseau's sign indicate hypocalcaemia due to accidental parathyroid gland damage during thyroidectomy, a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention.

Question 118: Which level of prevention focuses on early detection of disease through screening programmes?

Secondary prevention (Correct answer)
Primary prevention
Quaternary prevention
Tertiary prevention

Correct answer: Secondary prevention

Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat disease at an early stage through screening, reducing disease progression and complications.

Question 119: What is the DHA protocol for safe patient transport within the hospital?

Pre-transport assessment, appropriate monitoring equipment, emergency medications, trained escort, and communication with receiving area (Correct answer)
No special preparations are needed
Only ICU patients need transport preparation
Only send the patient with a porter

Correct answer: Pre-transport assessment, appropriate monitoring equipment, emergency medications, trained escort, and communication with receiving area

DHA requires pre-transport stability assessment, portable monitoring equipment, emergency medications and airway equipment, trained clinical escort appropriate to acuity, and prior communication with the receiving department.

Question 120: Which nursing intervention is the priority for a patient in hypovolaemic shock?

Rapid IV fluid resuscitation to restore circulating volume (Correct answer)
Administering antihypertensives
Elevating the head of the bed to 90°
Restricting all oral fluids

Correct answer: Rapid IV fluid resuscitation to restore circulating volume

Hypovolaemic shock results from inadequate circulating volume; rapid IV fluid resuscitation is the cornerstone treatment to restore perfusion pressure.

Question 121: What is the 'six rights' framework used for in nursing practice?

Ensuring safe medication administration (Correct answer)
Patient admission checklist
Discharge planning steps
Surgical time-out protocol

Correct answer: Ensuring safe medication administration

The six rights (right patient, drug, dose, route, time, documentation) serve as a systematic safety framework to prevent medication administration errors.

Question 122: What type of isolation precautions does DHA require for a patient with active pulmonary tuberculosis?

Airborne precautions including negative pressure room, N95 respirator, and restricted entry (Correct answer)
Standard precautions only
Contact precautions only
Droplet precautions only

Correct answer: Airborne precautions including negative pressure room, N95 respirator, and restricted entry

Active pulmonary TB requires airborne precautions: placement in a negative pressure isolation room, N95 respirator use by all entering staff, and restricted visitor access as per DHA infection control policies.

Question 123: A 2-year-old presents with a barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and low-grade fever. Which condition is most likely?

Acute asthma
Epiglottitis
Bronchiolitis
Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)

Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) is characterized by a distinctive barking or seal-like cough, inspiratory stridor, and mild fever, typically caused by parainfluenza virus.

Question 124: What is the DHA protocol for high-alert medication administration?

Only require verbal confirmation
Treat the same as regular medications
Require independent double-check by two qualified nurses, standardized concentrations, and distinct labeling (Correct answer)
High-alert medications do not require special handling

Correct answer: Require independent double-check by two qualified nurses, standardized concentrations, and distinct labeling

DHA classifies certain medications as high-alert (insulin, anticoagulants, opioids, concentrated electrolytes) requiring independent double-checks, standardized concentrations, and distinctive labeling to prevent errors.

Question 125: What is the correct sequence of the nursing process?

Implementation, Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Evaluation
Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation (Correct answer)
Planning, Assessment, Diagnosis, Implementation, Evaluation
Diagnosis, Assessment, Planning, Evaluation, Implementation

Correct answer: Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation

The nursing process follows the ADPIE sequence: Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation to provide systematic patient care.

Question 126: What is the DHA guideline for look-alike/sound-alike (LASA) medication management?

LASA medications do not exist in Dubai
Only store alphabetically
No special precautions are needed
Separate storage, use tall-man lettering, alert stickers, and include both generic and brand names on orders to prevent confusion (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Separate storage, use tall-man lettering, alert stickers, and include both generic and brand names on orders to prevent confusion

DHA requires special handling of LASA medications including physical separation in storage, tall-man lettering (e.g., DOPamine vs DOBUTamine), alert stickers, and inclusion of both names on prescriptions.

Question 127: Which social determinant of health most strongly correlates with poor health outcomes in UAE migrant worker populations?

Excessive screen time
Crowded living conditions, limited healthcare access, and occupational hazards (Correct answer)
High sugar consumption only
Air conditioning use

Correct answer: Crowded living conditions, limited healthcare access, and occupational hazards

UAE migrant workers often live in overcrowded labour camps with limited healthcare access and exposure to occupational hazards, which are well-documented social determinants of poor health.

