DHA Nursing Licensing Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: How should DHA nurses handle contaminated linen?

Mix with regular laundry
Place in designated color-coded bags at the point of use, minimize handling, and do not sort or rinse at the bedside (Correct answer)
Rinse before placing in laundry bag
Store in the patient room until end of shift

Correct answer: Place in designated color-coded bags at the point of use, minimize handling, and do not sort or rinse at the bedside

DHA protocols require contaminated linen to be placed in appropriate color-coded bags at the point of use, handled minimally to reduce contamination spread, and never sorted or rinsed at the bedside.

Question 2: What is the DHA protocol for medication reconciliation?

Not required in Dubai healthcare facilities
Only required for elderly patients
Compare the patient's current medications against new orders at admission, transfer, and discharge to identify and resolve discrepancies (Correct answer)
Only performed at discharge

Correct answer: Compare the patient's current medications against new orders at admission, transfer, and discharge to identify and resolve discrepancies

DHA requires medication reconciliation at every transition of care (admission, transfer, discharge), comparing home medications against new orders to identify duplications, omissions, and interactions.

Question 3: The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assesses which three patient responses?

Pupil size, pain response, breathing
Orientation, memory, reflexes
Pulse, pressure, pupils
Eye opening, verbal response, motor response (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Eye opening, verbal response, motor response

The GCS evaluates eye opening (4 points), verbal response (5 points), and motor response (6 points) to objectively quantify level of consciousness.

Question 4: A community health nurse is conducting a home visit for a diabetic patient. Which assessment is the priority?

Blood glucose monitoring and medication adherence (Correct answer)
Checking TV viewing habits
Housing cleanliness inspection
Family income assessment

Correct answer: Blood glucose monitoring and medication adherence

Monitoring blood glucose and ensuring medication adherence are the most critical assessments in a diabetic home visit as they directly impact glycaemic control and complication prevention.

Question 5: Which parenteral route is used to administer the hepatitis B vaccine?

Intradermal injection
Intravenous (IV) infusion
Subcutaneous (SC) injection
Intramuscular (IM) injection into the deltoid (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Intramuscular (IM) injection into the deltoid

The hepatitis B vaccine is administered intramuscularly into the deltoid muscle to ensure adequate immune response while avoiding subcutaneous fat, which impairs immunogenicity.

Question 6: Which early sign of septic shock distinguishes it from other shock types?

Warm, flushed skin with hypotension (warm shock phase) (Correct answer)
Cold, clammy, mottled skin initially
Hypertension with bradycardia
Absence of fever

Correct answer: Warm, flushed skin with hypotension (warm shock phase)

In early septic shock (warm phase), vasodilation causes warm, flushed skin and hypotension, distinguishing it from the cool vasoconstriction seen in cardiogenic or hypovolaemic shock.

Question 7: What is the DHA protocol for management of needlestick injuries?

Apply antiseptic and continue working
Report at end of shift
Immediately wash with soap and water, report to occupational health, complete incident report, and initiate post-exposure prophylaxis assessment (Correct answer)
No action is needed if wearing gloves

Correct answer: Immediately wash with soap and water, report to occupational health, complete incident report, and initiate post-exposure prophylaxis assessment

DHA needlestick protocol requires immediate wound washing with soap and water (not squeezing), prompt reporting to occupational health, incident documentation, baseline blood tests, and PEP assessment within recommended timeframes.

Question 8: What is the purpose of the Braden Scale used in DHA healthcare facilities?

To evaluate fall risk
To assess a patient's risk for developing pressure injuries (Correct answer)
To calculate medication doses
To measure pain levels

Correct answer: To assess a patient's risk for developing pressure injuries

The Braden Scale assesses six risk factors (sensory perception, moisture, activity, mobility, nutrition, friction/shear) to predict pressure injury risk, guiding preventive interventions in DHA facilities.

Question 9: What is the DHA standard for restraint use in nursing practice?

Nurses can apply restraints at their discretion
Restraints do not require documentation
Chemical restraint is always preferred
Restraints require physician order, are used only as last resort, require continuous monitoring, and must be regularly reassessed for removal (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Restraints require physician order, are used only as last resort, require continuous monitoring, and must be regularly reassessed for removal

DHA restraint use requires a physician order, must be a last resort after alternative interventions, requires continuous patient monitoring with neurovascular checks, and must be reassessed regularly for earliest possible removal.

Question 10: Before administering a blood transfusion, which nursing action is the most critical safety step?

Checking the patient's haemoglobin level
Hanging normal saline after the blood
Two-nurse verification of patient identity and blood product compatibility (Correct answer)
Taking the patient's blood pressure only

Correct answer: Two-nurse verification of patient identity and blood product compatibility

Two-nurse identity and blood product verification is the critical safety check that prevents transfusion reactions caused by administering incompatible blood.

Question 11: What is the DHA policy on nurse staffing ratios in critical care units?

No specific ratios are defined
One nurse for the entire unit
Ratios are only guidelines, not mandatory
DHA mandates minimum nurse-to-patient ratios based on unit acuity, typically 1:1 or 1:2 for ICU settings (Correct answer)

Correct answer: DHA mandates minimum nurse-to-patient ratios based on unit acuity, typically 1:1 or 1:2 for ICU settings

DHA mandates minimum nurse-to-patient ratios that vary by unit type and acuity, with ICU typically requiring 1:1 or 1:2 ratios, ensuring adequate staffing for safe patient care.

Question 12: What telehealth regulations apply to DHA-licensed nurses?

Telehealth is not permitted for nurses
Telehealth has no specific regulations
Nurses may provide telehealth services within their scope of practice following DHA telehealth guidelines and documentation requirements (Correct answer)
Only physicians can provide telehealth

Correct answer: Nurses may provide telehealth services within their scope of practice following DHA telehealth guidelines and documentation requirements

DHA allows nurses to provide telehealth services within their defined scope of practice, following specific DHA telehealth guidelines covering consent, documentation, privacy, and technical requirements.

Question 13: In the UAE, what is the legal obligation of a nurse who suspects child abuse in a patient?

Mandatory reporting to the relevant child protection authority (e.g., Ministry of Community Development) (Correct answer)
Keep it confidential to protect patient privacy
Notify only the family
Only report if there is a visible fracture

Correct answer: Mandatory reporting to the relevant child protection authority (e.g., Ministry of Community Development)

UAE law and DHA professional guidelines require healthcare workers to mandatorily report suspected child abuse to the appropriate child protection authorities.

Question 14: Which of the following best describes the primary prevention strategy for type 2 diabetes in a UAE community programme?

Promoting healthy diet, physical activity, and weight management to prevent disease onset (Correct answer)
Mass screening of the population for diabetes
Providing free insulin to at-risk individuals
Treating diagnosed diabetics with medication

Correct answer: Promoting healthy diet, physical activity, and weight management to prevent disease onset

Primary prevention of type 2 diabetes targets modifiable risk factors through lifestyle interventions—diet, exercise, and weight management—before the disease develops.

Question 15: What is the correct sequence for defibrillation using an AED?

Attach pads, shock immediately without analysis, then assess
Power on, attach pads, analyse rhythm, deliver shock if advised, resume CPR (Correct answer)
Start CPR, shock after 5 cycles, then attach AED
Assess pulse first, then attach pads, shock if pulseless

Correct answer: Power on, attach pads, analyse rhythm, deliver shock if advised, resume CPR

AED use follows: power on, attach pads to dry skin, allow rhythm analysis, deliver the shock if advised, then immediately resume CPR for 2 minutes.

Question 16: A patient in the ICU develops acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which ventilator strategy is recommended?

Spontaneous breathing without ventilator support
Continuous positive pressure at 20 cmH2O
Low tidal volume ventilation (lung-protective ventilation, 6 mL/kg ideal body weight) (Correct answer)
High tidal volume ventilation to maximise oxygenation

Correct answer: Low tidal volume ventilation (lung-protective ventilation, 6 mL/kg ideal body weight)

Lung-protective ventilation using low tidal volumes (6 mL/kg IBW) reduces ventilator-induced lung injury and is the evidence-based standard for ARDS management.

Question 17: What is the DHA requirement for clinical handover between nursing shifts?

Structured bedside handover using SBAR format, including patient verification, current status, plan of care, and outstanding tasks (Correct answer)
Handover is optional
Informal chat between nurses
Written report only with no verbal communication

Correct answer: Structured bedside handover using SBAR format, including patient verification, current status, plan of care, and outstanding tasks

DHA requires structured bedside handover using the SBAR format, including patient identification verification, current clinical status, ongoing treatment plan, pending investigations, and outstanding tasks.

Question 18: What happens to a DHA license if a nurse does not renew it within the grace period after expiry?

