DHA Nursing Licensing Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: What ethical principles guide DHA nursing practice?

Autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, justice, veracity, and fidelity in all patient care decisions (Correct answer)
Only following hospital rules
Ethics are subjective and not regulated
Only maintaining confidentiality

Correct answer: Autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, justice, veracity, and fidelity in all patient care decisions

DHA nursing ethics are built on fundamental principles: autonomy (patient self-determination), beneficence (doing good), non-maleficence (do no harm), justice (fair treatment), veracity (truthfulness), and fidelity (keeping promises).

Question 2: Which nursing theorist developed the Hierarchy of Needs model commonly applied to patient care prioritisation?

Virginia Henderson
Abraham Maslow (Correct answer)
Dorothea Orem
Florence Nightingale

Correct answer: Abraham Maslow

Abraham Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs, though a psychology model, is widely used in nursing to prioritise patient needs from physiological to self-actualisation.

Question 3: Which nursing action is most important BEFORE administering any new medication to a patient?

Check for allergies and verify the five/six rights (Correct answer)
Skip the check if the medication is over-the-counter
Double the dose if the patient is obese
Ask the patient if they feel like taking the medication

Correct answer: Check for allergies and verify the five/six rights

Verifying allergies and applying the five/six rights of medication administration are the fundamental safety steps that prevent adverse drug reactions and medication errors.

Question 4: Which measurement guides dosing of aminoglycoside antibiotics to avoid nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity?

White blood cell count
Peak and trough serum drug levels plus creatinine clearance (Correct answer)
Urine colour
Body weight alone

Correct answer: Peak and trough serum drug levels plus creatinine clearance

Peak and trough levels ensure aminoglycoside efficacy and prevent accumulation; creatinine clearance guides dose adjustment in renal impairment to avoid nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity.

Question 5: When applying sterile technique, which action would break sterility?

Reaching across the sterile field (Correct answer)
Wearing sterile gloves correctly
Opening a sterile package away from the body
Keeping sterile items at waist level

Correct answer: Reaching across the sterile field

Reaching across a sterile field allows non-sterile clothing or hands to contaminate the sterile area, breaking the principle of maintaining a contamination-free zone.

Question 6: When a nurse transfers from another Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) country to Dubai, which process facilitates license recognition?

IELTS waiver for GCC nurses
Only a letter from the previous employer
Gulf Health Council Dataflow and Prometric Gulf examination (Correct answer)
Automatic mutual recognition with no examination

Correct answer: Gulf Health Council Dataflow and Prometric Gulf examination

The Gulf Health Council's Prometric examination and DataFlow verification process facilitates standardised recognition of healthcare credentials across GCC member states.

Question 7: What is the DHA protocol for targeted temperature management after cardiac arrest?

Temperature management is not performed in Dubai
Only cool the patient to room temperature
Only use ice packs
Maintain target temperature of 32-36°C using cooling devices, continuous temperature monitoring, and sedation management (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Maintain target temperature of 32-36°C using cooling devices, continuous temperature monitoring, and sedation management

DHA post-cardiac arrest care includes targeted temperature management at 32-36°C using specialized cooling devices, continuous core temperature monitoring, appropriate sedation, and prevention of shivering.

Question 8: What is the DHA protocol for environmental cleaning of isolation rooms?

Enhanced cleaning with approved disinfectants, dedicated equipment, cleaning from clean to dirty areas, and terminal cleaning upon discharge (Correct answer)
Cleaning is done by the patient's family
Only clean after patient discharge
Clean the same as regular rooms

Correct answer: Enhanced cleaning with approved disinfectants, dedicated equipment, cleaning from clean to dirty areas, and terminal cleaning upon discharge

DHA requires enhanced environmental cleaning for isolation rooms using approved hospital-grade disinfectants, dedicated cleaning equipment, systematic clean-to-dirty progression, and thorough terminal cleaning at discharge.

Question 9: Which measure is most effective in preventing the spread of communicable diseases in the community?

Restricting access to healthcare facilities
Isolation of all community members
Vaccination programmes and public health education (Correct answer)
Antibiotic administration to entire communities

Correct answer: Vaccination programmes and public health education

Vaccination creates population immunity (herd immunity) and public health education promotes hygiene and behaviour change, making these the most effective tools for preventing communicable disease spread.

Question 10: A primigravida at 38 weeks presents with BP 162/112 mmHg, 3+ proteinuria, and severe headache. What is the priority pharmacological intervention?

IV hydralazine
Oral labetalol
IV magnesium sulfate (Correct answer)
Oral nifedipine

Correct answer: IV magnesium sulfate

IV magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for seizure prophylaxis in severe preeclampsia/eclampsia, reducing the risk of eclamptic convulsions.

Question 11: Hand hygiene should be performed for at least how many seconds when using soap and water according to WHO guidelines?

40–60 seconds (Correct answer)
2 minutes
5–10 seconds
10–15 seconds

Correct answer: 40–60 seconds

WHO guidelines recommend 40–60 seconds of handwashing with soap and water to effectively remove pathogens and reduce healthcare-associated infections.

Question 12: A patient returns from colostomy surgery. What should the nurse teach regarding stoma colour?

The stoma should be moist and pink or red; a dark or black colour indicates ischaemia (Correct answer)
A pale white stoma is normal
Stoma colour is irrelevant to stoma health
A black stoma is expected in the first week

Correct answer: The stoma should be moist and pink or red; a dark or black colour indicates ischaemia

A healthy stoma is moist and pink-to-red due to good blood supply; a dark or black stoma signals ischaemia and requires immediate medical attention.

Question 13: What is the DHA protocol for high-alert medication administration?

Require independent double-check by two qualified nurses, standardized concentrations, and distinct labeling (Correct answer)
High-alert medications do not require special handling
Treat the same as regular medications
Only require verbal confirmation

Correct answer: Require independent double-check by two qualified nurses, standardized concentrations, and distinct labeling

DHA classifies certain medications as high-alert (insulin, anticoagulants, opioids, concentrated electrolytes) requiring independent double-checks, standardized concentrations, and distinctive labeling to prevent errors.

Question 14: What is the primary role of a community health nurse in a school health programme?

Treating acute illnesses requiring hospitalisation
Conducting surgical procedures on campus
Health screening, health promotion, and early referral of students with identified needs (Correct answer)
Managing pharmacy stock for the school

Correct answer: Health screening, health promotion, and early referral of students with identified needs

School health nurses focus on preventive care: screening for developmental and health issues, promoting healthy lifestyles, and referring students requiring further assessment.

Question 15: What is the DHA requirement for patient allergy assessment before medication administration?

Allergy assessment is optional
Only check for drug allergies
Ask only during the first medication dose
Verify allergy status on admission, document in the medical record, apply allergy wristband, and check before each medication administration (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Verify allergy status on admission, document in the medical record, apply allergy wristband, and check before each medication administration

DHA requires comprehensive allergy assessment on admission covering drug, food, and environmental allergies, documentation in the record, allergy wristband application, and verification before each medication.

Question 16: What is the DHA protocol for managing a sentinel event?

Only complete an incident report
Document and continue routine care
Sentinel events do not require special attention
Immediate patient stabilization, notification of administration and risk management, root cause analysis, and implementation of corrective actions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Immediate patient stabilization, notification of administration and risk management, root cause analysis, and implementation of corrective actions

DHA sentinel event management requires immediate patient care, administration notification, preservation of evidence, comprehensive root cause analysis, development of corrective action plans, and ongoing monitoring of improvements.

Question 17: What is the DHA regulation on patient confidentiality and data protection?

Patient information can be shared freely
Only electronic records are protected
Confidentiality applies only to VIP patients
Patient health information is confidential, protected by UAE law, shared only on need-to-know basis with authorized personnel (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Patient health information is confidential, protected by UAE law, shared only on need-to-know basis with authorized personnel

DHA enforces strict patient confidentiality under UAE federal health laws, limiting access to patient information to authorized personnel on a need-to-know basis, with penalties for unauthorized disclosure.

Question 18: Which arterial blood gas (ABG) finding is consistent with respiratory acidosis?

pH < 7.35 with PaCO2 < 35 mmHg
pH < 7.35 with PaCO2 > 45 mmHg (Correct answer)
pH > 7.45 with PaCO2 > 45 mmHg
pH > 7.45 with PaCO2 < 35 mmHg

Correct answer: pH < 7.35 with PaCO2 > 45 mmHg

Respiratory acidosis is characterised by a low pH below 7.35 combined with CO2 retention (PaCO2 > 45 mmHg), reflecting inadequate ventilation.

Question 19: Which assessment finding in a post-thyroidectomy patient requires immediate nursing action?

Mild throat soreness
Slight hoarseness on day one
Low-grade fever of 37.5°C
Tetany, tingling around the mouth, and positive Trousseau's sign (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Tetany, tingling around the mouth, and positive Trousseau's sign

Tetany and positive Trousseau's sign indicate hypocalcaemia due to accidental parathyroid gland damage during thyroidectomy, a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention.

