DC Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield DC facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. What is the primary purpose of conducting a safety audit in Dysrhythmia Certification practice? → To identify and mitigate potential hazards
2. Which of the following is the MOST dangerous complication associated with an uncorrected prolonged QT interval? → Torsades de pointes
3. Which physical assessment finding, when documented in a dysrhythmia patient, suggests the presence of heart failure as a complicating factor? → Bilateral crackles on lung auscultation and jugular venous distension
4. The prefix 'myo-' as used in 'myocardium' refers to: → Muscle
5. A nurse administers the wrong dose of amiodarone and the patient's rhythm deteriorates. After stabilizing the patient, which action is ethically required? → Complete a medication error report and disclose the error to the patient and care team
6. Magnesium sulfate is the first-line treatment for torsades de pointes primarily because it: → Suppresses afterdepolarizations by stabilizing the cell membrane
7. In the NASPE/BPEG pacemaker nomenclature code, what does the first letter represent? → Chamber(s) paced
8. Which of the following represents the correct initial energy dose for synchronized cardioversion of hemodynamically unstable atrial flutter? → 50–100J biphasic
9. The lower rate limit (LRL) in pacemaker programming is defined as: → The minimum heart rate below which the pacemaker will begin pacing
10. The AV delay in a dual-chamber pacemaker is typically programmed to which range? → 120–200 ms
11. A rhythm strip shows no identifiable P waves, an irregularly irregular ventricular response, and a rate of 110 bpm. The most likely diagnosis is: → Atrial fibrillation
12. Which factor is most important for effective delegation in Dysrhythmia Certification? → Matching tasks to team members' skills and development goals
13. Which ECG change is most characteristic of early hyperkalemia? → Tall, peaked, narrow, symmetrical T waves
14. A patient is found in pulseless electrical activity (PEA). After initiating CPR and securing IV access, which drug is administered? → Epinephrine 1 mg IV every 3–5 minutes
15. Which ECG change is commonly associated with hypokalemia? → Flattened or inverted T waves
16. In the context of cardiac monitoring, 'ground fault isolation' on a bedside monitor primarily protects against: → Microshock from stray leakage current reaching the patient
17. What is the importance of staying current with trends in Pharmacology & Drug Administration for Dysrhythmia Certification? → It ensures practices remain effective and relevant
18. A nurse overhears a coworker mocking a patient's weight while reviewing the patient's rhythm strips in the nurses' station. The appropriate response is to: → Privately address the behavior with the coworker and report if it continues
19. Where should defibrillator pads be placed for standard anterior-lateral positioning? → Right upper chest below the clavicle and left lower lateral chest
20. During resuscitation of a patient in ventricular fibrillation, which drug is given after the second failed defibrillation attempt? → Amiodarone 300 mg IV bolus
21. A patient on sotalol develops prolonged QTc and then torsades de pointes. What is the most important next step? → Discontinue sotalol and administer IV magnesium
22. What is the recommended paddle pressure when using hard paddles for manual defibrillation? → 25 pounds
23. Which of the following rhythms is considered a medical emergency due to its lack of cardiac output? → Ventricular Fibrillation
24. Which ECG finding is a contraindication to the use of adenosine for SVT? → Presence of delta waves with wide QRS
25. Which medical term describes an abnormal heart rhythm where atrial impulses are conducted to the ventricles in an irregular pattern? → Atrial fibrillation
26. A patient with atrial fibrillation reports a syncopal episode. Which additional assessment should be prioritized and documented? → Neurological status and blood pressure
27. A patient in pulseless ventricular tachycardia is unresponsive. What is the correct immediate action? → Initiate CPR and defibrillate with 200J biphasic
28. Single-use ECG electrodes are labeled 'for single patient use only' primarily because: → Reuse can transmit pathogens and compromise adhesion leading to poor signal quality
29. Which pacemaker mode is most appropriate for a patient with sick sinus syndrome and intact AV conduction? → AAI
30. Which skill is most important for success in Pharmacology & Drug Administration within Dysrhythmia Certification? → Continuous learning and adaptation