Question 128: How should a DHA nurse perform a pain assessment for a non-verbal patient?

Use behavioral pain assessment tools such as the FLACC scale or CPOT, observing facial expressions, body movements, and vital signs (Correct answer)
Assume no pain if the patient is not crying
Ask the physician to assess pain
Only assess pain when family members are present

Correct answer: Use behavioral pain assessment tools such as the FLACC scale or CPOT, observing facial expressions, body movements, and vital signs

For non-verbal patients, DHA nurses use validated behavioral pain assessment tools (FLACC, CPOT, BPS) that evaluate facial expressions, body movements, muscle tension, and physiological indicators.

Question 129: Which ECG finding is the hallmark of ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)?

ST segment elevation of ≥1 mm in two or more contiguous leads (Correct answer)
T-wave inversion in one lead
Prolonged PR interval
Widened QRS complex only

Correct answer: ST segment elevation of ≥1 mm in two or more contiguous leads

STEMI is diagnosed by ST elevation of ≥1 mm in two or more anatomically contiguous leads, indicating complete occlusion of a coronary artery requiring urgent reperfusion.

Question 130: What does the SBAR communication tool stand for?

Signs, Background, Advice, Report
Status, Background, Action, Review
Situation, Breathing, Assessment, Response
Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation

SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) is a structured communication framework that improves clarity and safety during handoffs and urgent patient notifications.

Question 131: What is the DHA protocol for preventing patient falls?

Only restrain high-risk patients
Falls prevention is not a nursing responsibility
Conduct risk assessment on admission, implement individualized prevention strategies, ensure safe environment, and report all falls through incident reporting (Correct answer)
Only provide non-slip socks

Correct answer: Conduct risk assessment on admission, implement individualized prevention strategies, ensure safe environment, and report all falls through incident reporting

DHA fall prevention includes risk assessment using validated tools, individualized care plans (bed alarms, non-slip footwear, clear pathways, toileting schedules), environmental safety checks, and mandatory fall reporting.

Question 132: Which arterial blood gas (ABG) finding is consistent with respiratory acidosis?

pH < 7.35 with PaCO2 < 35 mmHg
pH < 7.35 with PaCO2 > 45 mmHg (Correct answer)
pH > 7.45 with PaCO2 < 35 mmHg
pH > 7.45 with PaCO2 > 45 mmHg

Correct answer: pH < 7.35 with PaCO2 > 45 mmHg

Respiratory acidosis is characterised by a low pH below 7.35 combined with CO2 retention (PaCO2 > 45 mmHg), reflecting inadequate ventilation.

Question 133: What telehealth regulations apply to DHA-licensed nurses?

Telehealth is not permitted for nurses
Telehealth has no specific regulations
Only physicians can provide telehealth
Nurses may provide telehealth services within their scope of practice following DHA telehealth guidelines and documentation requirements (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Nurses may provide telehealth services within their scope of practice following DHA telehealth guidelines and documentation requirements

DHA allows nurses to provide telehealth services within their defined scope of practice, following specific DHA telehealth guidelines covering consent, documentation, privacy, and technical requirements.

Question 134: Hand hygiene should be performed for at least how many seconds when using soap and water according to WHO guidelines?

10–15 seconds
2 minutes
40–60 seconds (Correct answer)
5–10 seconds

Correct answer: 40–60 seconds

WHO guidelines recommend 40–60 seconds of handwashing with soap and water to effectively remove pathogens and reduce healthcare-associated infections.

Question 135: A patient's SpO2 drops to 88% on room air. What is the nurse's immediate priority?

Order a chest X-ray first
Apply supplemental oxygen and reassess (Correct answer)
Document the finding and wait for rounds
Administer IV morphine

Correct answer: Apply supplemental oxygen and reassess

An SpO2 of 88% indicates significant hypoxaemia; immediate supplemental oxygen is required to restore adequate tissue oxygenation.

Question 136: What is the DHA regulation regarding nurse administration of controlled substances?

Controlled substances are only given by physicians
Any nurse can administer controlled substances without verification
Controlled substances require dual-nurse verification, accurate documentation in the controlled drug register, and secure storage (Correct answer)
No special regulations exist

Correct answer: Controlled substances require dual-nurse verification, accurate documentation in the controlled drug register, and secure storage

DHA regulations require two nurses to verify controlled substance administration, with precise documentation in the controlled drug register including time, dose, patient, and both nurses' signatures, with medications stored in locked cabinets.