Question 20: A nurse working in a UAE public health clinic is asked by an employer to falsify a patient's health record. What is the correct response?

Alter only minor details to satisfy the employer
Refuse and report the request through appropriate professional and legal channels (Correct answer)
Comply if a manager instructs it
Seek advice from colleagues before acting

Correct answer: Refuse and report the request through appropriate professional and legal channels

Falsifying health records is illegal and unethical; the nurse must refuse and report the request to the DHA or relevant professional body to protect patient safety and professional integrity.

Question 21: Which parenteral route is used to administer the hepatitis B vaccine?

Intradermal injection
Intramuscular (IM) injection into the deltoid (Correct answer)
Intravenous (IV) infusion
Subcutaneous (SC) injection

Correct answer: Intramuscular (IM) injection into the deltoid

The hepatitis B vaccine is administered intramuscularly into the deltoid muscle to ensure adequate immune response while avoiding subcutaneous fat, which impairs immunogenicity.

Question 22: What is the normal range for adult blood pressure according to DHA clinical guidelines?

100/60 to 110/70 mmHg
140/90 to 160/100 mmHg
160/100 to 180/110 mmHg
Less than 120/80 mmHg (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Less than 120/80 mmHg

DHA guidelines align with international standards defining normal blood pressure as less than 120/80 mmHg. Readings above this require monitoring and potential intervention.

Question 23: How should a DHA nurse manage a medication error?

Wait to see if the patient shows symptoms
Immediately assess the patient, notify the physician, document the incident, complete an incident report, and participate in root cause analysis (Correct answer)
Only tell the charge nurse
Hide the error to avoid consequences

Correct answer: Immediately assess the patient, notify the physician, document the incident, complete an incident report, and participate in root cause analysis

DHA medication error management requires immediate patient assessment, physician notification, accurate documentation, incident reporting through the facility's reporting system, and participation in review processes for learning.

Question 24: What is the DHA standard for patient identification before medication administration?

Using at least two patient identifiers such as full name and medical record number, verified against the medication order and ID band (Correct answer)
Verifying with the patient's family member
Checking the room number only
Asking the patient their name only

Correct answer: Using at least two patient identifiers such as full name and medical record number, verified against the medication order and ID band

DHA patient safety standards require verification of at least two identifiers (typically full name and medical record number/date of birth) against the medication order and patient ID band before any medication administration.

Question 25: A nurse suspects a patient has developed a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which classic sign should the nurse assess for?

Sudden severe headache
Chest tightness with diaphoresis
Unilateral calf pain, warmth, and swelling (Correct answer)
Bilateral ankle oedema with no pain

Correct answer: Unilateral calf pain, warmth, and swelling

Classic DVT signs include unilateral calf pain, localised warmth, and swelling due to thrombosis obstructing venous return in the affected limb.

Question 26: Digoxin toxicity is most likely to occur when a patient also has which electrolyte imbalance?

Hyperkalaemia (high potassium)
Hypokalaemia (low potassium) (Correct answer)
Hypercalcaemia (high calcium)
Hypernatraemia (high sodium)

Correct answer: Hypokalaemia (low potassium)

Hypokalaemia potentiates digoxin toxicity because potassium and digoxin compete for the same Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase receptor on cardiac cells; low potassium increases digoxin binding.

Question 27: A nurse is caring for a patient receiving a norepinephrine infusion for septic shock. What is the primary goal of this vasopressor therapy?

Decrease heart rate to 60 bpm
Raise diastolic blood pressure above 100 mmHg
Reduce fluid requirements to zero
Maintain mean arterial pressure (MAP) ≥65 mmHg to ensure organ perfusion (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Maintain mean arterial pressure (MAP) ≥65 mmHg to ensure organ perfusion

Norepinephrine is the first-line vasopressor in septic shock, titrated to maintain a MAP ≥65 mmHg to sustain adequate perfusion pressure to vital organs.

Question 28: Which isolation precaution is required for a patient diagnosed with active pulmonary tuberculosis?

Standard precautions alone
Droplet precautions only
Contact precautions only
Airborne precautions with a negative pressure room (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Airborne precautions with a negative pressure room

Active pulmonary TB is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei; airborne precautions with a negative pressure isolation room are mandatory to prevent spread.

Question 29: How should a DHA nurse calculate pediatric medication doses?

Use adult doses divided by half
Calculate based on the child's weight in kilograms using the mg/kg formula and verify against recommended dose ranges (Correct answer)
Use a standard dose for all children
Estimate based on the child's age

Correct answer: Calculate based on the child's weight in kilograms using the mg/kg formula and verify against recommended dose ranges

DHA pediatric medication dosing requires weight-based calculations using mg/kg formulas, verified against recommended dose ranges for the specific medication and age group, with mandatory independent double-checking.

Question 30: Which nursing intervention is the priority for a patient in hypovolaemic shock?

Elevating the head of the bed to 90°
Restricting all oral fluids
Rapid IV fluid resuscitation to restore circulating volume (Correct answer)
Administering antihypertensives

Correct answer: Rapid IV fluid resuscitation to restore circulating volume

Hypovolaemic shock results from inadequate circulating volume; rapid IV fluid resuscitation is the cornerstone treatment to restore perfusion pressure.

Question 31: What is the correct sequence for defibrillation using an AED?

Assess pulse first, then attach pads, shock if pulseless
Attach pads, shock immediately without analysis, then assess
Start CPR, shock after 5 cycles, then attach AED
Power on, attach pads, analyse rhythm, deliver shock if advised, resume CPR (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Power on, attach pads, analyse rhythm, deliver shock if advised, resume CPR

AED use follows: power on, attach pads to dry skin, allow rhythm analysis, deliver the shock if advised, then immediately resume CPR for 2 minutes.

Question 32: What is the DHA blood gas interpretation competency required for ICU nurses?

Interpret pH, PaCO2, PaO2, HCO3, base excess, and identify respiratory/metabolic acidosis/alkalosis (Correct answer)
Only physicians interpret blood gases
Only monitor oxygen levels
Not a nursing competency

Correct answer: Interpret pH, PaCO2, PaO2, HCO3, base excess, and identify respiratory/metabolic acidosis/alkalosis

DHA requires ICU nurses to competently interpret arterial blood gas results including pH, PaCO2, PaO2, HCO3, and base excess to identify acid-base disturbances and oxygenation status for timely intervention.

Question 33: What is the DHA requirement for pain management in critically ill patients?

Pain assessment is only done once daily
Pain management is not a priority in ICU
Regular pain assessment using appropriate tools, multimodal analgesia, sedation-analgesia protocols, and daily sedation interruption trials (Correct answer)
Only administer morphine on request

Correct answer: Regular pain assessment using appropriate tools, multimodal analgesia, sedation-analgesia protocols, and daily sedation interruption trials

DHA requires systematic pain assessment using appropriate tools (CPOT, BPS for ventilated patients), multimodal analgesia approaches, protocol-guided sedation, and daily sedation vacation trials for ventilated patients.

Question 34: A patient in the ICU develops acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which ventilator strategy is recommended?

High tidal volume ventilation to maximise oxygenation
Continuous positive pressure at 20 cmH2O
Spontaneous breathing without ventilator support
Low tidal volume ventilation (lung-protective ventilation, 6 mL/kg ideal body weight) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Low tidal volume ventilation (lung-protective ventilation, 6 mL/kg ideal body weight)

Lung-protective ventilation using low tidal volumes (6 mL/kg IBW) reduces ventilator-induced lung injury and is the evidence-based standard for ARDS management.

Question 35: Which type of wound healing occurs when wound edges are surgically approximated and closed?

Primary intention (Correct answer)
Tertiary intention
Secondary intention
Delayed primary closure

Correct answer: Primary intention

Primary intention healing occurs when clean wound edges are brought together (e.g., by sutures or staples), allowing rapid healing with minimal scarring.

Question 36: What must a DHA nurse assess before administering an enteral feeding?

Tube placement verification, residual volume, patient positioning at 30-45 degrees, and tube patency (Correct answer)
Only the feeding rate
Only the patient's appetite
Only the feeding temperature

Correct answer: Tube placement verification, residual volume, patient positioning at 30-45 degrees, and tube patency

Before enteral feeding, DHA nurses must verify tube placement (aspiration of gastric contents, pH testing), check residual volume, position the patient upright at 30-45 degrees to prevent aspiration, and confirm tube patency.

Question 37: What is the DHA nursing role in managing patients receiving continuous renal replacement therapy (CRRT)?

Only check the machine once per shift
CRRT does not require nursing monitoring
CRRT is managed only by physicians
Monitor circuit pressures, anticoagulation, fluid balance hourly, electrolyte levels, and access site integrity (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Monitor circuit pressures, anticoagulation, fluid balance hourly, electrolyte levels, and access site integrity

DHA ICU nurses managing CRRT must monitor circuit pressures and patency, anticoagulation therapy, strict hourly fluid balance calculations, electrolyte monitoring, and vascular access site assessment.