The license is cancelled and re-application is required (Correct answer)
It automatically renews
The license remains valid for 5 more years
The nurse receives a fine but can continue working

Correct answer: The license is cancelled and re-application is required

Failure to renew within the grace period results in license cancellation, requiring the nurse to submit a new full application to resume practice legally in Dubai.

Question 19: What is the DHA protocol for targeted temperature management after cardiac arrest?

Maintain target temperature of 32-36°C using cooling devices, continuous temperature monitoring, and sedation management (Correct answer)
Only cool the patient to room temperature
Temperature management is not performed in Dubai
Only use ice packs

Correct answer: Maintain target temperature of 32-36°C using cooling devices, continuous temperature monitoring, and sedation management

DHA post-cardiac arrest care includes targeted temperature management at 32-36°C using specialized cooling devices, continuous core temperature monitoring, appropriate sedation, and prevention of shivering.

Question 20: What does a DHA nurse need to verify before administering an intravenous medication?

Only that the patient has IV access
Only the expiry date
Only the medication name
Compatibility with existing IV fluids, correct dilution, appropriate rate of administration, and line patency (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Compatibility with existing IV fluids, correct dilution, appropriate rate of administration, and line patency

Before IV medication administration, DHA nurses must verify drug compatibility with concurrent infusions, correct dilution and concentration, appropriate infusion rate, IV line patency, and site assessment.

Question 21: What are the DHA International Patient Safety Goals that nurses must know?

Only medication safety and fall prevention
Only hand hygiene
There are no specific safety goals
Patient identification, communication effectiveness, medication safety, surgical safety, infection reduction, and fall prevention (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Patient identification, communication effectiveness, medication safety, surgical safety, infection reduction, and fall prevention

DHA aligns with international patient safety goals covering: correct patient identification, effective communication, high-alert medication safety, correct site/procedure/patient surgery, HAI reduction, and fall prevention.

Question 22: A pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation presents with painless bright red vaginal bleeding. Which condition should be suspected first?

Abruptio placentae
Ectopic pregnancy
Placenta previa (Correct answer)
Threatened miscarriage

Correct answer: Placenta previa

Placenta previa classically presents with painless bright red vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester due to the low-lying placenta separating from the uterine wall.

Question 23: What is the DHA nursing protocol for assessing a patient's fall risk?

Use a validated fall risk assessment tool on admission, after a fall, with any change in condition, and at regular intervals (Correct answer)
Only assess patients over 65 years old
Fall risk assessment is optional
Only assess surgical patients

Correct answer: Use a validated fall risk assessment tool on admission, after a fall, with any change in condition, and at regular intervals

DHA requires fall risk assessment using validated tools (such as the Morse Fall Scale) on admission, after any fall event, whenever the patient's condition changes, and at regular intervals throughout hospitalization.

Question 24: What type of isolation precautions does DHA require for a patient with active pulmonary tuberculosis?

Contact precautions only
Standard precautions only
Droplet precautions only
Airborne precautions including negative pressure room, N95 respirator, and restricted entry (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Airborne precautions including negative pressure room, N95 respirator, and restricted entry

Active pulmonary TB requires airborne precautions: placement in a negative pressure isolation room, N95 respirator use by all entering staff, and restricted visitor access as per DHA infection control policies.

Question 25: What minimum English language proficiency score is generally accepted by DHA for nursing applicants?

No English test required
IELTS 7.5 overall
TOEFL 80
IELTS 6.0 overall or OET Grade B (Correct answer)

Correct answer: IELTS 6.0 overall or OET Grade B

DHA typically requires a minimum IELTS overall band of 6.0 or an OET Grade B to ensure nurses can communicate safely with patients and colleagues.

Question 26: What is the DHA regulation regarding nurse administration of controlled substances?

Controlled substances are only given by physicians
Any nurse can administer controlled substances without verification
Controlled substances require dual-nurse verification, accurate documentation in the controlled drug register, and secure storage (Correct answer)
No special regulations exist

Correct answer: Controlled substances require dual-nurse verification, accurate documentation in the controlled drug register, and secure storage

DHA regulations require two nurses to verify controlled substance administration, with precise documentation in the controlled drug register including time, dose, patient, and both nurses' signatures, with medications stored in locked cabinets.

Question 27: What is the 'six rights' framework used for in nursing practice?

Patient admission checklist
Discharge planning steps
Surgical time-out protocol
Ensuring safe medication administration (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ensuring safe medication administration

The six rights (right patient, drug, dose, route, time, documentation) serve as a systematic safety framework to prevent medication administration errors.

Question 28: What is the DHA requirement for antibiotic stewardship in nursing practice?

Ensure correct timing of antibiotic administration, obtain cultures before first dose, monitor for adverse effects, and report antibiotic duration (Correct answer)
Only administer antibiotics as ordered
Nurses have no role in antibiotic stewardship
Only physicians participate in stewardship

Correct answer: Ensure correct timing of antibiotic administration, obtain cultures before first dose, monitor for adverse effects, and report antibiotic duration

DHA nursing responsibilities in antibiotic stewardship include timely administration (within 1 hour of order), obtaining cultures before first antibiotic dose, monitoring for adverse effects, and tracking treatment duration.

Question 29: What is the maximum single recommended dose of adrenaline (epinephrine) administered IV during adult cardiac arrest?

10 mg IV once only
0.1 mg IV every minute
1 mg IV every 3–5 minutes (Correct answer)
5 mg IV bolus every 2 minutes

Correct answer: 1 mg IV every 3–5 minutes

Current ACLS guidelines recommend 1 mg of IV epinephrine every 3–5 minutes during adult cardiac arrest to maintain coronary and cerebral perfusion pressure.

Question 30: According to WHO classification, what birth weight defines a newborn as having low birth weight (LBW)?

Less than 2.0 kg
Less than 2.5 kg (Correct answer)
Less than 3.5 kg
Less than 3.0 kg

Correct answer: Less than 2.5 kg

The WHO defines low birth weight as a birth weight of less than 2,500 grams (2.5 kg), regardless of gestational age.

Question 31: What is the DHA requirement for medication administration using barcode scanning?

Only scan the medication package
Barcode scanning is optional
Barcode scanning replaces all other checks
Scan patient wristband and medication barcode at point of care to verify the 'five rights' electronically before administration (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Scan patient wristband and medication barcode at point of care to verify the 'five rights' electronically before administration

DHA requires barcode medication administration (BCMA) scanning of both the patient wristband and medication at the point of care to electronically verify patient identity and medication accuracy.

Question 32: How should a DHA-licensed nurse document a wound assessment?

Write 'wound present' in the chart
Note only the wound size
Document wound location, size, depth, color, drainage type and amount, surrounding skin condition, and odor (Correct answer)
Only photograph the wound

Correct answer: Document wound location, size, depth, color, drainage type and amount, surrounding skin condition, and odor

DHA documentation standards require comprehensive wound assessment including exact location, measurements (length x width x depth), wound bed color, exudate characteristics, periwound skin condition, and any odor.

Question 33: How does the DHA require nurses to respond to rapid deterioration of a patient?

Document the deterioration and continue monitoring
Wait for the physician to notice
Only call the charge nurse
Use early warning scoring systems to detect deterioration, activate rapid response team when criteria are met, and initiate immediate interventions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Use early warning scoring systems to detect deterioration, activate rapid response team when criteria are met, and initiate immediate interventions

DHA requires nurses to use early warning scores (NEWS/PEWS) to detect clinical deterioration, with clear escalation protocols including rapid response team activation when trigger scores are reached.

Question 34: What is the DHA licensing process for nurses wishing to practice in Dubai?

Submit credentials for dataflow verification, pass the DHA licensing exam, obtain eligibility letter, and apply for professional license (Correct answer)
No license is required
Only pass an English language test
Only submit a resume

Correct answer: Submit credentials for dataflow verification, pass the DHA licensing exam, obtain eligibility letter, and apply for professional license

DHA nursing licensure requires primary source verification through DataFlow, successful completion of the DHA professional licensing examination, obtaining an eligibility letter, and formal license application.

Question 35: What are the DHA requirements for sterile technique during central line dressing changes?

Full aseptic technique including sterile gloves, mask, cap, sterile drapes, and chlorhexidine skin antisepsis (Correct answer)
Only hand washing is required
Clean technique is sufficient
No specific technique is required

Correct answer: Full aseptic technique including sterile gloves, mask, cap, sterile drapes, and chlorhexidine skin antisepsis

DHA requires maximal sterile barrier precautions for central line dressing changes including sterile gloves, mask, cap, sterile drapes, and chlorhexidine-based antiseptic for skin preparation to prevent CLABSI.

Question 36: What is the DHA standard for personal protective equipment (PPE) donning and doffing sequence?