Question 137: What are the WHO 'Five Moments for Hand Hygiene' that DHA nurses must follow?

Only after patient contact
Only before procedures
Before patient contact, before aseptic procedure, after body fluid exposure, after patient contact, after touching patient surroundings (Correct answer)
Before and after meals only

Correct answer: Before patient contact, before aseptic procedure, after body fluid exposure, after patient contact, after touching patient surroundings

DHA follows the WHO Five Moments: before touching a patient, before clean/aseptic procedures, after body fluid exposure risk, after touching a patient, and after touching patient surroundings.

Question 138: Which type of wound healing occurs when wound edges are surgically approximated and closed?

Secondary intention
Primary intention (Correct answer)
Tertiary intention
Delayed primary closure

Correct answer: Primary intention

Primary intention healing occurs when clean wound edges are brought together (e.g., by sutures or staples), allowing rapid healing with minimal scarring.

Question 139: What is the DHA protocol for monitoring patients receiving blood transfusions?

No monitoring is required for blood transfusions
Monitor vital signs at baseline, 15 minutes, 30 minutes, hourly during transfusion, and post-transfusion, watching for transfusion reactions (Correct answer)
Check vital signs only before starting
Only monitor the drip rate

Correct answer: Monitor vital signs at baseline, 15 minutes, 30 minutes, hourly during transfusion, and post-transfusion, watching for transfusion reactions

DHA blood transfusion monitoring requires vital signs at baseline, 15 minutes after starting, then at 30-minute to hourly intervals during the transfusion, and after completion, with continuous observation for reactions.

Question 140: What is the DHA protocol for managing multidrug-resistant organism (MDRO) infections?

Only antibiotics are needed
Contact precautions with gowning, gloving, dedicated equipment, enhanced environmental cleaning, and antimicrobial stewardship (Correct answer)
Isolation is not required for MDRO
No special precautions beyond standard

Correct answer: Contact precautions with gowning, gloving, dedicated equipment, enhanced environmental cleaning, and antimicrobial stewardship

DHA MDRO management includes contact precautions (gown and gloves), dedicated patient equipment, enhanced environmental cleaning, active surveillance cultures, and antimicrobial stewardship to prevent spread.

Question 141: A nurse notes that a prescribed medication has a narrow therapeutic index. What does this mean clinically?

Only one dose per day is required
The drug is safe at any dose
The difference between the therapeutic dose and the toxic dose is small, requiring careful monitoring (Correct answer)
The drug has no side effects

Correct answer: The difference between the therapeutic dose and the toxic dose is small, requiring careful monitoring

A narrow therapeutic index means the effective and toxic plasma concentrations are close together, requiring frequent monitoring of drug levels and patient response.

Question 142: What is the correct sequence for defibrillation using an AED?

Start CPR, shock after 5 cycles, then attach AED
Attach pads, shock immediately without analysis, then assess
Power on, attach pads, analyse rhythm, deliver shock if advised, resume CPR (Correct answer)
Assess pulse first, then attach pads, shock if pulseless

Correct answer: Power on, attach pads, analyse rhythm, deliver shock if advised, resume CPR

AED use follows: power on, attach pads to dry skin, allow rhythm analysis, deliver the shock if advised, then immediately resume CPR for 2 minutes.

Question 143: What is the recommended frequency for neurological observations using the Glasgow Coma Scale in DHA acute care settings?

Once per nursing shift
Once daily
Only on admission
Every 15 minutes to 4 hours depending on patient acuity and clinical condition (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Every 15 minutes to 4 hours depending on patient acuity and clinical condition

DHA protocols require neurological observations at frequencies determined by patient acuity: every 15 minutes for acute neurosurgical patients, progressing to 1-4 hourly as the patient stabilizes.

Question 144: What does a DHA nurse need to verify before administering an intravenous medication?

Only the expiry date
Only the medication name
Only that the patient has IV access
Compatibility with existing IV fluids, correct dilution, appropriate rate of administration, and line patency (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Compatibility with existing IV fluids, correct dilution, appropriate rate of administration, and line patency

Before IV medication administration, DHA nurses must verify drug compatibility with concurrent infusions, correct dilution and concentration, appropriate infusion rate, IV line patency, and site assessment.

Question 145: A primigravida at 38 weeks presents with BP 162/112 mmHg, 3+ proteinuria, and severe headache. What is the priority pharmacological intervention?