Question 38: A child with suspected bacterial meningitis is to undergo a lumbar puncture. What is the correct patient positioning for this procedure?

Lateral recumbent with knees drawn to the chest (fetal position) (Correct answer)
Sitting upright with arms raised above the head
Prone with a pillow under the abdomen
Supine with arms extended overhead

Correct answer: Lateral recumbent with knees drawn to the chest (fetal position)

The lateral recumbent fetal position maximally flexes the lumbar spine, widening the intervertebral spaces to facilitate safe needle insertion for lumbar puncture.

Question 39: Which nursing measure is most effective in preventing surgical site infections (SSI)?

Applying topical antibiotics routinely to all wounds
Strict sterile technique during dressing changes and proper hand hygiene (Correct answer)
Administering oral antibiotics without a prescription
Keeping the wound covered for six weeks without inspection

Correct answer: Strict sterile technique during dressing changes and proper hand hygiene

Maintaining sterile technique during wound care and rigorous hand hygiene are the most evidence-based measures to prevent surgical site infections.

Question 40: Which method is the most accurate for measuring body temperature in an unconscious adult?

Rectal thermometry (Correct answer)
Axillary thermometry
Tympanic thermometry
Oral thermometry

Correct answer: Rectal thermometry

Rectal temperature measurement is the most accurate core temperature method for unconscious adults as it closely reflects internal body temperature without patient cooperation.

Question 41: A postpartum patient on day 5 reports a painful, warm, erythematous area on one breast accompanied by fever of 38.9°C and flu-like symptoms. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Mastitis (Correct answer)
Breast abscess
Galactocele
Breast engorgement

Correct answer: Mastitis

Mastitis is a breast infection typically occurring 2–5 weeks postpartum, presenting with localized pain, warmth, erythema, fever, and flu-like symptoms.

Question 42: In the UAE, what is the legal obligation of a nurse who suspects child abuse in a patient?

Notify only the family
Keep it confidential to protect patient privacy
Only report if there is a visible fracture
Mandatory reporting to the relevant child protection authority (e.g., Ministry of Community Development) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Mandatory reporting to the relevant child protection authority (e.g., Ministry of Community Development)

UAE law and DHA professional guidelines require healthcare workers to mandatorily report suspected child abuse to the appropriate child protection authorities.

Question 43: Which ECG finding is the hallmark of ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)?

Widened QRS complex only
ST segment elevation of ≥1 mm in two or more contiguous leads (Correct answer)
T-wave inversion in one lead
Prolonged PR interval

Correct answer: ST segment elevation of ≥1 mm in two or more contiguous leads

STEMI is diagnosed by ST elevation of ≥1 mm in two or more anatomically contiguous leads, indicating complete occlusion of a coronary artery requiring urgent reperfusion.

Question 44: Which dietary deficiency is most commonly associated with pressure ulcer development in hospitalised patients?

Vitamin C deficiency only
Excess sodium intake
Protein and caloric malnutrition (Correct answer)
Iron deficiency anaemia

Correct answer: Protein and caloric malnutrition

Protein and caloric malnutrition impair tissue repair, reduce immune defences, and decrease skin integrity, making patients significantly more prone to pressure ulcers.

Question 45: What is the DHA nursing protocol for assessing a patient's fall risk?

Use a validated fall risk assessment tool on admission, after a fall, with any change in condition, and at regular intervals (Correct answer)
Only assess patients over 65 years old
Only assess surgical patients
Fall risk assessment is optional

Correct answer: Use a validated fall risk assessment tool on admission, after a fall, with any change in condition, and at regular intervals

DHA requires fall risk assessment using validated tools (such as the Morse Fall Scale) on admission, after any fall event, whenever the patient's condition changes, and at regular intervals throughout hospitalization.

Question 46: What does the term 'triage' mean in an emergency nursing context?

Discharging stable patients
Sorting patients by urgency to prioritise care (Correct answer)
Documenting patient allergies
Transferring patients between departments

Correct answer: Sorting patients by urgency to prioritise care

Triage is the systematic process of sorting patients according to the urgency of their condition to ensure those with the greatest need receive care first.

Question 47: What is the 'six rights' framework used for in nursing practice?

Discharge planning steps
Patient admission checklist
Surgical time-out protocol
Ensuring safe medication administration (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ensuring safe medication administration

The six rights (right patient, drug, dose, route, time, documentation) serve as a systematic safety framework to prevent medication administration errors.

Question 48: What is the DHA requirement for clinical handover between nursing shifts?

Informal chat between nurses
Handover is optional
Written report only with no verbal communication
Structured bedside handover using SBAR format, including patient verification, current status, plan of care, and outstanding tasks (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Structured bedside handover using SBAR format, including patient verification, current status, plan of care, and outstanding tasks

DHA requires structured bedside handover using the SBAR format, including patient identification verification, current clinical status, ongoing treatment plan, pending investigations, and outstanding tasks.

Question 49: What is the minimum duration for alcohol-based hand rub application according to DHA standards?

1 minute
20-30 seconds covering all surfaces of both hands until dry (Correct answer)
5 seconds
10 seconds

Correct answer: 20-30 seconds covering all surfaces of both hands until dry

DHA standards require alcohol-based hand rub to be applied to all surfaces of both hands and rubbed together for 20-30 seconds until completely dry to ensure effective microbial reduction.

Question 50: What is the DHA standard for pressure injury prevention?

Only apply barrier cream
Risk assessment on admission, regular repositioning schedule, nutritional optimization, skin assessment, and appropriate support surface selection (Correct answer)
Only use special mattresses
Prevention is only for ICU patients

Correct answer: Risk assessment on admission, regular repositioning schedule, nutritional optimization, skin assessment, and appropriate support surface selection

DHA pressure injury prevention includes Braden Scale risk assessment, 2-hourly repositioning schedules, nutritional optimization, regular skin integrity checks, moisture management, and appropriate support surface selection.

Question 51: A patient with Cushing's syndrome is most at risk for which metabolic complication?

Hypocalcaemia
Hyponatraemia
Hyperglycaemia and diabetes mellitus (Correct answer)
Hypoglycaemia

Correct answer: Hyperglycaemia and diabetes mellitus

Excess cortisol in Cushing's syndrome promotes gluconeogenesis and insulin resistance, leading to hyperglycaemia and secondary diabetes mellitus.

Question 52: A 2-year-old presents with a barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and low-grade fever. Which condition is most likely?

Acute asthma
Bronchiolitis
Epiglottitis
Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)

Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) is characterized by a distinctive barking or seal-like cough, inspiratory stridor, and mild fever, typically caused by parainfluenza virus.

Question 53: Which laboratory value is the primary indicator of kidney function monitored in medical-surgical patients?

Serum creatinine (Correct answer)
White blood cell count
Haemoglobin
Serum albumin

Correct answer: Serum creatinine

Serum creatinine is the most reliable routine indicator of glomerular filtration rate and overall kidney function in clinical settings.

Question 54: What does the SBAR communication tool stand for?

Situation, Breathing, Assessment, Response
Signs, Background, Advice, Report
Status, Background, Action, Review
Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation

SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) is a structured communication framework that improves clarity and safety during handoffs and urgent patient notifications.

Question 55: Which early sign of septic shock distinguishes it from other shock types?

Hypertension with bradycardia
Cold, clammy, mottled skin initially
Absence of fever
Warm, flushed skin with hypotension (warm shock phase) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Warm, flushed skin with hypotension (warm shock phase)

In early septic shock (warm phase), vasodilation causes warm, flushed skin and hypotension, distinguishing it from the cool vasoconstriction seen in cardiogenic or hypovolaemic shock.

Question 56: What is the DHA protocol for managing multidrug-resistant organism (MDRO) infections?

Isolation is not required for MDRO
Contact precautions with gowning, gloving, dedicated equipment, enhanced environmental cleaning, and antimicrobial stewardship (Correct answer)
Only antibiotics are needed
No special precautions beyond standard

Correct answer: Contact precautions with gowning, gloving, dedicated equipment, enhanced environmental cleaning, and antimicrobial stewardship

DHA MDRO management includes contact precautions (gown and gloves), dedicated patient equipment, enhanced environmental cleaning, active surveillance cultures, and antimicrobial stewardship to prevent spread.

Question 57: Which position is recommended for a patient experiencing respiratory distress to maximise lung expansion?

High Fowler's (90°) (Correct answer)
Prone
Trendelenburg
Supine

Correct answer: High Fowler's (90°)

High Fowler's position at 90 degrees allows maximum diaphragm descent and lung expansion, improving oxygenation in patients with breathing difficulty.

Question 58: How should a DHA nurse perform a pain assessment for a non-verbal patient?