No specific sequence is required
Only follow sequence during COVID outbreaks
Put everything on simultaneously
Don: gown, mask/respirator, goggles, gloves; Doff: gloves, goggles, gown, mask/respirator with hand hygiene between steps (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Don: gown, mask/respirator, goggles, gloves; Doff: gloves, goggles, gown, mask/respirator with hand hygiene between steps

DHA follows WHO/CDC PPE sequence: donning progresses from gown to mask to eye protection to gloves, while doffing removes the most contaminated items first (gloves) with hand hygiene between each step.

Question 37: A patient's SpO2 drops to 88% on room air. What is the nurse's immediate priority?

Document the finding and wait for rounds
Order a chest X-ray first
Apply supplemental oxygen and reassess (Correct answer)
Administer IV morphine

Correct answer: Apply supplemental oxygen and reassess

An SpO2 of 88% indicates significant hypoxaemia; immediate supplemental oxygen is required to restore adequate tissue oxygenation.

Question 38: A nurse observes variable decelerations on continuous fetal heart rate monitoring. What is the priority nursing action?

Notify the physician immediately
Increase IV fluid rate
Administer oxygen via face mask
Reposition the mother (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Reposition the mother

Variable decelerations are caused by umbilical cord compression; repositioning the mother (e.g., left lateral or knee-chest position) is the first action to relieve compression.

Question 39: What is the correct nursing intervention for a patient experiencing a generalised tonic-clonic seizure?

Restrain the patient's limbs firmly
Protect the patient from injury, position on side, and time the seizure (Correct answer)
Insert a tongue depressor to prevent biting
Give oral medication immediately

Correct answer: Protect the patient from injury, position on side, and time the seizure

During a seizure, nurses must protect the patient from injury, turn them to the side to prevent aspiration, and time the event to guide medical management.

Question 40: What is the DHA protocol for managing multidrug-resistant organism (MDRO) infections?

Isolation is not required for MDRO
No special precautions beyond standard
Only antibiotics are needed
Contact precautions with gowning, gloving, dedicated equipment, enhanced environmental cleaning, and antimicrobial stewardship (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Contact precautions with gowning, gloving, dedicated equipment, enhanced environmental cleaning, and antimicrobial stewardship

DHA MDRO management includes contact precautions (gown and gloves), dedicated patient equipment, enhanced environmental cleaning, active surveillance cultures, and antimicrobial stewardship to prevent spread.

Question 41: What must a DHA nurse assess before administering an enteral feeding?

Only the patient's appetite
Tube placement verification, residual volume, patient positioning at 30-45 degrees, and tube patency (Correct answer)
Only the feeding rate
Only the feeding temperature

Correct answer: Tube placement verification, residual volume, patient positioning at 30-45 degrees, and tube patency

Before enteral feeding, DHA nurses must verify tube placement (aspiration of gastric contents, pH testing), check residual volume, position the patient upright at 30-45 degrees to prevent aspiration, and confirm tube patency.

Question 42: A patient on heparin infusion has an aPTT of 200 seconds (therapeutic range 60–100 seconds). What is the priority nursing action?

Hold the heparin infusion and notify the physician immediately (Correct answer)
Administer vitamin K
Increase the heparin infusion rate
Ignore the result and recheck in 6 hours

Correct answer: Hold the heparin infusion and notify the physician immediately

An aPTT of 200 seconds is significantly supratherapeutic, indicating a high bleeding risk; the infusion must be stopped and the physician notified for dose adjustment.

Question 43: What is the DHA protocol for safe patient transport within the hospital?

Only send the patient with a porter
No special preparations are needed
Only ICU patients need transport preparation
Pre-transport assessment, appropriate monitoring equipment, emergency medications, trained escort, and communication with receiving area (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Pre-transport assessment, appropriate monitoring equipment, emergency medications, trained escort, and communication with receiving area

DHA requires pre-transport stability assessment, portable monitoring equipment, emergency medications and airway equipment, trained clinical escort appropriate to acuity, and prior communication with the receiving department.

Question 44: What is the DHA process for handling professional misconduct complaints against nurses?

Formal investigation by DHA licensing department, opportunity for the nurse to respond, disciplinary hearing, and potential sanctions ranging from warning to license revocation (Correct answer)
Complaints are ignored
Only verbal warnings are given
Nurses cannot face disciplinary action

Correct answer: Formal investigation by DHA licensing department, opportunity for the nurse to respond, disciplinary hearing, and potential sanctions ranging from warning to license revocation

DHA handles professional misconduct through formal investigation, providing the nurse opportunity to respond, conducting disciplinary hearings when warranted, with potential sanctions from warnings to license suspension or revocation.

Question 45: Which nursing measure is most effective in preventing surgical site infections (SSI)?

Applying topical antibiotics routinely to all wounds
Keeping the wound covered for six weeks without inspection
Strict sterile technique during dressing changes and proper hand hygiene (Correct answer)
Administering oral antibiotics without a prescription

Correct answer: Strict sterile technique during dressing changes and proper hand hygiene

Maintaining sterile technique during wound care and rigorous hand hygiene are the most evidence-based measures to prevent surgical site infections.

Question 46: Which class of medications requires the nurse to monitor for signs of angioedema as a rare but serious side effect?

Beta-blockers
ACE inhibitors (e.g., lisinopril) (Correct answer)
Thiazide diuretics
Statins

Correct answer: ACE inhibitors (e.g., lisinopril)

ACE inhibitors can cause bradykinin accumulation, which in rare cases leads to angioedema—potentially life-threatening swelling of the face, lips, and airway.

Question 47: Which assessment tool is commonly used to identify early clinical deterioration in ward patients before ICU transfer?

National Early Warning Score (NEWS2) (Correct answer)
Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
APACHE II
SOFA score

Correct answer: National Early Warning Score (NEWS2)

NEWS2 is a validated bedside scoring system using vital signs to detect early deterioration and trigger escalation of care before a patient reaches critical status.

Question 48: What is the most common early sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in a neuro-surgical patient?

Bradycardia alone
Vomiting without nausea
Hypertension alone
Decreasing level of consciousness / altered mental status (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Decreasing level of consciousness / altered mental status

A change in level of consciousness is the earliest and most sensitive indicator of rising intracranial pressure as cerebral perfusion is compromised.

Question 49: What is the DHA requirement for patient education and discharge planning?

Begin discharge planning on admission, provide written and verbal education in the patient's language, and ensure understanding through teach-back method (Correct answer)
Only provide written instructions at discharge
Discharge instructions are optional
Education is the physician's responsibility only

Correct answer: Begin discharge planning on admission, provide written and verbal education in the patient's language, and ensure understanding through teach-back method

DHA requires discharge planning to begin on admission, with patient education provided in the patient's preferred language using both written and verbal methods, with understanding verified through the teach-back method.

Question 50: Which complication is most commonly associated with prolonged bed rest in post-surgical patients?

Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) (Correct answer)
Hyperglycaemia
Hypertension
Hyperkalaemia

Correct answer: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

Venous stasis from immobility during prolonged bed rest is the primary risk factor for deep vein thrombosis in post-surgical patients.

Question 51: What is the normal range for adult blood pressure according to DHA clinical guidelines?

160/100 to 180/110 mmHg
Less than 120/80 mmHg (Correct answer)
140/90 to 160/100 mmHg
100/60 to 110/70 mmHg

Correct answer: Less than 120/80 mmHg

DHA guidelines align with international standards defining normal blood pressure as less than 120/80 mmHg. Readings above this require monitoring and potential intervention.

Question 52: What is the DHA nursing role in the management of sepsis?

Only administer antibiotics
Early recognition using screening tools, obtaining blood cultures, ensuring IV antibiotics within 1 hour, fluid resuscitation, and lactate monitoring (Correct answer)
Only monitor temperature
Sepsis management is only a physician responsibility

Correct answer: Early recognition using screening tools, obtaining blood cultures, ensuring IV antibiotics within 1 hour, fluid resuscitation, and lactate monitoring

DHA nurses play a critical role in sepsis management: screening for sepsis using validated tools, obtaining blood cultures before antibiotics, ensuring antibiotic administration within 1 hour, initiating fluid resuscitation, and monitoring lactate levels.

Question 53: Digoxin toxicity is most likely to occur when a patient also has which electrolyte imbalance?

Hypokalaemia (low potassium) (Correct answer)
Hypernatraemia (high sodium)
Hypercalcaemia (high calcium)
Hyperkalaemia (high potassium)

Correct answer: Hypokalaemia (low potassium)

Hypokalaemia potentiates digoxin toxicity because potassium and digoxin compete for the same Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase receptor on cardiac cells; low potassium increases digoxin binding.

Question 54: Which examination must internationally educated nurses typically pass as part of DHA licensure?

NCLEX-RN
IELTS Academic only
DHA Licensing Examination (Prometric CBT) (Correct answer)
OET only

Correct answer: DHA Licensing Examination (Prometric CBT)

Most internationally educated nurses must pass the DHA Prometric computer-based licensing examination to demonstrate clinical competency for Dubai practice.