IV magnesium sulfate (Correct answer)
IV hydralazine
Oral nifedipine
Oral labetalol

Correct answer: IV magnesium sulfate

IV magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia/eclampsia, reducing the risk of eclamptic convulsions.

Question 146: Which nursing theorist developed the Hierarchy of Needs model commonly applied to patient care prioritisation?

Dorothea Orem
Virginia Henderson
Abraham Maslow (Correct answer)
Florence Nightingale

Correct answer: Abraham Maslow

Abraham Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, though a psychology model, is widely used in nursing to prioritise patient needs from physiological to self-actualisation.

Question 147: What is the DHA protocol for medication reconciliation?

Only required for elderly patients
Compare the patient's current medications against new orders at admission, transfer, and discharge to identify and resolve discrepancies (Correct answer)
Only performed at discharge
Not required in Dubai healthcare facilities

Correct answer: Compare the patient's current medications against new orders at admission, transfer, and discharge to identify and resolve discrepancies

DHA requires medication reconciliation at every transition of care (admission, transfer, discharge), comparing home medications against new orders to identify duplications, omissions, and interactions.

Question 148: What is the DHA standard for personal protective equipment (PPE) donning and doffing sequence?

Don: gown, mask/respirator, goggles, gloves; Doff: gloves, goggles, gown, mask/respirator with hand hygiene between steps (Correct answer)
No specific sequence is required
Only follow sequence during COVID outbreaks
Put everything on simultaneously

Correct answer: Don: gown, mask/respirator, goggles, gloves; Doff: gloves, goggles, gown, mask/respirator with hand hygiene between steps

DHA follows WHO/CDC PPE sequence: donning progresses from gown to mask to eye protection to gloves, while doffing removes the most contaminated items first (gloves) with hand hygiene between each step.

Question 149: What is the DHA incident reporting system and when should nurses use it?

Only when requested by management
Report all incidents, near-misses, and adverse events through the electronic incident reporting system within 24 hours (Correct answer)
Only for serious harm events
Incident reporting is voluntary

Correct answer: Report all incidents, near-misses, and adverse events through the electronic incident reporting system within 24 hours

DHA requires reporting of all incidents including near-misses, adverse events, and sentinel events through the electronic reporting system within 24 hours, fostering a just culture of learning and improvement.

Question 150: How does the DHA require nurses to respond to rapid deterioration of a patient?

Wait for the physician to notice
Document the deterioration and continue monitoring
Only call the charge nurse
Use early warning scoring systems to detect deterioration, activate rapid response team when criteria are met, and initiate immediate interventions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Use early warning scoring systems to detect deterioration, activate rapid response team when criteria are met, and initiate immediate interventions

DHA requires nurses to use early warning scores (NEWS/PEWS) to detect clinical deterioration, with clear escalation protocols including rapid response team activation when trigger scores are reached.

Question 151: What happens to a DHA license if a nurse does not renew it within the grace period after expiry?

The nurse receives a fine but can continue working
It automatically renews
The license is cancelled and re-application is required (Correct answer)
The license remains valid for 5 more years

Correct answer: The license is cancelled and re-application is required

Failure to renew within the grace period results in license cancellation, requiring the nurse to submit a new full application to resume practice legally in Dubai.

Question 152: Which parenteral route is used to administer the hepatitis B vaccine?

Intravenous (IV) infusion
Intradermal injection
Subcutaneous (SC) injection
Intramuscular (IM) injection into the deltoid (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Intramuscular (IM) injection into the deltoid

The hepatitis B vaccine is administered intramuscularly into the deltoid muscle to ensure adequate immune response while avoiding subcutaneous fat, which impairs immunogenicity.

DHA Nursing Licensing Exam

The DHA Nursing exam is administered by the Dubai Health Authority via Prometric to assess the competency of nurses seeking licensure in Dubai, covering fundamentals of nursing, medical-surgical nursing, pharmacology, patient safety, critical care, infection control, and DHA licensing requirements.

150

Questions

180 min

Time Limit

60%

To Pass

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Exam Rules

You can skip questions and return to them later
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No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
Timer auto-submits when time runs out
Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds

These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy

Sources & references

Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy

dha.gov.ae — Renewal, retake policy, score release, score validity, eligibility · verified Oct 2026
services.dha.gov.ae — Test delivery, fees, exam format, passing score · verified Oct 2026