Assume no pain if the patient is not crying
Only assess pain when family members are present
Use behavioral pain assessment tools such as the FLACC scale or CPOT, observing facial expressions, body movements, and vital signs (Correct answer)
Ask the physician to assess pain

Correct answer: Use behavioral pain assessment tools such as the FLACC scale or CPOT, observing facial expressions, body movements, and vital signs

For non-verbal patients, DHA nurses use validated behavioral pain assessment tools (FLACC, CPOT, BPS) that evaluate facial expressions, body movements, muscle tension, and physiological indicators.

Question 59: A patient on heparin infusion has an aPTT of 200 seconds (therapeutic range 60–100 seconds). What is the priority nursing action?

Increase the heparin infusion rate
Hold the heparin infusion and notify the physician immediately (Correct answer)
Administer vitamin K
Ignore the result and recheck in 6 hours

Correct answer: Hold the heparin infusion and notify the physician immediately

An aPTT of 200 seconds is significantly supratherapeutic, indicating a high bleeding risk; the infusion must be stopped and the physician notified for dose adjustment.

Question 60: A nurse assesses a breastfed newborn on day 5 of life. Which finding best indicates adequate milk intake?

6–8 wet diapers per day (Correct answer)
Infant feeds only when visibly distressed
Infant sleeps for 6-hour stretches
2–3 wet diapers per day

Correct answer: 6–8 wet diapers per day

By day 4–5, a well-hydrated, adequately fed newborn should produce 6–8 wet diapers per day, indicating sufficient fluid and caloric intake.

Question 61: A 3-year-old child experiences a febrile seizure. What is the nurse's priority intervention during the seizure?

Administer rectal diazepam at seizure onset
Insert an oral airway device immediately
Restrain the child's limbs to prevent injury
Position the child on the side to maintain airway patency (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Position the child on the side to maintain airway patency

Positioning the child on the side (recovery position) during a seizure prevents aspiration and maintains airway patency; restraint and oral insertion are contraindicated.

Question 62: Which DHA category covers nurses with advanced specialisation such as nurse practitioners or clinical nurse specialists?

Advanced Practice Nurse (APN) (Correct answer)
Registered Nurse (General)
Nursing Aide
Healthcare Assistant

Correct answer: Advanced Practice Nurse (APN)

DHA's Advanced Practice Nurse category recognises nurses with postgraduate qualifications and expanded clinical roles beyond those of a general registered nurse.

Question 63: What is the DHA licensing process for nurses wishing to practice in Dubai?

Only submit a resume
Submit credentials for dataflow verification, pass the DHA licensing exam, obtain eligibility letter, and apply for professional license (Correct answer)
Only pass an English language test
No license is required

Correct answer: Submit credentials for dataflow verification, pass the DHA licensing exam, obtain eligibility letter, and apply for professional license

DHA nursing licensure requires primary source verification through DataFlow, successful completion of the DHA professional licensing examination, obtaining an eligibility letter, and formal license application.

Question 64: A patient post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) reports sudden onset chest pain and shortness of breath on day 2. What should the nurse assess first?

Airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs) (Correct answer)
Urine output only
Last bowel movement
Pain scale rating

Correct answer: Airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs)

Following cardiac surgery, sudden chest pain and dyspnoea may indicate life-threatening complications such as cardiac tamponade or pulmonary embolism, requiring immediate ABC assessment.

Question 65: The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) assesses which three patient responses?

Pupil size, pain response, breathing
Orientation, memory, reflexes
Pulse, pressure, pupils
Eye opening, verbal response, motor response (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Eye opening, verbal response, motor response

The GCS evaluates eye opening (4 points), verbal response (5 points), and motor response (6 points) to objectively quantify level of consciousness.

Question 66: In the UAE, which government authority is responsible for national public health policy and health sector regulation?

Ministry of Health and Prevention (MOHAP) (Correct answer)
Emirates Health Services (EHS)
Dubai Health Authority (DHA)
Department of Health Abu Dhabi (DOH)

Correct answer: Ministry of Health and Prevention (MOHAP)

MOHAP is the federal government authority responsible for overall national health policy, regulation, and public health initiatives across the UAE.

Question 67: During the third stage of labor, the nurse observes a sudden gush of blood and lengthening of the umbilical cord. What does this indicate?

Postpartum hemorrhage has occurred
Cord prolapse has occurred
Uterine inversion is imminent
Placental separation is complete (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Placental separation is complete

A sudden gush of blood and cord lengthening are the two classic signs that the placenta has separated from the uterine wall and is ready to be delivered.

Question 68: What hemodynamic monitoring parameters must DHA ICU nurses understand?

Only blood pressure and heart rate
Only oxygen saturation
Arterial blood pressure, central venous pressure, cardiac output, mean arterial pressure, and their clinical significance (Correct answer)
Hemodynamic monitoring is only for physicians

Correct answer: Arterial blood pressure, central venous pressure, cardiac output, mean arterial pressure, and their clinical significance

DHA ICU nurses must understand and monitor multiple hemodynamic parameters including arterial BP, CVP, cardiac output/index, MAP, SVR, and their significance for guiding fluid and vasopressor therapy.

Question 69: How should DHA nurses handle contaminated linen?

Place in designated color-coded bags at the point of use, minimize handling, and do not sort or rinse at the bedside (Correct answer)
Mix with regular laundry
Rinse before placing in laundry bag
Store in the patient room until end of shift

Correct answer: Place in designated color-coded bags at the point of use, minimize handling, and do not sort or rinse at the bedside

DHA protocols require contaminated linen to be placed in appropriate color-coded bags at the point of use, handled minimally to reduce contamination spread, and never sorted or rinsed at the bedside.

Question 70: A patient is prescribed warfarin. Which laboratory test is used to monitor therapeutic levels?

Complete blood count (CBC)
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Serum potassium
Prothrombin time / INR (PT/INR) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Prothrombin time / INR (PT/INR)

Warfarin's anticoagulant effect is monitored using PT/INR, which measures the extrinsic clotting pathway that warfarin inhibits.

Question 71: Which finding indicates fluid volume excess (hypervolaemia) in a medical-surgical patient?

Hypotension and tachycardia
Concentrated urine and thirst
Dry mucous membranes and poor skin turgor
Bounding pulse, crackles in lung bases, and peripheral oedema (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Bounding pulse, crackles in lung bases, and peripheral oedema

Fluid volume excess causes increased vascular pressure, leading to a bounding pulse, pulmonary oedema heard as crackles, and peripheral oedema from fluid shifting into tissues.

Question 72: Which ventilator alarm should prompt the nurse to assess the patient first for a disconnection or leak?

Low pressure / low minute volume alarm (Correct answer)
High respiratory rate alarm
High pressure alarm
High FiO2 alarm

Correct answer: Low pressure / low minute volume alarm

A low pressure or low minute volume alarm in a ventilated patient indicates loss of circuit integrity such as a disconnection, leak, or dislodged endotracheal tube.

Question 73: What is the DHA protocol for managing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

Only increase oxygen to 100%
Lung-protective ventilation strategy, prone positioning, strict fluid management, and continuous monitoring of oxygenation and compliance (Correct answer)
Only provide high-flow oxygen
ARDS is not managed in Dubai

Correct answer: Lung-protective ventilation strategy, prone positioning, strict fluid management, and continuous monitoring of oxygenation and compliance

DHA ARDS management includes lung-protective ventilation (low tidal volumes 6ml/kg), prone positioning for 16+ hours, conservative fluid management, continuous SpO2/ABG monitoring, and sedation management.

Question 74: What is the DHA process for handling professional misconduct complaints against nurses?

Only verbal warnings are given
Formal investigation by DHA licensing department, opportunity for the nurse to respond, disciplinary hearing, and potential sanctions ranging from warning to license revocation (Correct answer)
Complaints are ignored
Nurses cannot face disciplinary action

Correct answer: Formal investigation by DHA licensing department, opportunity for the nurse to respond, disciplinary hearing, and potential sanctions ranging from warning to license revocation

DHA handles professional misconduct through formal investigation, providing the nurse opportunity to respond, conducting disciplinary hearings when warranted, with potential sanctions from warnings to license suspension or revocation.

Question 75: What is the correct sequence of the nursing process?

Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation (Correct answer)
Implementation, Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Evaluation
Diagnosis, Assessment, Planning, Evaluation, Implementation
Planning, Assessment, Diagnosis, Implementation, Evaluation

Correct answer: Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation

The nursing process follows the ADPIE sequence: Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, and Evaluation to provide systematic patient care.

Question 76: What is the most common early sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) in a neuro-surgical patient?

Vomiting without nausea
Decreasing level of consciousness / altered mental status (Correct answer)
Bradycardia alone
Hypertension alone

Correct answer: Decreasing level of consciousness / altered mental status

A change in level of consciousness is the earliest and most sensitive indicator of rising intracranial pressure as cerebral perfusion is compromised.

Question 77: What is the DHA requirement for patient education and discharge planning?

