DDS Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield DDS facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

500 questions
750 min time limit
75.00% to pass
  1. According to Hamp's furcation classification, Class II involvement is defined as: → Horizontal loss exceeding one-third the width but not encompassing the total width
  2. Geographic tongue (benign migratory glossitis) is characterized by: → Migratory areas of erythema surrounded by a white keratotic border that change over days
  3. Fibrous dysplasia of the jaw characteristically demonstrates which radiographic appearance? → Ground-glass opacity with poorly defined borders blending into normal bone
  4. Pemphigus vulgaris involves oral mucosa due to autoantibodies directed against: → Desmoglein-3 (desmosomal adhesion protein)
  5. Erythema multiforme affecting the oral mucosa characteristically presents as: → Target or iris lesions with hemorrhagic crusting of the lips
  6. The smear layer created during cavity preparation: → Can be modified or removed depending on the bonding system (total-etch vs. self-etch)
  7. A ferrule effect in crown preparation refers to: → Encirclement of sound tooth structure above the cement margin by the crown walls
  8. Squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity has the highest incidence in which site? → Lateral and ventral tongue/floor of mouth
  9. A lady, 53, has been identified as having "burning mouth syndrome." In this condition, what area of the mouth is most usually affected? → Tongue
  10. Which restorative material has the highest compressive strength and is most indicated for posterior stress-bearing restorations? → Amalgam
  11. Opioid analgesics produce analgesia by acting primarily on which receptors? → Mu (ÎŒ), delta (ÎŽ), and kappa (Îș) opioid receptors
  12. Which gland produces the largest volume of saliva under resting (unstimulated) conditions? → Submandibular gland
  13. Porcelain-fused-to-metal (PFM) crowns most commonly fracture at which location? → Within the occlusal porcelain over functional contacts
  14. Pulp therapy for a carious primary molar with a normal radiograph and no spontaneous pain, but mechanical pulp exposure, is best treated by: → Pulpotomy with mineral trioxide aggregate (MTA) or ferric sulfate
  15. Which fibers of the periodontal ligament embed directly into the cementum and alveolar bone? → Sharpey's fibers
  16. Reimplantation is preferred. After avulsion, how can permanent teeth be effectively shielded? → Place back into the sockets
  17. The primary function of a space maintainer after premature loss of a primary second molar is to: → Prevent mesial drift of the permanent first molar into the extraction space
  18. Ameloblastoma is most commonly located in which area of the jaw? → Posterior mandible (molar-ramus region)
  19. What is the accepted normal sulcus probing depth in a clinically healthy periodontium? → 1–3 mm
  20. In guided tissue regeneration, which of the following cell populations is the main progenitor for a new connective tissue attachment? → Periodontal ligament fibroblasts
  21. Which type of dentin is produced throughout the life of the tooth in response to normal physiologic stimuli? → Secondary dentin
  22. NSAIDs reduce dental pain primarily by inhibiting which enzyme? → Cyclooxygenase (COX), reducing prostaglandin E2 synthesis
  23. Crown lengthening surgery is most commonly indicated when: → There is insufficient supragingival tooth structure for an adequate restoration
  24. Which odontogenic cyst is most commonly associated with an impacted mandibular third molar? → Dentigerous cyst
  25. What is considered the primary etiologic factor initiating periodontal disease? → Bacterial dental plaque biofilm
  26. Which drug is used to reverse soft tissue anesthesia after dental procedures by antagonizing epinephrine's vasoconstriction? → Phentolamine mesylate (OraVerse)
  27. Which condition is characterized by numerous odontogenic keratocysts, basal cell carcinomas of the skin, and skeletal anomalies? → Gorlin syndrome (Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome)
  28. The path of insertion of a complete denture is established perpendicular to: → The mean foundation plane of the residual ridges
  29. Which of the following should you do before taking out tooth 24? → Amoxicillin 2 grams should be taken 30 minutes to 60 minutes before procedure.
  30. Which virus is most strongly associated with hairy leukoplakia of the lateral tongue in immunocompromised patients? → Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)