Question 55: Which vital sign range indicates a normal adult respiratory rate?

25–35 breaths per minute
12–20 breaths per minute (Correct answer)
6–10 breaths per minute
40–50 breaths per minute

Correct answer: 12–20 breaths per minute

A normal adult respiratory rate is 12–20 breaths per minute; values outside this range may indicate respiratory compromise.

Question 56: A postpartum patient on day 5 reports a painful, warm, erythematous area on one breast accompanied by fever of 38.9°C and flu-like symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Breast engorgement
Galactocele
Breast abscess
Mastitis (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Mastitis

Mastitis is a breast infection typically occurring 2–5 weeks postpartum, presenting with localized pain, warmth, erythema, fever, and flu-like symptoms.

Question 57: Hand hygiene should be performed for at least how many seconds when using soap and water according to WHO guidelines?

2 minutes
40–60 seconds (Correct answer)
5–10 seconds
10–15 seconds

Correct answer: 40–60 seconds

WHO guidelines recommend 40–60 seconds of handwashing with soap and water to effectively remove pathogens and reduce healthcare-associated infections.

Question 58: Which nursing theorist developed the Hierarchy of Needs model commonly applied to patient care prioritisation?

Florence Nightingale
Abraham Maslow (Correct answer)
Dorothea Orem
Virginia Henderson

Correct answer: Abraham Maslow

Abraham Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, though a psychology model, is widely used in nursing to prioritise patient needs from physiological to self-actualisation.

Question 59: A nurse discovers that a colleague has made a medication error but has not reported it. What should the nurse do?

Report the colleague to the police immediately
Encourage the colleague to report the error and report it themselves if the colleague refuses (Correct answer)
Cover for the colleague to avoid embarrassment
Do nothing as it is not their responsibility

Correct answer: Encourage the colleague to report the error and report it themselves if the colleague refuses

Patient safety requires that medication errors be reported; if a colleague refuses, the nurse has a professional and ethical duty to report the incident through proper channels.

Question 60: Which arterial blood gas (ABG) finding is consistent with respiratory acidosis?

pH < 7.35 with PaCO2 > 45 mmHg (Correct answer)
pH < 7.35 with PaCO2 < 35 mmHg
pH > 7.45 with PaCO2 > 45 mmHg
pH > 7.45 with PaCO2 < 35 mmHg

Correct answer: pH < 7.35 with PaCO2 > 45 mmHg

Respiratory acidosis is characterised by a low pH below 7.35 combined with CO2 retention (PaCO2 > 45 mmHg), reflecting inadequate ventilation.

Question 61: A nurse suspects a patient has developed a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which classic sign should the nurse assess for?

Chest tightness with diaphoresis
Sudden severe headache
Unilateral calf pain, warmth, and swelling (Correct answer)
Bilateral ankle oedema with no pain

Correct answer: Unilateral calf pain, warmth, and swelling

Classic DVT signs include unilateral calf pain, localised warmth, and swelling due to thrombosis obstructing venous return in the affected limb.

Question 62: What is the DHA requirement for mandatory reporting by nurses?

Reporting is never mandatory
Nurses must report suspected child abuse, elder abuse, communicable diseases, and any condition threatening public health (Correct answer)
Reporting is only required by physicians
Only report medication errors

Correct answer: Nurses must report suspected child abuse, elder abuse, communicable diseases, and any condition threatening public health

DHA legally requires nurses to report suspected abuse (child, elder, domestic), notifiable communicable diseases, and conditions posing a threat to public health, with protection from retaliation for good-faith reporting.

Question 63: What is the DHA protocol for blood glucose monitoring in hospitalized patients?

Once weekly for all patients
Monitor before meals and at bedtime for diabetic patients, with additional checks for insulin drips or symptomatic patients (Correct answer)
Only test fasting glucose on admission
Test only when symptoms appear

Correct answer: Monitor before meals and at bedtime for diabetic patients, with additional checks for insulin drips or symptomatic patients

DHA protocols require blood glucose monitoring before meals and at bedtime for diabetic patients, with more frequent monitoring (every 1-2 hours) for patients on insulin infusions or experiencing glycemic instability.

Question 64: Which measurement guides dosing of aminoglycoside antibiotics to avoid nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity?

Peak and trough serum drug levels plus creatinine clearance (Correct answer)
Body weight alone
Urine colour
White blood cell count

Correct answer: Peak and trough serum drug levels plus creatinine clearance

Peak and trough levels ensure aminoglycoside efficacy and prevent accumulation; creatinine clearance guides dose adjustment in renal impairment to avoid nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity.

Question 65: Which social determinant of health most strongly correlates with poor health outcomes in UAE migrant worker populations?

Air conditioning use
High sugar consumption only
Excessive screen time
Crowded living conditions, limited healthcare access, and occupational hazards (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Crowded living conditions, limited healthcare access, and occupational hazards

UAE migrant workers often live in overcrowded labour camps with limited healthcare access and exposure to occupational hazards, which are well-documented social determinants of poor health.

Question 66: What does the SBAR communication tool stand for?

Situation, Breathing, Assessment, Response
Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation (Correct answer)
Status, Background, Action, Review
Signs, Background, Advice, Report

Correct answer: Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation

SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) is a structured communication framework that improves clarity and safety during handoffs and urgent patient notifications.

Question 67: What is the normal resting heart rate range for a healthy term newborn?

140–200 bpm
100–160 bpm (Correct answer)
60–100 bpm
80–120 bpm

Correct answer: 100–160 bpm

A normal resting heart rate for a term newborn is 100–160 bpm; rates below 100 bpm (bradycardia) or above 160 bpm at rest may require evaluation.

Question 68: What is the DHA requirement for healthcare worker vaccination?

Only Hepatitis B vaccination is required
Mandatory vaccinations including Hepatitis B, influenza, and other role-specific immunizations as per DHA occupational health policy (Correct answer)
No vaccinations are required
Vaccination is optional for all staff

Correct answer: Mandatory vaccinations including Hepatitis B, influenza, and other role-specific immunizations as per DHA occupational health policy

DHA requires healthcare workers to maintain current vaccinations including Hepatitis B (with confirmed immunity), annual influenza vaccination, and other immunizations based on role and patient population exposure.

Question 69: In a patient with a nasogastric (NG) tube, how should the nurse verify correct tube placement before feeding?

Aspirate gastric contents and check pH (≤5.5) or confirm with X-ray (Correct answer)
Listen for air insufflation sounds only
Rely on patient comfort as indicator
Test with litmus paper placed in the mouth

Correct answer: Aspirate gastric contents and check pH (≤5.5) or confirm with X-ray

Aspirating gastric contents and checking pH ≤5.5 or confirming with X-ray are evidence-based methods to verify NG tube placement and prevent aspiration.

Question 70: A nurse assesses a breastfed newborn on day 5 of life. Which finding best indicates adequate milk intake?

6–8 wet diapers per day (Correct answer)
2–3 wet diapers per day
Infant sleeps for 6-hour stretches
Infant feeds only when visibly distressed

Correct answer: 6–8 wet diapers per day

By day 4–5, a well-hydrated, adequately fed newborn should produce 6–8 wet diapers per day, indicating sufficient fluid and caloric intake.

Question 71: A patient post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) reports sudden onset chest pain and shortness of breath on day 2. What should the nurse assess first?

Airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs) (Correct answer)
Urine output only
Last bowel movement
Pain scale rating

Correct answer: Airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs)

Following cardiac surgery, sudden chest pain and dyspnoea may indicate life-threatening complications such as cardiac tamponade or pulmonary embolism, requiring immediate ABC assessment.

Question 72: Which antidote is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression?

Protamine sulphate
Atropine
Naloxone (Narcan) (Correct answer)
Flumazenil

Correct answer: Naloxone (Narcan)

Naloxone is a competitive opioid receptor antagonist that rapidly reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression, sedation, and analgesia.

Question 73: Which ethical principle requires a nurse to act in the best interest of the patient?

Justice
Autonomy
Non-maleficence
Beneficence (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Beneficence

Beneficence is the ethical principle requiring healthcare professionals to take positive action to promote the well-being and best interests of their patients.

Question 74: Which type of wound drainage is thin, watery, and blood-tinged?

Serosanguineous (Correct answer)
Sanguineous
Serous
Purulent

Correct answer: Serosanguineous

Serosanguineous drainage is a mixture of serum and blood, appearing pale pink and watery, commonly seen in the early stages of wound healing.

Question 75: What is the purpose of conducting a medication reconciliation on patient admission?

To reduce the number of prescribed medications
To educate the patient about diet
To accurately compare current medications and prevent omissions, duplications, or harmful interactions (Correct answer)
To generate a billing statement

Correct answer: To accurately compare current medications and prevent omissions, duplications, or harmful interactions

Medication reconciliation ensures a complete and accurate medication list at care transitions, preventing discrepancies that can lead to patient harm.