Only provide written instructions at discharge
Education is the physician's responsibility only
Discharge instructions are optional
Begin discharge planning on admission, provide written and verbal education in the patient's language, and ensure understanding through teach-back method (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Begin discharge planning on admission, provide written and verbal education in the patient's language, and ensure understanding through teach-back method

DHA requires discharge planning to begin on admission, with patient education provided in the patient's preferred language using both written and verbal methods, with understanding verified through the teach-back method.

Question 78: According to WHO classification, what birth weight defines a newborn as having low birth weight (LBW)?

Less than 3.0 kg
Less than 2.5 kg (Correct answer)
Less than 2.0 kg
Less than 3.5 kg

Correct answer: Less than 2.5 kg

The WHO defines low birth weight as a birth weight of less than 2,500 grams (2.5 kg), regardless of gestational age.

Question 79: What is the recommended frequency for neurological observations using the Glasgow Coma Scale in DHA acute care settings?

Once per nursing shift
Every 15 minutes to 4 hours depending on patient acuity and clinical condition (Correct answer)
Only on admission
Once daily

Correct answer: Every 15 minutes to 4 hours depending on patient acuity and clinical condition

DHA protocols require neurological observations at frequencies determined by patient acuity: every 15 minutes for acute neurosurgical patients, progressing to 1-4 hourly as the patient stabilizes.

Question 80: Which action should a nurse take FIRST upon discovering an unresponsive patient?

Insert an IV line
Assess responsiveness and call for help (Correct answer)
Obtain a 12-lead ECG
Administer oxygen immediately

Correct answer: Assess responsiveness and call for help

The first step in an emergency is to assess the patient's responsiveness and activate the emergency response system to ensure help arrives promptly.

Question 81: A patient with a chest tube to water-seal drainage shows continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber. What does this indicate?

Air leak in the system or lung (Correct answer)
Suction level too high
Fluid drainage complete
Normal functioning

Correct answer: Air leak in the system or lung

Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber (not during respiration only) suggests an ongoing air leak, either from the patient's lung or a break in the drainage system.

Question 82: What are the DHA requirements for nursing documentation?

Only document medications given
Documentation is optional
All nursing assessments, interventions, and outcomes must be documented accurately, timely, legibly, and in compliance with DHA standards (Correct answer)
Verbal reports replace written documentation

Correct answer: All nursing assessments, interventions, and outcomes must be documented accurately, timely, legibly, and in compliance with DHA standards

DHA requires comprehensive nursing documentation that is accurate, timely (real-time or within policy timeframes), legible, complete, and follows standardized formats including assessment findings, interventions, and patient responses.

Question 83: A nurse discovers that a colleague has made a medication error but has not reported it. What should the nurse do?

Encourage the colleague to report the error and report it themselves if the colleague refuses (Correct answer)
Report the colleague to the police immediately
Do nothing as it is not their responsibility
Cover for the colleague to avoid embarrassment

Correct answer: Encourage the colleague to report the error and report it themselves if the colleague refuses

Patient safety requires that medication errors be reported; if a colleague refuses, the nurse has a professional and ethical duty to report the incident through proper channels.

Question 84: Which social determinant of health most strongly correlates with poor health outcomes in UAE migrant worker populations?

Crowded living conditions, limited healthcare access, and occupational hazards (Correct answer)
Air conditioning use
High sugar consumption only
Excessive screen time

Correct answer: Crowded living conditions, limited healthcare access, and occupational hazards

UAE migrant workers often live in overcrowded labour camps with limited healthcare access and exposure to occupational hazards, which are well-documented social determinants of poor health.

Question 85: What is the DHA incident reporting system and when should nurses use it?

Incident reporting is voluntary
Report all incidents, near-misses, and adverse events through the electronic incident reporting system within 24 hours (Correct answer)
Only for serious harm events
Only when requested by management

Correct answer: Report all incidents, near-misses, and adverse events through the electronic incident reporting system within 24 hours

DHA requires reporting of all incidents including near-misses, adverse events, and sentinel events through the electronic reporting system within 24 hours, fostering a just culture of learning and improvement.

Question 86: What continuing education does DHA require for nurses regarding medication safety?

Only orientation training
Annual medication safety competency assessments, updates on new medications and protocols, and high-alert medication training (Correct answer)
Education only after a medication error occurs
No continuing education is required

Correct answer: Annual medication safety competency assessments, updates on new medications and protocols, and high-alert medication training

DHA requires ongoing medication safety education including annual competency assessments, updates on formulary changes and new medications, high-alert medication training, and participation in safety improvement initiatives.

Question 87: A nurse is preparing to administer morphine 4 mg IV. The vial contains 10 mg/mL. How many mL should be drawn up?

0.04 mL
4 mL
1 mL
0.4 mL (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 0.4 mL

Using the formula: Dose required ÷ Concentration = 4 mg ÷ 10 mg/mL = 0.4 mL of the morphine solution.

Question 88: A patient's urine turns orange-red after starting rifampicin. What should the nurse tell the patient?

This is a harmless expected side effect of rifampicin (Correct answer)
Stop the medication immediately
Increase oral fluid intake to 5 litres per day
This indicates severe kidney damage

Correct answer: This is a harmless expected side effect of rifampicin

Rifampicin causes harmless orange-red discolouration of urine, sweat, and tears; patients should be reassured this is expected and not a sign of harm.

Question 89: What is the DHA requirement for healthcare worker vaccination?

Mandatory vaccinations including Hepatitis B, influenza, and other role-specific immunizations as per DHA occupational health policy (Correct answer)
No vaccinations are required
Vaccination is optional for all staff
Only Hepatitis B vaccination is required

Correct answer: Mandatory vaccinations including Hepatitis B, influenza, and other role-specific immunizations as per DHA occupational health policy

DHA requires healthcare workers to maintain current vaccinations including Hepatitis B (with confirmed immunity), annual influenza vaccination, and other immunizations based on role and patient population exposure.

Question 90: Which type of wound drainage is thin, watery, and blood-tinged?

Purulent
Serous
Sanguineous
Serosanguineous (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Serosanguineous

Serosanguineous drainage is a mixture of serum and blood, appearing pale pink and watery, commonly seen in the early stages of wound healing.

Question 91: Which device is used to deliver the highest concentration of oxygen to a spontaneously breathing patient in the ICU?

Non-rebreather mask (delivers up to 90–100% O2) (Correct answer)
Simple face mask (35–55% O2)
Nasal cannula (maximum ~44% O2)
Venturi mask (24–60% controlled O2)

Correct answer: Non-rebreather mask (delivers up to 90–100% O2)

A non-rebreather mask with an oxygen reservoir can deliver up to 90–100% inspired oxygen concentration, making it the highest delivery device for spontaneously breathing patients.

Question 92: What is the primary purpose of incentive spirometry in post-operative patients?

To encourage deep breathing and prevent atelectasis (Correct answer)
To monitor carbon dioxide levels
To measure peak expiratory flow
To administer inhaled medications

Correct answer: To encourage deep breathing and prevent atelectasis

Incentive spirometry promotes sustained maximal inspiration, expanding alveoli and preventing atelectasis—a common post-operative pulmonary complication.

Question 93: What is the DHA policy on nurse staffing ratios in critical care units?

DHA mandates minimum nurse-to-patient ratios based on unit acuity, typically 1:1 or 1:2 for ICU settings (Correct answer)
Ratios are only guidelines, not mandatory
No specific ratios are defined
One nurse for the entire unit

Correct answer: DHA mandates minimum nurse-to-patient ratios based on unit acuity, typically 1:1 or 1:2 for ICU settings

DHA mandates minimum nurse-to-patient ratios that vary by unit type and acuity, with ICU typically requiring 1:1 or 1:2 ratios, ensuring adequate staffing for safe patient care.

Question 94: Which category of DHA nursing license is issued to a nurse who has met all requirements and has no practice restrictions?

Temporary License
Trainee License
Full License (Correct answer)
Provisional License

Correct answer: Full License

A Full License is awarded to nurses who have satisfied all DHA educational, experiential, examination, and verification requirements without restrictions.

Question 95: According to DHA nursing standards, what is the correct order for physical assessment?

Percussion, palpation, auscultation, inspection
Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation (Correct answer)
Auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion
Palpation, inspection, percussion, auscultation

Correct answer: Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation

DHA nursing standards follow the systematic approach of inspection (visual observation), palpation (touch), percussion (tapping), and auscultation (listening), except for abdominal assessment where auscultation precedes palpation.

Question 96: What are the WHO 'Five Moments for Hand Hygiene' that DHA nurses must follow?

Before and after meals only
Only after patient contact
Before patient contact, before aseptic procedure, after body fluid exposure, after patient contact, after touching patient surroundings (Correct answer)
Only before procedures

Correct answer: Before patient contact, before aseptic procedure, after body fluid exposure, after patient contact, after touching patient surroundings

DHA follows the WHO Five Moments: before touching a patient, before clean/aseptic procedures, after body fluid exposure risk, after touching a patient, and after touching patient surroundings.

Question 97: What is the DHA protocol for medication reconciliation?

Only required for elderly patients
Compare the patient's current medications against new orders at admission, transfer, and discharge to identify and resolve discrepancies (Correct answer)
Not required in Dubai healthcare facilities
Only performed at discharge

Correct answer: Compare the patient's current medications against new orders at admission, transfer, and discharge to identify and resolve discrepancies

DHA requires medication reconciliation at every transition of care (admission, transfer, discharge), comparing home medications against new orders to identify duplications, omissions, and interactions.

Question 98: In adult basic life support (BLS), what is the correct chest compression rate?

40–60 compressions per minute
100–120 compressions per minute (Correct answer)
60–80 compressions per minute
130–150 compressions per minute

Correct answer: 100–120 compressions per minute

The American Heart Association and current BLS guidelines recommend a chest compression rate of 100–120 per minute to maintain adequate cardiac output during CPR.

Question 99: What is the normal resting heart rate range for a healthy term newborn?

140–200 bpm
80–120 bpm
60–100 bpm
100–160 bpm (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 100–160 bpm

A normal resting heart rate for a term newborn is 100–160 bpm; rates below 100 bpm (bradycardia) or above 160 bpm at rest may require evaluation.

Question 100: What type of isolation precautions does DHA require for a patient with active pulmonary tuberculosis?

Droplet precautions only
Contact precautions only
Airborne precautions including negative pressure room, N95 respirator, and restricted entry (Correct answer)
Standard precautions only

Correct answer: Airborne precautions including negative pressure room, N95 respirator, and restricted entry

Active pulmonary TB requires airborne precautions: placement in a negative pressure isolation room, N95 respirator use by all entering staff, and restricted visitor access as per DHA infection control policies.

Question 101: What is the primary nursing concern when a patient with a traumatic brain injury (TBI) has a rising blood pressure and falling heart rate?

Medication side effect from beta-blockers
Cushing's triad indicating severely raised ICP requiring immediate intervention (Correct answer)
Hypovolaemic shock
Normal physiological stress response

Correct answer: Cushing's triad indicating severely raised ICP requiring immediate intervention

Cushing's triad (hypertension, bradycardia, and irregular respirations) is a late, ominous sign of severely elevated ICP threatening brainstem herniation.

Question 102: What is the purpose of the Braden Scale used in DHA healthcare facilities?

To evaluate fall risk
To calculate medication doses
To measure pain levels
To assess a patient's risk for developing pressure injuries (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To assess a patient's risk for developing pressure injuries

The Braden Scale assesses six risk factors (sensory perception, moisture, activity, mobility, nutrition, friction/shear) to predict pressure injury risk, guiding preventive interventions in DHA facilities.

Question 103: What are the 'Rights' of medication administration that DHA nurses must follow?

Right patient, right drug, right dose only
Right patient only
Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time, right documentation, right reason, right response (Correct answer)
Right dose and right time only

Correct answer: Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time, right documentation, right reason, right response

DHA extends the traditional '5 Rights' to include right documentation (recording administration), right reason (understanding the indication), and right response (monitoring for expected and adverse effects).

Question 104: Before administering a blood transfusion, which nursing action is the most critical safety step?

Taking the patient's blood pressure only
Checking the patient's haemoglobin level
Hanging normal saline after the blood
Two-nurse verification of patient identity and blood product compatibility (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Two-nurse verification of patient identity and blood product compatibility

Two-nurse identity and blood product verification is the critical safety check that prevents transfusion reactions caused by administering incompatible blood.

Question 105: A nurse must administer potassium chloride (KCl) IV. Which statement is correct?

KCl should be given subcutaneously if IV access is unavailable
It can be given as a rapid IV push if diluted
It must always be diluted and given slowly via infusion pump; never as an IV bolus (Correct answer)
Undiluted KCl can be administered if the patient is severely hypokalaemic

Correct answer: It must always be diluted and given slowly via infusion pump; never as an IV bolus

IV potassium chloride must be diluted and infused slowly via pump because a rapid bolus can cause fatal cardiac arrhythmias.

Question 106: Which complication is most commonly associated with prolonged bed rest in post-surgical patients?

Hypertension
Hyperglycaemia
Hyperkalaemia
Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

Venous stasis from immobility during prolonged bed rest is the primary risk factor for deep vein thrombosis in post-surgical patients.

Question 107: Which of the following best describes the primary prevention strategy for type 2 diabetes in a UAE community programme?

Mass screening of the population for diabetes
Providing free insulin to at-risk individuals
Promoting healthy diet, physical activity, and weight management to prevent disease onset (Correct answer)
Treating diagnosed diabetics with medication

Correct answer: Promoting healthy diet, physical activity, and weight management to prevent disease onset

Primary prevention of type 2 diabetes targets modifiable risk factors through lifestyle interventions—diet, exercise, and weight management—before the disease develops.

Question 108: Which antidote is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression?

Atropine
Naloxone (Narcan) (Correct answer)
Flumazenil
Protamine sulphate

Correct answer: Naloxone (Narcan)

Naloxone is a competitive opioid receptor antagonist that rapidly reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression, sedation, and analgesia.

Question 109: Which assessment tool is commonly used to identify early clinical deterioration in ward patients before ICU transfer?

SOFA score
National Early Warning Score (NEWS2) (Correct answer)
APACHE II
Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)

Correct answer: National Early Warning Score (NEWS2)

NEWS2 is a validated bedside scoring system using vital signs to detect early deterioration and trigger escalation of care before a patient reaches critical status.

Question 110: What is the DHA protocol for management of needlestick injuries?

Report at end of shift
Immediately wash with soap and water, report to occupational health, complete incident report, and initiate post-exposure prophylaxis assessment (Correct answer)
No action is needed if wearing gloves
Apply antiseptic and continue working

Correct answer: Immediately wash with soap and water, report to occupational health, complete incident report, and initiate post-exposure prophylaxis assessment

DHA needlestick protocol requires immediate wound washing with soap and water (not squeezing), prompt reporting to occupational health, incident documentation, baseline blood tests, and PEP assessment within recommended timeframes.

Question 111: Which IV fluid is isotonic and most commonly used for fluid resuscitation?

3% Hypertonic Saline
Dextrose 10% in Water
0.9% Normal Saline (NS) (Correct answer)
0.45% Hypotonic Saline

Correct answer: 0.9% Normal Saline (NS)

0.9% Normal Saline is isotonic (osmolality ~308 mOsm/L), making it the standard choice for extracellular fluid replacement and resuscitation.

Question 112: What is the DHA protocol for delirium assessment and management in ICU?

Only physical restraints are used
Screen using validated tools (CAM-ICU), implement prevention bundles (ABCDEF), minimize sedation, and promote sleep-wake cycles (Correct answer)
Delirium resolves without intervention
Delirium is not assessed in ICU

Correct answer: Screen using validated tools (CAM-ICU), implement prevention bundles (ABCDEF), minimize sedation, and promote sleep-wake cycles

DHA requires regular delirium screening using validated tools like CAM-ICU, implementation of the ABCDEF bundle (assessment, breathing trials, coordination, delirium monitoring, early mobility, family engagement), and non-pharmacological prevention.

Question 113: What are the DHA requirements for sterile technique during central line dressing changes?

Clean technique is sufficient
Only hand washing is required
No specific technique is required
Full aseptic technique including sterile gloves, mask, cap, sterile drapes, and chlorhexidine skin antisepsis (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Full aseptic technique including sterile gloves, mask, cap, sterile drapes, and chlorhexidine skin antisepsis

DHA requires maximal sterile barrier precautions for central line dressing changes including sterile gloves, mask, cap, sterile drapes, and chlorhexidine-based antiseptic for skin preparation to prevent CLABSI.

Question 114: What is the primary purpose of a nursing care plan?

To provide a structured, individualised roadmap for patient care (Correct answer)
To record medication costs
To communicate with insurance companies
To document billing information

Correct answer: To provide a structured, individualised roadmap for patient care

A nursing care plan provides a systematic, individualised guide that coordinates nursing interventions and goals to meet each patient's specific health needs.

Question 115: What is the DHA regulation regarding nurse administration of controlled substances?

Controlled substances require dual-nurse verification, accurate documentation in the controlled drug register, and secure storage (Correct answer)
Controlled substances are only given by physicians
No special regulations exist
Any nurse can administer controlled substances without verification

Correct answer: Controlled substances require dual-nurse verification, accurate documentation in the controlled drug register, and secure storage

DHA regulations require two nurses to verify controlled substance administration, with precise documentation in the controlled drug register including time, dose, patient, and both nurses' signatures, with medications stored in locked cabinets.

Question 116: A pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation presents with painless bright red vaginal bleeding. Which condition should be suspected first?

Placenta previa (Correct answer)
Ectopic pregnancy
Abruptio placentae
Threatened miscarriage

Correct answer: Placenta previa

Placenta previa classically presents with painless bright red vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester due to the low-lying placenta separating from the uterine wall.