Question 76: What is the DHA protocol for environmental cleaning of isolation rooms?

Enhanced cleaning with approved disinfectants, dedicated equipment, cleaning from clean to dirty areas, and terminal cleaning upon discharge (Correct answer)
Only clean after patient discharge
Cleaning is done by the patient's family
Clean the same as regular rooms

Correct answer: Enhanced cleaning with approved disinfectants, dedicated equipment, cleaning from clean to dirty areas, and terminal cleaning upon discharge

DHA requires enhanced environmental cleaning for isolation rooms using approved hospital-grade disinfectants, dedicated cleaning equipment, systematic clean-to-dirty progression, and thorough terminal cleaning at discharge.

Question 77: What is the DHA protocol for monitoring patients receiving blood transfusions?

No monitoring is required for blood transfusions
Monitor vital signs at baseline, 15 minutes, 30 minutes, hourly during transfusion, and post-transfusion, watching for transfusion reactions (Correct answer)
Check vital signs only before starting
Only monitor the drip rate

Correct answer: Monitor vital signs at baseline, 15 minutes, 30 minutes, hourly during transfusion, and post-transfusion, watching for transfusion reactions

DHA blood transfusion monitoring requires vital signs at baseline, 15 minutes after starting, then at 30-minute to hourly intervals during the transfusion, and after completion, with continuous observation for reactions.

Question 78: Which method is the most accurate for measuring body temperature in an unconscious adult?

Axillary thermometry
Rectal thermometry (Correct answer)
Oral thermometry
Tympanic thermometry

Correct answer: Rectal thermometry

Rectal temperature measurement is the most accurate core temperature method for unconscious adults as it closely reflects internal body temperature without patient cooperation.

Question 79: Which stage of labor begins with complete cervical dilation and ends with delivery of the baby?

Second stage (Correct answer)
First stage
Fourth stage
Third stage

Correct answer: Second stage

The second stage of labor spans from full (10 cm) cervical dilation to the birth of the baby, during which the mother actively pushes.

Question 80: A 3-day-old term newborn develops mild yellow discoloration of the skin and sclera. The nurse suspects which type of jaundice?

Pathological jaundice
Physiological jaundice (Correct answer)
Breast milk jaundice
ABO incompatibility hemolytic jaundice

Correct answer: Physiological jaundice

Physiological jaundice typically appears on days 2–3 in term newborns due to hepatic immaturity and breakdown of fetal hemoglobin, and is self-limiting.

Question 81: Which APGAR score component specifically assesses a newborn's muscle tone?

Respiration
Grimace
Activity (Correct answer)
Pulse

Correct answer: Activity

In the APGAR scoring system, 'Activity' (A) refers to muscle tone, scored from 0 (limp) to 2 (active flexion of limbs).

Question 82: What is the DHA standard for pressure injury prevention?

Risk assessment on admission, regular repositioning schedule, nutritional optimization, skin assessment, and appropriate support surface selection (Correct answer)
Only use special mattresses
Prevention is only for ICU patients
Only apply barrier cream

Correct answer: Risk assessment on admission, regular repositioning schedule, nutritional optimization, skin assessment, and appropriate support surface selection

DHA pressure injury prevention includes Braden Scale risk assessment, 2-hourly repositioning schedules, nutritional optimization, regular skin integrity checks, moisture management, and appropriate support surface selection.

Question 83: In a patient with suspected anaphylaxis, which medication is the FIRST-LINE treatment?

Intramuscular adrenaline (epinephrine) 0.3–0.5 mg (Correct answer)
Nebulised salbutamol
IV antihistamine (diphenhydramine)
IV corticosteroids (hydrocortisone)

Correct answer: Intramuscular adrenaline (epinephrine) 0.3–0.5 mg

Intramuscular adrenaline is the first-line and most critical treatment for anaphylaxis, reversing vasodilation, bronchoconstriction, and preventing fatal cardiovascular collapse.

Question 84: According to the UAE Expanded Programme on Immunization (EPI), which vaccines are administered to all newborns within 24 hours of birth?

MMR and Varicella
BCG and Hepatitis B (Correct answer)
Hepatitis A and Rotavirus
Polio (OPV) and DTP

Correct answer: BCG and Hepatitis B

In the UAE and WHO-recommended schedules, BCG (tuberculosis) and Hepatitis B vaccines are both administered within 24 hours of birth.

Question 85: Which action should a nurse take FIRST upon discovering an unresponsive patient?

Administer oxygen immediately
Insert an IV line
Assess responsiveness and call for help (Correct answer)
Obtain a 12-lead ECG

Correct answer: Assess responsiveness and call for help

The first step in an emergency is to assess the patient's responsiveness and activate the emergency response system to ensure help arrives promptly.

Question 86: A mechanically ventilated patient develops sudden hypotension and absent breath sounds on one side. What complication should the nurse suspect?

Tension pneumothorax (Correct answer)
Aspiration pneumonia
Ventilator-associated pneumonia
Pulmonary embolism

Correct answer: Tension pneumothorax

Sudden hypotension with unilateral absent breath sounds in a ventilated patient is the hallmark presentation of tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening emergency.

Question 87: Which ventilator alarm should prompt the nurse to assess the patient first for a disconnection or leak?

High pressure alarm
High respiratory rate alarm
Low pressure / low minute volume alarm (Correct answer)
High FiO2 alarm

Correct answer: Low pressure / low minute volume alarm

A low pressure or low minute volume alarm in a ventilated patient indicates loss of circuit integrity such as a disconnection, leak, or dislodged endotracheal tube.

Question 88: What is the DHA rapid response team activation criteria?

Only senior nurses can activate the team
Defined triggers including acute change in heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, oxygen saturation, or consciousness level (Correct answer)
Only when cardiac arrest occurs
There are no specific criteria

Correct answer: Defined triggers including acute change in heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, oxygen saturation, or consciousness level

DHA rapid response team activation is triggered by specific physiological criteria including acute changes in vital signs or consciousness level, allowing any concerned staff member to activate the team.

Question 89: What is the DHA protocol for managing a patient on mechanical ventilation?

Set ventilator and check once daily
Continuous monitoring of ventilator parameters, regular ABG analysis, oral care every 4 hours, and VAP prevention bundle compliance (Correct answer)
Mechanical ventilation does not require nursing assessment
Only monitor oxygen saturation

Correct answer: Continuous monitoring of ventilator parameters, regular ABG analysis, oral care every 4 hours, and VAP prevention bundle compliance

DHA ICU nursing requires continuous ventilator monitoring (tidal volumes, pressures, FiO2), regular ABG analysis, oral care with chlorhexidine every 4 hours, head-of-bed elevation, and full VAP prevention bundle compliance.

Question 90: A patient returns from colostomy surgery. What should the nurse teach regarding stoma colour?

A black stoma is expected in the first week
The stoma should be moist and pink or red; a dark or black colour indicates ischaemia (Correct answer)
Stoma colour is irrelevant to stoma health
A pale white stoma is normal

Correct answer: The stoma should be moist and pink or red; a dark or black colour indicates ischaemia

A healthy stoma is moist and pink-to-red due to good blood supply; a dark or black stoma signals ischaemia and requires immediate medical attention.

Question 91: A nurse is caring for a patient receiving a norepinephrine infusion for septic shock. What is the primary goal of this vasopressor therapy?

Reduce fluid requirements to zero
Raise diastolic blood pressure above 100 mmHg
Maintain mean arterial pressure (MAP) ≥65 mmHg to ensure organ perfusion (Correct answer)
Decrease heart rate to 60 bpm

Correct answer: Maintain mean arterial pressure (MAP) ≥65 mmHg to ensure organ perfusion

Norepinephrine is the first-line vasopressor in septic shock, titrated to maintain a MAP ≥65 mmHg to sustain adequate perfusion pressure to vital organs.

Question 92: A postpartum nurse assesses lochia on day 2 and notes large clots with a foul-smelling odor. What is the priority action?

Encourage the mother to ambulate more frequently
Document findings as normal lochia rubra
Notify the physician immediately (Correct answer)
Apply a warm compress to the abdomen

Correct answer: Notify the physician immediately

Large clots with a foul odor in lochia are abnormal and may indicate postpartum hemorrhage or uterine infection, requiring immediate medical evaluation.

Question 93: Which isolation precaution is required for a patient diagnosed with active pulmonary tuberculosis?

Standard precautions alone
Airborne precautions with a negative pressure room (Correct answer)
Contact precautions only
Droplet precautions only

Correct answer: Airborne precautions with a negative pressure room

Active pulmonary TB is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei; airborne precautions with a negative pressure isolation room are mandatory to prevent spread.

Question 94: What is the DHA protocol for delirium assessment and management in ICU?