Question 117: What is the DHA standard for personal protective equipment (PPE) donning and doffing sequence?

Put everything on simultaneously
Don: gown, mask/respirator, goggles, gloves; Doff: gloves, goggles, gown, mask/respirator with hand hygiene between steps (Correct answer)
Only follow sequence during COVID outbreaks
No specific sequence is required

Correct answer: Don: gown, mask/respirator, goggles, gloves; Doff: gloves, goggles, gown, mask/respirator with hand hygiene between steps

DHA follows WHO/CDC PPE sequence: donning progresses from gown to mask to eye protection to gloves, while doffing removes the most contaminated items first (gloves) with hand hygiene between each step.

Question 118: A patient's blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. How is this classified?

Normal
Prehypertension
Hypertension
Hypotension (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hypotension

A blood pressure reading of 90/60 mmHg falls below the normal threshold and is classified as hypotension, indicating a potentially inadequate perfusion pressure.

Question 119: A mechanically ventilated patient develops sudden hypotension and absent breath sounds on one side. What complication should the nurse suspect?

Tension pneumothorax (Correct answer)
Ventilator-associated pneumonia
Pulmonary embolism
Aspiration pneumonia

Correct answer: Tension pneumothorax

Sudden hypotension with unilateral absent breath sounds in a ventilated patient is the hallmark presentation of tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening emergency.

Question 120: A nurse observes variable decelerations on continuous fetal heart rate monitoring. What is the priority nursing action?

Administer oxygen via face mask
Reposition the mother (Correct answer)
Increase IV fluid rate
Notify the physician immediately

Correct answer: Reposition the mother

Variable decelerations are caused by umbilical cord compression; repositioning the mother (e.g., left lateral or knee-chest position) is the first action to relieve compression.

Question 121: What is the DHA requirement for antibiotic stewardship in nursing practice?

Only physicians participate in stewardship
Ensure correct timing of antibiotic administration, obtain cultures before first dose, monitor for adverse effects, and report antibiotic duration (Correct answer)
Only administer antibiotics as ordered
Nurses have no role in antibiotic stewardship

Correct answer: Ensure correct timing of antibiotic administration, obtain cultures before first dose, monitor for adverse effects, and report antibiotic duration

DHA nursing responsibilities in antibiotic stewardship include timely administration (within 1 hour of order), obtaining cultures before first antibiotic dose, monitoring for adverse effects, and tracking treatment duration.

Question 122: A nurse is providing anticipatory guidance to a mother of a 2-year-old who refuses to eat vegetables. What is the most appropriate recommendation?

Refer immediately to a dietitian for nutritional deficiency testing
Replace vegetables with vitamin supplements indefinitely
Force the child to eat vegetables at every meal
Offer vegetables repeatedly in a positive, pressure-free environment (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Offer vegetables repeatedly in a positive, pressure-free environment

Repeated, low-pressure exposure to new foods helps toddlers gradually accept them; forcing food creates negative associations and power struggles.

Question 123: Which vaccination is part of the UAE national immunisation schedule for newborns at birth?

Influenza vaccine
HPV vaccine
MMR vaccine
Hepatitis B vaccine (first dose) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hepatitis B vaccine (first dose)

The UAE national immunisation schedule requires the first dose of hepatitis B vaccine to be administered at birth to prevent vertical (mother-to-child) transmission.

Question 124: What is the correct needle angle for an intradermal (ID) injection?

5–15 degrees (Correct answer)
30–45 degrees
90 degrees
45 degrees

Correct answer: 5–15 degrees

Intradermal injections are administered at a 5–15 degree angle with the bevel up, delivering small volumes just beneath the skin surface to form a wheal.

Question 125: In community nursing, what is the purpose of an epidemiological approach?

To manage hospital bed capacity
To prescribe medications for chronic illness
To study the distribution and determinants of disease in populations to inform public health interventions (Correct answer)
To treat individual patients at home

Correct answer: To study the distribution and determinants of disease in populations to inform public health interventions

Epidemiology examines how diseases are distributed across populations and identifies risk factors, enabling targeted public health strategies to reduce disease burden.

Question 126: What is the DHA nursing role in the management of sepsis?

Only monitor temperature
Sepsis management is only a physician responsibility
Early recognition using screening tools, obtaining blood cultures, ensuring IV antibiotics within 1 hour, fluid resuscitation, and lactate monitoring (Correct answer)
Only administer antibiotics

Correct answer: Early recognition using screening tools, obtaining blood cultures, ensuring IV antibiotics within 1 hour, fluid resuscitation, and lactate monitoring

DHA nurses play a critical role in sepsis management: screening for sepsis using validated tools, obtaining blood cultures before antibiotics, ensuring antibiotic administration within 1 hour, initiating fluid resuscitation, and monitoring lactate levels.

Question 127: A patient's SpO2 drops to 88% on room air. What is the nurse's immediate priority?

Administer IV morphine
Order a chest X-ray first
Document the finding and wait for rounds
Apply supplemental oxygen and reassess (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Apply supplemental oxygen and reassess

An SpO2 of 88% indicates significant hypoxaemia; immediate supplemental oxygen is required to restore adequate tissue oxygenation.

Question 128: What is the purpose of conducting a medication reconciliation on patient admission?

To reduce the number of prescribed medications
To accurately compare current medications and prevent omissions, duplications, or harmful interactions (Correct answer)
To educate the patient about diet
To generate a billing statement

Correct answer: To accurately compare current medications and prevent omissions, duplications, or harmful interactions

Medication reconciliation ensures a complete and accurate medication list at care transitions, preventing discrepancies that can lead to patient harm.

Question 129: What surveillance activities must DHA nurses participate in for infection prevention?

No surveillance is required
Monitoring and reporting healthcare-associated infections, surgical site infections, device-related infections, and antimicrobial usage (Correct answer)
Only completing annual surveys
Only reporting outbreaks

Correct answer: Monitoring and reporting healthcare-associated infections, surgical site infections, device-related infections, and antimicrobial usage

DHA requires active surveillance participation including monitoring HAIs (CLABSI, CAUTI, VAP, SSI), reporting notifiable diseases, tracking antimicrobial usage, and participating in outbreak investigations.

Question 130: What is the DHA protocol for preventing patient falls?

Only restrain high-risk patients
Falls prevention is not a nursing responsibility
Only provide non-slip socks
Conduct risk assessment on admission, implement individualized prevention strategies, ensure safe environment, and report all falls through incident reporting (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Conduct risk assessment on admission, implement individualized prevention strategies, ensure safe environment, and report all falls through incident reporting

DHA fall prevention includes risk assessment using validated tools, individualized care plans (bed alarms, non-slip footwear, clear pathways, toileting schedules), environmental safety checks, and mandatory fall reporting.

Question 131: When documenting patient care, which principle is essential for legal and professional accuracy?

Pencil is acceptable for hard-copy records
Record entries must be accurate, timely, objective, and signed (Correct answer)
Documentation can be completed 24 hours after care
Personal opinions about the patient should be included

Correct answer: Record entries must be accurate, timely, objective, and signed

Nursing documentation must be accurate, timely, objective, and properly signed to constitute a legally defensible and professionally sound record of care.

Question 132: A nurse notes that a prescribed medication has a narrow therapeutic index. What does this mean clinically?

The drug has no side effects
Only one dose per day is required
The drug is safe at any dose
The difference between the therapeutic dose and the toxic dose is small, requiring careful monitoring (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The difference between the therapeutic dose and the toxic dose is small, requiring careful monitoring

A narrow therapeutic index means the effective and toxic plasma concentrations are close together, requiring frequent monitoring of drug levels and patient response.

Question 133: What is the correct method to verify a patient's identity before administering medication?

Rely on the patient's verbal confirmation only
Ask only the patient's room number
Check the medication label alone
Check two patient identifiers such as full name and date of birth (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Check two patient identifiers such as full name and date of birth

Using two independent patient identifiers (e.g., full name and date of birth) minimises the risk of medication errors by confirming the right patient.

Question 134: What is the DHA nursing responsibility for organ donation management?

Identify potential donors, notify the organ donation coordinator, maintain physiological stability of the donor, and support the family (Correct answer)
Nurses have no role in organ donation
Only physicians manage organ donation
Organ donation does not occur in UAE

Correct answer: Identify potential donors, notify the organ donation coordinator, maintain physiological stability of the donor, and support the family

DHA nurses play key roles in organ donation: identifying potential donors through clinical triggers, notifying coordinators, maintaining donor physiological stability (hemodynamics, oxygenation, temperature), and providing family support.

Question 135: What minimum English language proficiency score is generally accepted by DHA for nursing applicants?

TOEFL 80
IELTS 6.0 overall or OET Grade B (Correct answer)
IELTS 7.5 overall
No English test required

Correct answer: IELTS 6.0 overall or OET Grade B

DHA typically requires a minimum IELTS overall band of 6.0 or an OET Grade B to ensure nurses can communicate safely with patients and colleagues.