Delirium resolves without intervention
Only physical restraints are used
Delirium is not assessed in ICU
Screen using validated tools (CAM-ICU), implement prevention bundles (ABCDEF), minimize sedation, and promote sleep-wake cycles (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Screen using validated tools (CAM-ICU), implement prevention bundles (ABCDEF), minimize sedation, and promote sleep-wake cycles

DHA requires regular delirium screening using validated tools like CAM-ICU, implementation of the ABCDEF bundle (assessment, breathing trials, coordination, delirium monitoring, early mobility, family engagement), and non-pharmacological prevention.

Question 95: What is the primary role of a community health nurse in a school health programme?

Health screening, health promotion, and early referral of students with identified needs (Correct answer)
Conducting surgical procedures on campus
Treating acute illnesses requiring hospitalisation
Managing pharmacy stock for the school

Correct answer: Health screening, health promotion, and early referral of students with identified needs

School health nurses focus on preventive care: screening for developmental and health issues, promoting healthy lifestyles, and referring students requiring further assessment.

Question 96: A primigravida at 38 weeks presents with BP 162/112 mmHg, 3+ proteinuria, and severe headache. What is the priority pharmacological intervention?

IV magnesium sulfate (Correct answer)
IV hydralazine
Oral labetalol
Oral nifedipine

Correct answer: IV magnesium sulfate

IV magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia/eclampsia, reducing the risk of eclamptic convulsions.

Question 97: Which laboratory value is the primary indicator of kidney function monitored in medical-surgical patients?

Haemoglobin
Serum albumin
White blood cell count
Serum creatinine (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Serum creatinine

Serum creatinine is the most reliable routine indicator of glomerular filtration rate and overall kidney function in clinical settings.

Question 98: What is the minimum duration for alcohol-based hand rub application according to DHA standards?

1 minute
5 seconds
20-30 seconds covering all surfaces of both hands until dry (Correct answer)
10 seconds

Correct answer: 20-30 seconds covering all surfaces of both hands until dry

DHA standards require alcohol-based hand rub to be applied to all surfaces of both hands and rubbed together for 20-30 seconds until completely dry to ensure effective microbial reduction.

Question 99: What is the DHA regulation on patient confidentiality and data protection?

Only electronic records are protected
Patient information can be shared freely
Confidentiality applies only to VIP patients
Patient health information is confidential, protected by UAE law, shared only on need-to-know basis with authorized personnel (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Patient health information is confidential, protected by UAE law, shared only on need-to-know basis with authorized personnel

DHA enforces strict patient confidentiality under UAE federal health laws, limiting access to patient information to authorized personnel on a need-to-know basis, with penalties for unauthorized disclosure.

Question 100: A patient's urine turns orange-red after starting rifampicin. What should the nurse tell the patient?

This indicates severe kidney damage
This is a harmless expected side effect of rifampicin (Correct answer)
Stop the medication immediately
Increase oral fluid intake to 5 litres per day

Correct answer: This is a harmless expected side effect of rifampicin

Rifampicin causes harmless orange-red discolouration of urine, sweat, and tears; patients should be reassured this is expected and not a sign of harm.

Question 101: Insulin glargine (Lantus) is classified as which type of insulin?

Intermediate-acting insulin
Long-acting basal insulin (Correct answer)
Rapid-acting insulin
Short-acting regular insulin

Correct answer: Long-acting basal insulin

Insulin glargine is a long-acting basal insulin with a relatively flat, peakless profile lasting approximately 24 hours, used to control fasting blood glucose.

Question 102: A patient refuses a recommended blood transfusion for religious reasons while fully conscious and informed. What is the nurse's ethical obligation?

Proceed with the transfusion to save the patient's life
Override the decision because life-saving treatment takes priority
Discharge the patient immediately without further care
Respect the patient's autonomous decision and document it, while ensuring they understand the consequences (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Respect the patient's autonomous decision and document it, while ensuring they understand the consequences

Autonomy is a fundamental ethical principle; a competent, informed patient has the right to refuse treatment, and the nurse must document the refusal and continue providing alternative supportive care.

Question 103: A child with suspected bacterial meningitis is to undergo a lumbar puncture. What is the correct patient positioning for this procedure?

Sitting upright with arms raised above the head
Prone with a pillow under the abdomen
Lateral recumbent with knees drawn to the chest (fetal position) (Correct answer)
Supine with arms extended overhead

Correct answer: Lateral recumbent with knees drawn to the chest (fetal position)

The lateral recumbent fetal position maximally flexes the lumbar spine, widening the intervertebral spaces to facilitate safe needle insertion for lumbar puncture.

Question 104: What is the primary purpose of incentive spirometry in post-operative patients?

To encourage deep breathing and prevent atelectasis (Correct answer)
To measure peak expiratory flow
To monitor carbon dioxide levels
To administer inhaled medications

Correct answer: To encourage deep breathing and prevent atelectasis

Incentive spirometry promotes sustained maximal inspiration, expanding alveoli and preventing atelectasis—a common post-operative pulmonary complication.

Question 105: What hemodynamic monitoring parameters must DHA ICU nurses understand?

Only blood pressure and heart rate
Arterial blood pressure, central venous pressure, cardiac output, mean arterial pressure, and their clinical significance (Correct answer)
Only oxygen saturation
Hemodynamic monitoring is only for physicians

Correct answer: Arterial blood pressure, central venous pressure, cardiac output, mean arterial pressure, and their clinical significance

DHA ICU nurses must understand and monitor multiple hemodynamic parameters including arterial BP, CVP, cardiac output/index, MAP, SVR, and their significance for guiding fluid and vasopressor therapy.

Question 106: What surveillance activities must DHA nurses participate in for infection prevention?

Monitoring and reporting healthcare-associated infections, surgical site infections, device-related infections, and antimicrobial usage (Correct answer)
No surveillance is required
Only reporting outbreaks
Only completing annual surveys

Correct answer: Monitoring and reporting healthcare-associated infections, surgical site infections, device-related infections, and antimicrobial usage

DHA requires active surveillance participation including monitoring HAIs (CLABSI, CAUTI, VAP, SSI), reporting notifiable diseases, tracking antimicrobial usage, and participating in outbreak investigations.

Question 107: What is the correct needle angle for an intradermal (ID) injection?

45 degrees
30–45 degrees
5–15 degrees (Correct answer)
90 degrees

Correct answer: 5–15 degrees

Intradermal injections are administered at a 5–15 degree angle with the bevel up, delivering small volumes just beneath the skin surface to form a wheal.

Question 108: During the third stage of labor, the nurse observes a sudden gush of blood and lengthening of the umbilical cord. What does this indicate?

Postpartum hemorrhage has occurred
Cord prolapse has occurred
Placental separation is complete (Correct answer)
Uterine inversion is imminent

Correct answer: Placental separation is complete

A sudden gush of blood and cord lengthening are the two classic signs that the placenta has separated from the uterine wall and is ready to be delivered.

Question 109: What is the recommended frequency for neurological observations using the Glasgow Coma Scale in DHA acute care settings?

Every 15 minutes to 4 hours depending on patient acuity and clinical condition (Correct answer)
Only on admission
Once per nursing shift
Once daily

Correct answer: Every 15 minutes to 4 hours depending on patient acuity and clinical condition

DHA protocols require neurological observations at frequencies determined by patient acuity: every 15 minutes for acute neurosurgical patients, progressing to 1-4 hourly as the patient stabilizes.

Question 110: What is the primary purpose of a nursing care plan?

To record medication costs
To provide a structured, individualised roadmap for patient care (Correct answer)
To communicate with insurance companies
To document billing information

Correct answer: To provide a structured, individualised roadmap for patient care

A nursing care plan provides a systematic, individualised guide that coordinates nursing interventions and goals to meet each patient's specific health needs.

Question 111: A nurse is providing anticipatory guidance to a mother of a 2-year-old who refuses to eat vegetables. What is the most appropriate recommendation?

Offer vegetables repeatedly in a positive, pressure-free environment (Correct answer)
Refer immediately to a dietitian for nutritional deficiency testing
Replace vegetables with vitamin supplements indefinitely
Force the child to eat vegetables at every meal

Correct answer: Offer vegetables repeatedly in a positive, pressure-free environment

Repeated, low-pressure exposure to new foods helps toddlers gradually accept them; forcing food creates negative associations and power struggles.

Question 112: What is the DHA regulation on nurse-initiated medications (standing orders)?

Standing orders are not permitted in DHA facilities
Only senior nurses can use standing orders
Nurses can administer any medication without orders
Nurses may administer specific medications under approved standing orders or protocols, with documentation and physician notification (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Nurses may administer specific medications under approved standing orders or protocols, with documentation and physician notification

DHA allows nurses to administer certain medications under pre-approved standing orders or clinical protocols for specific clinical situations, with proper documentation and timely physician notification.

Question 113: A patient with Cushing's syndrome is most at risk for which metabolic complication?

Hyponatraemia
Hypoglycaemia
Hypocalcaemia
Hyperglycaemia and diabetes mellitus (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hyperglycaemia and diabetes mellitus

Excess cortisol in Cushing's syndrome promotes gluconeogenesis and insulin resistance, leading to hyperglycaemia and secondary diabetes mellitus.

Question 114: Which dietary deficiency is most commonly associated with pressure ulcer development in hospitalised patients?

Iron deficiency anaemia
Excess sodium intake
Vitamin C deficiency only
Protein and caloric malnutrition (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Protein and caloric malnutrition

Protein and caloric malnutrition impair tissue repair, reduce immune defences, and decrease skin integrity, making patients significantly more prone to pressure ulcers.

Question 115: A nurse is preparing to administer morphine 4 mg IV. The vial contains 10 mg/mL. How many mL should be drawn up?

0.4 mL (Correct answer)
4 mL
1 mL
0.04 mL

Correct answer: 0.4 mL

Using the formula: Dose required ÷ Concentration = 4 mg ÷ 10 mg/mL = 0.4 mL of the morphine solution.

Question 116: Which type of wound healing occurs when wound edges are surgically approximated and closed?

Primary intention (Correct answer)
Tertiary intention
Delayed primary closure
Secondary intention

Correct answer: Primary intention

Primary intention healing occurs when clean wound edges are brought together (e.g., by sutures or staples), allowing rapid healing with minimal scarring.

Question 117: Which device is used to deliver the highest concentration of oxygen to a spontaneously breathing patient in the ICU?

Simple face mask (35–55% O2)
Nasal cannula (maximum ~44% O2)
Non-rebreather mask (delivers up to 90–100% O2) (Correct answer)
Venturi mask (24–60% controlled O2)

Correct answer: Non-rebreather mask (delivers up to 90–100% O2)

A non-rebreather mask with an oxygen reservoir can deliver up to 90–100% inspired oxygen concentration, making it the highest delivery device for spontaneously breathing patients.

Question 118: A nurse notes that a prescribed medication has a narrow therapeutic index. What does this mean clinically?

Only one dose per day is required
The drug has no side effects
The drug is safe at any dose
The difference between the therapeutic dose and the toxic dose is small, requiring careful monitoring (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The difference between the therapeutic dose and the toxic dose is small, requiring careful monitoring

A narrow therapeutic index means the effective and toxic plasma concentrations are close together, requiring frequent monitoring of drug levels and patient response.

Question 119: During the assessment of a laboring patient, the nurse observes the fetal head visible at the vaginal opening without retraction between contractions. This is known as:

Engagement
Effacement
Station +2
Crowning (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Crowning

Crowning occurs when the widest diameter of the fetal head is visible at the vaginal opening and does not retract between contractions, indicating imminent delivery.

Question 120: Which ECG finding is the hallmark of ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)?

T-wave inversion in one lead
Widened QRS complex only
ST segment elevation of ≥1 mm in two or more contiguous leads (Correct answer)
Prolonged PR interval

Correct answer: ST segment elevation of ≥1 mm in two or more contiguous leads

STEMI is diagnosed by ST elevation of ≥1 mm in two or more anatomically contiguous leads, indicating complete occlusion of a coronary artery requiring urgent reperfusion.

Question 121: What is the DHA blood gas interpretation competency required for ICU nurses?

Only monitor oxygen levels
Interpret pH, PaCO2, PaO2, HCO3, base excess, and identify respiratory/metabolic acidosis/alkalosis (Correct answer)
Only physicians interpret blood gases
Not a nursing competency

Correct answer: Interpret pH, PaCO2, PaO2, HCO3, base excess, and identify respiratory/metabolic acidosis/alkalosis

DHA requires ICU nurses to competently interpret arterial blood gas results including pH, PaCO2, PaO2, HCO3, and base excess to identify acid-base disturbances and oxygenation status for timely intervention.

Question 122: What does the term 'triage' mean in an emergency nursing context?

Discharging stable patients
Sorting patients by urgency to prioritise care (Correct answer)
Transferring patients between departments
Documenting patient allergies

Correct answer: Sorting patients by urgency to prioritise care

Triage is the systematic process of sorting patients according to the urgency of their condition to ensure those with the greatest need receive care first.

Question 123: A patient's blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. How is this classified?

Prehypertension
Hypotension (Correct answer)
Normal
Hypertension

Correct answer: Hypotension

A blood pressure reading of 90/60 mmHg falls below the normal threshold and is classified as hypotension, indicating a potentially inadequate perfusion pressure.

Question 124: What is the correct method to verify a patient's identity before administering medication?

Ask only the patient's room number
Check the medication label alone
Check two patient identifiers such as full name and date of birth (Correct answer)
Rely on the patient's verbal confirmation only

Correct answer: Check two patient identifiers such as full name and date of birth

Using two independent patient identifiers (e.g., full name and date of birth) minimises the risk of medication errors by confirming the right patient.

Question 125: Which level of prevention focuses on early detection of disease through screening programmes?

Quaternary prevention
Primary prevention
Secondary prevention (Correct answer)
Tertiary prevention

Correct answer: Secondary prevention

Secondary prevention aims to detect and treat disease at an early stage through screening, reducing disease progression and complications.

Question 126: What are the WHO 'Five Moments for Hand Hygiene' that DHA nurses must follow?

Before and after meals only
Only before procedures
Before patient contact, before aseptic procedure, after body fluid exposure, after patient contact, after touching patient surroundings (Correct answer)
Only after patient contact

Correct answer: Before patient contact, before aseptic procedure, after body fluid exposure, after patient contact, after touching patient surroundings

DHA follows the WHO Five Moments: before touching a patient, before clean/aseptic procedures, after body fluid exposure risk, after touching a patient, and after touching patient surroundings.

Question 127: What is the correct sequence of the nursing process?

Implementation, Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Evaluation
Planning, Assessment, Diagnosis, Implementation, Evaluation
Diagnosis, Assessment, Planning, Evaluation, Implementation
Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation

The nursing process follows the ADPIE sequence: Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation to provide systematic patient care.

Question 128: What is the DHA nursing responsibility for organ donation management?

Organ donation does not occur in UAE
Identify potential donors, notify the organ donation coordinator, maintain physiological stability of the donor, and support the family (Correct answer)
Only physicians manage organ donation
Nurses have no role in organ donation

Correct answer: Identify potential donors, notify the organ donation coordinator, maintain physiological stability of the donor, and support the family

DHA nurses play key roles in organ donation: identifying potential donors through clinical triggers, notifying coordinators, maintaining donor physiological stability (hemodynamics, oxygenation, temperature), and providing family support.

Question 129: Which drug interaction is a contraindication when a patient is taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)?

Standard saline IV fluids
Paracetamol (acetaminophen)
Tyramine-rich foods and sympathomimetic drugs (Correct answer)
Vitamin C supplements

Correct answer: Tyramine-rich foods and sympathomimetic drugs

MAOIs inhibit the breakdown of tyramine and catecholamines; consuming tyramine-rich foods or sympathomimetics can trigger a hypertensive crisis.

Question 130: A 3-year-old child experiences a febrile seizure. What is the nurse's priority intervention during the seizure?

Position the child on the side to maintain airway patency (Correct answer)
Insert an oral airway device immediately
Restrain the child's limbs to prevent injury
Administer rectal diazepam at seizure onset

Correct answer: Position the child on the side to maintain airway patency

Positioning the child on the side (recovery position) during a seizure prevents aspiration and maintains airway patency; restraint and oral insertion are contraindicated.

Question 131: Which category of DHA nursing license is issued to a nurse who has met all requirements and has no practice restrictions?

Temporary License
Full License (Correct answer)
Provisional License
Trainee License

Correct answer: Full License

A Full License is awarded to nurses who have satisfied all DHA educational, experiential, examination, and verification requirements without restrictions.

Question 132: Which finding indicates fluid volume excess (hypervolaemia) in a medical-surgical patient?

Concentrated urine and thirst
Dry mucous membranes and poor skin turgor
Hypotension and tachycardia
Bounding pulse, crackles in lung bases, and peripheral oedema (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Bounding pulse, crackles in lung bases, and peripheral oedema

Fluid volume excess causes increased vascular pressure, leading to a bounding pulse, pulmonary oedema heard as crackles, and peripheral oedema from fluid shifting into tissues.

Question 133: When applying sterile technique, which action would break sterility?

Keeping sterile items at waist level
Wearing sterile gloves correctly
Opening a sterile package away from the body
Reaching across the sterile field (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Reaching across the sterile field

Reaching across a sterile field allows non-sterile clothing or hands to contaminate the sterile area, breaking the principle of maintaining a contamination-free zone.

Question 134: Which nursing action is most important BEFORE administering any new medication to a patient?