Question 136: How should a DHA nurse assess and document fluid balance?

Documentation is only needed for ICU patients
Accurately measure and record all fluid intake and output including oral, IV, urine, drainage, and insensible losses (Correct answer)
Only measure urine output
Estimate fluid intake visually

Correct answer: Accurately measure and record all fluid intake and output including oral, IV, urine, drainage, and insensible losses

DHA standards require accurate measurement and documentation of all fluid intake (oral, IV, enteral) and output (urine, drainage, vomiting, wound output) to maintain an accurate fluid balance record.

Question 137: A patient at 36 weeks gestation presents with sudden onset severe abdominal pain, a rigid board-like uterus, and dark vaginal bleeding. Which condition is most likely?

Uterine rupture
Abruptio placentae (Correct answer)
Placenta previa
Premature rupture of membranes

Correct answer: Abruptio placentae

Abruptio placentae (placental abruption) classically presents with painful dark vaginal bleeding and uterine rigidity due to concealed or revealed retroplacental hemorrhage.

Question 138: What is the DHA standard for restraint use in nursing practice?

Restraints require physician order, are used only as last resort, require continuous monitoring, and must be regularly reassessed for removal (Correct answer)
Restraints do not require documentation
Nurses can apply restraints at their discretion
Chemical restraint is always preferred

Correct answer: Restraints require physician order, are used only as last resort, require continuous monitoring, and must be regularly reassessed for removal

DHA restraint use requires a physician order, must be a last resort after alternative interventions, requires continuous patient monitoring with neurovascular checks, and must be reassessed regularly for earliest possible removal.

Question 139: What scope of practice restrictions apply to DHA-licensed nurses?

Nurses can perform any medical procedure
There are no scope restrictions in Dubai
Only restrictions apply to new graduates
Practice is limited to the scope defined by the nurse's qualification level, license category, and facility-specific credentialing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Practice is limited to the scope defined by the nurse's qualification level, license category, and facility-specific credentialing

DHA defines nursing scope of practice based on qualification level (enrolled nurse, registered nurse, specialist), license category, and individual facility credentialing and privileging processes.

Question 140: A postpartum nurse assesses lochia on day 2 and notes large clots with a foul-smelling odor. What is the priority action?

Encourage the mother to ambulate more frequently
Apply a warm compress to the abdomen
Document findings as normal lochia rubra
Notify the physician immediately (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Notify the physician immediately

Large clots with a foul odor in lochia are abnormal and may indicate postpartum hemorrhage or uterine infection, requiring immediate medical evaluation.

Question 141: What is the DHA protocol for managing IV infiltration or extravasation?

Immediately stop the infusion, aspirate residual fluid, apply appropriate compresses, elevate the limb, document and report (Correct answer)
Continue the infusion at a slower rate
Only apply a warm compress
Ignore if the patient does not complain

Correct answer: Immediately stop the infusion, aspirate residual fluid, apply appropriate compresses, elevate the limb, document and report

DHA protocols require immediate cessation of the infusion, aspiration of residual fluid through the catheter, application of hot or cold compresses depending on the medication, limb elevation, and detailed documentation.

Question 142: What is the DHA regulation on nurse-initiated medications (standing orders)?

Nurses can administer any medication without orders
Nurses may administer specific medications under approved standing orders or protocols, with documentation and physician notification (Correct answer)
Only senior nurses can use standing orders
Standing orders are not permitted in DHA facilities

Correct answer: Nurses may administer specific medications under approved standing orders or protocols, with documentation and physician notification

DHA allows nurses to administer certain medications under pre-approved standing orders or clinical protocols for specific clinical situations, with proper documentation and timely physician notification.

Question 143: A nurse is evaluating developmental milestones in a 12-month-old child during a well-baby visit. Which milestone is expected at this age?

Walking independently (Correct answer)
Running and climbing stairs
Drawing a straight line
Forming 3-word sentences

Correct answer: Walking independently

Walking independently is a gross motor milestone typically achieved by 12 months; running, 3-word sentences, and drawing develop later at 18–24 months.

Question 144: According to the UAE Expanded Programme on Immunization (EPI), which vaccines are administered to all newborns within 24 hours of birth?

MMR and Varicella
BCG and Hepatitis B (Correct answer)
Hepatitis A and Rotavirus
Polio (OPV) and DTP

Correct answer: BCG and Hepatitis B

In the UAE and WHO-recommended schedules, BCG (tuberculosis) and Hepatitis B vaccines are both administered within 24 hours of birth.

Question 145: What is the correct nursing intervention for a patient experiencing a generalised tonic-clonic seizure?

Protect the patient from injury, position on side, and time the seizure (Correct answer)
Insert a tongue depressor to prevent biting
Give oral medication immediately
Restrain the patient's limbs firmly

Correct answer: Protect the patient from injury, position on side, and time the seizure

During a seizure, nurses must protect the patient from injury, turn them to the side to prevent aspiration, and time the event to guide medical management.

Question 146: During the assessment of a laboring patient, the nurse observes the fetal head visible at the vaginal opening without retraction between contractions. This is known as:

Engagement
Crowning (Correct answer)
Effacement
Station +2

Correct answer: Crowning

Crowning occurs when the widest diameter of the fetal head is visible at the vaginal opening and does not retract between contractions, indicating imminent delivery.

Question 147: Which vital sign range indicates a normal adult respiratory rate?

25–35 breaths per minute
6–10 breaths per minute
12–20 breaths per minute (Correct answer)
40–50 breaths per minute

Correct answer: 12–20 breaths per minute

A normal adult respiratory rate is 12–20 breaths per minute; values outside this range may indicate respiratory compromise.

Question 148: Which route of drug administration has the fastest onset of action?

Intravenous (IV) (Correct answer)
Subcutaneous (SC)
Oral (PO)
Intramuscular (IM)

Correct answer: Intravenous (IV)

Intravenous administration delivers drug directly into the bloodstream, bypassing absorption barriers and providing the fastest onset of therapeutic effect.

Question 149: What is the DHA requirement for surgical safety checklist compliance?

Mandatory completion of the WHO Surgical Safety Checklist (sign-in, time-out, sign-out) for all surgical procedures (Correct answer)
Only required for cardiac surgery
Only the surgeon needs to participate
Optional for minor procedures

Correct answer: Mandatory completion of the WHO Surgical Safety Checklist (sign-in, time-out, sign-out) for all surgical procedures

DHA mandates the WHO Surgical Safety Checklist for all surgical procedures, including sign-in (before anesthesia), time-out (before incision), and sign-out (before patient leaves OR), involving the entire surgical team.

Question 150: What is the maximum single recommended dose of adrenaline (epinephrine) administered IV during adult cardiac arrest?

1 mg IV every 3–5 minutes (Correct answer)
10 mg IV once only
5 mg IV bolus every 2 minutes
0.1 mg IV every minute

Correct answer: 1 mg IV every 3–5 minutes

Current ACLS guidelines recommend 1 mg of IV epinephrine every 3–5 minutes during adult cardiac arrest to maintain coronary and cerebral perfusion pressure.

Question 151: Insulin glargine (Lantus) is classified as which type of insulin?

Intermediate-acting insulin
Rapid-acting insulin
Short-acting regular insulin
Long-acting basal insulin (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Long-acting basal insulin

Insulin glargine is a long-acting basal insulin with a relatively flat, peakless profile lasting approximately 24 hours, used to control fasting blood glucose.

Question 152: How does the DHA require nurses to respond to rapid deterioration of a patient?

Only call the charge nurse
Wait for the physician to notice
Use early warning scoring systems to detect deterioration, activate rapid response team when criteria are met, and initiate immediate interventions (Correct answer)
Document the deterioration and continue monitoring

Correct answer: Use early warning scoring systems to detect deterioration, activate rapid response team when criteria are met, and initiate immediate interventions

DHA requires nurses to use early warning scores (NEWS/PEWS) to detect clinical deterioration, with clear escalation protocols including rapid response team activation when trigger scores are reached.

DHA Nursing Licensing Exam

The DHA Nursing exam is administered by the Dubai Health Authority via Prometric to assess the competency of nurses seeking licensure in Dubai, covering fundamentals of nursing, medical-surgical nursing, pharmacology, patient safety, critical care, infection control, and DHA licensing requirements.

150

Questions

180 min

Time Limit

60%

To Pass

Checking for saved progress...

Exam Rules

You can skip questions and return to them later
Flag questions for review before submitting
No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
Timer auto-submits when time runs out
Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds

These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy

Sources & references

Exam facts on this page (fees, format, dates, passing scores) are checked against these official sources; the date is our last check. Editorial policy

dha.gov.ae — Renewal, retake policy, score release, score validity, eligibility · verified Oct 2026
services.dha.gov.ae — Test delivery, fees, exam format, passing score · verified Oct 2026