Double the dose if the patient is obese
Check for allergies and verify the five/six rights (Correct answer)
Ask the patient if they feel like taking the medication
Skip the check if the medication is over-the-counter

Correct answer: Check for allergies and verify the five/six rights

Verifying allergies and applying the five/six rights of medication administration are the fundamental safety steps that prevent adverse drug reactions and medication errors.

Question 135: What is the DHA requirement for pain management in critically ill patients?

Only administer morphine on request
Regular pain assessment using appropriate tools, multimodal analgesia, sedation-analgesia protocols, and daily sedation interruption trials (Correct answer)
Pain management is not a priority in ICU
Pain assessment is only done once daily

Correct answer: Regular pain assessment using appropriate tools, multimodal analgesia, sedation-analgesia protocols, and daily sedation interruption trials

DHA requires systematic pain assessment using appropriate tools (CPOT, BPS for ventilated patients), multimodal analgesia approaches, protocol-guided sedation, and daily sedation vacation trials for ventilated patients.

Question 136: What does 'non-maleficence' mean in healthcare ethics?

Distributing resources fairly
Respecting patient decisions
Acting for the patient's benefit
The obligation to avoid causing harm to the patient (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The obligation to avoid causing harm to the patient

Non-maleficence is the principle of 'do no harm,' requiring healthcare providers to avoid actions that may cause unnecessary harm, suffering, or risk to patients.

Question 137: Which position is recommended for a patient experiencing respiratory distress to maximise lung expansion?

Supine
Prone
Trendelenburg
High Fowler's (90°) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: High Fowler's (90°)

High Fowler's position at 90 degrees allows maximum diaphragm descent and lung expansion, improving oxygenation in patients with breathing difficulty.

Question 138: A nurse must administer potassium chloride (KCl) IV. Which statement is correct?

Undiluted KCl can be administered if the patient is severely hypokalaemic
It can be given as a rapid IV push if diluted
KCl should be given subcutaneously if IV access is unavailable
It must always be diluted and given slowly via infusion pump; never as an IV bolus (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It must always be diluted and given slowly via infusion pump; never as an IV bolus

IV potassium chloride must be diluted and infused slowly via pump because a rapid bolus can cause fatal cardiac arrhythmias.

Question 139: Which document format must nursing transcripts be submitted in for DHA primary source verification?

Officially attested and authenticated originals or certified copies sent directly from the issuing institution (Correct answer)
Self-certified photocopies
Scanned PDF sent by the applicant
Notarised translation only

Correct answer: Officially attested and authenticated originals or certified copies sent directly from the issuing institution

DataFlow primary source verification requires official transcripts to be sent directly from the issuing educational institution to prevent document fraud.

Question 140: A patient is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory test is used to monitor therapeutic levels?

Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Prothrombin time / INR (PT/INR) (Correct answer)
Serum potassium
Complete blood count (CBC)

Correct answer: Prothrombin time / INR (PT/INR)

Warfarin's anticoagulant effect is monitored using PT/INR, which measures the extrinsic clotting pathway that warfarin inhibits.

Question 141: A nurse is evaluating developmental milestones in a 12-month-old child during a well-baby visit. Which milestone is expected at this age?

Running and climbing stairs
Forming 3-word sentences
Walking independently (Correct answer)
Drawing a straight line

Correct answer: Walking independently

Walking independently is a gross motor milestone typically achieved by 12 months; running, 3-word sentences, and drawing develop later at 18–24 months.

Question 142: Which route of drug administration has the fastest onset of action?

Oral (PO)
Intramuscular (IM)
Intravenous (IV) (Correct answer)
Subcutaneous (SC)

Correct answer: Intravenous (IV)

Intravenous administration delivers drug directly into the bloodstream, bypassing absorption barriers and providing the fastest onset of therapeutic effect.

Question 143: Which model of community nursing focuses on the family as the unit of care rather than the individual?

Individual patient model
Biomedical model
Family-centred care model (Correct answer)
Hospital-centric model

Correct answer: Family-centred care model

Family-centred care recognises that family dynamics, support, and health behaviours profoundly affect individual health outcomes, making the family the focus of nursing assessment and intervention.

Question 144: What is the DHA requirement for patient allergy assessment before medication administration?

Allergy assessment is optional
Only check for drug allergies
Ask only during the first medication dose
Verify allergy status on admission, document in the medical record, apply allergy wristband, and check before each medication administration (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Verify allergy status on admission, document in the medical record, apply allergy wristband, and check before each medication administration

DHA requires comprehensive allergy assessment on admission covering drug, food, and environmental allergies, documentation in the record, allergy wristband application, and verification before each medication.

Question 145: When documenting patient care, which principle is essential for legal and professional accuracy?

Pencil is acceptable for hard-copy records
Record entries must be accurate, timely, objective, and signed (Correct answer)
Documentation can be completed 24 hours after care
Personal opinions about the patient should be included

Correct answer: Record entries must be accurate, timely, objective, and signed

Nursing documentation must be accurate, timely, objective, and properly signed to constitute a legally defensible and professionally sound record of care.

Question 146: A patient at 36 weeks gestation presents with sudden onset severe abdominal pain, a rigid board-like uterus, and dark vaginal bleeding. Which condition is most likely?

Premature rupture of membranes
Placenta previa
Uterine rupture
Abruptio placentae (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Abruptio placentae

Abruptio placentae (placental abruption) classically presents with painful dark vaginal bleeding and uterine rigidity due to concealed or revealed retroplacental hemorrhage.

Question 147: What is the DHA protocol for managing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

Lung-protective ventilation strategy, prone positioning, strict fluid management, and continuous monitoring of oxygenation and compliance (Correct answer)
Only increase oxygen to 100%
ARDS is not managed in Dubai
Only provide high-flow oxygen

Correct answer: Lung-protective ventilation strategy, prone positioning, strict fluid management, and continuous monitoring of oxygenation and compliance

DHA ARDS management includes lung-protective ventilation (low tidal volumes 6ml/kg), prone positioning for 16+ hours, conservative fluid management, continuous SpO2/ABG monitoring, and sedation management.

Question 148: How should a DHA nurse assess and document fluid balance?

Documentation is only needed for ICU patients
Only measure urine output
Accurately measure and record all fluid intake and output including oral, IV, urine, drainage, and insensible losses (Correct answer)
Estimate fluid intake visually

Correct answer: Accurately measure and record all fluid intake and output including oral, IV, urine, drainage, and insensible losses

DHA standards require accurate measurement and documentation of all fluid intake (oral, IV, enteral) and output (urine, drainage, vomiting, wound output) to maintain an accurate fluid balance record.

Question 149: What is the DHA guideline for look-alike/sound-alike (LASA) medication management?

LASA medications do not exist in Dubai
No special precautions are needed
Only store alphabetically
Separate storage, use tall-man lettering, alert stickers, and include both generic and brand names on orders to prevent confusion (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Separate storage, use tall-man lettering, alert stickers, and include both generic and brand names on orders to prevent confusion

DHA requires special handling of LASA medications including physical separation in storage, tall-man lettering (e.g., DOPamine vs DOBUTamine), alert stickers, and inclusion of both names on prescriptions.

Question 150: What is the DHA protocol for managing IV infiltration or extravasation?

Only apply a warm compress
Ignore if the patient does not complain
Continue the infusion at a slower rate
Immediately stop the infusion, aspirate residual fluid, apply appropriate compresses, elevate the limb, document and report (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Immediately stop the infusion, aspirate residual fluid, apply appropriate compresses, elevate the limb, document and report

DHA protocols require immediate cessation of the infusion, aspiration of residual fluid through the catheter, application of hot or cold compresses depending on the medication, limb elevation, and detailed documentation.

Question 151: Which IV fluid is isotonic and most commonly used for fluid resuscitation?

3% Hypertonic Saline
0.9% Normal Saline (NS) (Correct answer)
Dextrose 10% in Water
0.45% Hypotonic Saline

Correct answer: 0.9% Normal Saline (NS)

0.9% Normal Saline is isotonic (osmolality ~308 mOsm/L), making it the standard choice for extracellular fluid replacement and resuscitation.

Question 152: A 2-year-old presents with a barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and low-grade fever. Which condition is most likely?

Acute asthma
Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) (Correct answer)
Bronchiolitis
Epiglottitis

Correct answer: Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)

Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) is characterized by a distinctive barking or seal-like cough, inspiratory stridor, and mild fever, typically caused by parainfluenza virus.

DHA Nursing Licensing Exam

The DHA Nursing exam is administered by the Dubai Health Authority via Prometric to assess the competency of nurses seeking licensure in Dubai, covering fundamentals of nursing, medical-surgical nursing, pharmacology, patient safety, critical care, infection control, and DHA licensing requirements.

150

Questions

180 min

Time Limit

60%

To Pass

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