DAANCE Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield DAANCE facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. At what SpO2 level should supplemental oxygen intervention typically be initiated during dental sedation? → Below 95%
2. A patient on warfarin for atrial fibrillation has an INR of 3.8 on the day of the procedure. What is the most appropriate action? → Postpone and consult with the patient's physician
3. Which parameter is MOST useful for detecting early airway obstruction in a sedated patient? → Capnography waveform
4. The fail-safe mechanism on a nitrous oxide/oxygen machine is designed to: → Prevent the N2O flowmeter from opening if oxygen supply pressure fails
5. When preparing a patient for a sedation appointment, which of the following is an essential logistical arrangement that must be confirmed beforehand? → The patient has a responsible adult escort for transportation home.
6. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate discharge criterion after office-based dental sedation? → Currently experiencing nausea and vomiting
7. A consent discussion for IV sedation should include all of the following EXCEPT: → A guarantee of complete amnesia during the procedure
8. Succinylcholine (suxamethonium) is used to break refractory laryngospasm because it is: → A depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent that produces rapid, brief paralysis
9. Which factor most commonly causes unintended deepening of sedation beyond the intended level? → Synergistic drug interactions when combining opioids and benzodiazepines
10. An oropharyngeal airway (OPA) of correct size should extend from the: → Corner of the mouth to the earlobe
11. Which type of drug interaction occurs when two sedatives are combined and produce an effect greater than the sum of their individual effects? → Synergistic (potentiation) interaction
12. In a DAANCE-level monitoring protocol, how frequently should baseline vital signs be recorded before administering IV sedation? → At minimum before sedation and every 5 minutes during the procedure
13. Which pharmacological characteristic explains why IV midazolam has a faster onset than orally administered midazolam? → IV administration bypasses gastrointestinal absorption and first-pass hepatic metabolism
14. Which cranial nerve carries preganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the parotid gland? → CN IX (glossopharyngeal)
15. Which cranial nerve provides sensory innervation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue? → Lingual nerve (branch of CN V3)
16. Which factor most commonly causes falsely LOW pulse oximetry readings (SpO2 underestimation)? → Peripheral vasoconstriction and poor perfusion to the probe site
17. The primary mechanism by which local anesthetics block nerve conduction is: → Binding to voltage-gated sodium channels in the inactivated state
18. The appropriate amount of fast-acting carbohydrate for treating a conscious hypoglycemic dental patient is: → 15 to 20 g fast-acting carbohydrate, repeated in 15 minutes if needed
19. Which of the following is a contraindication to nasopharyngeal airway (NPA) insertion? → Suspected basilar skull fracture
20. Which statement about the IV induction drug propofol is CORRECT? → It requires a separate analgesic agent because it provides no analgesia
21. Preoperative anxiolysis with oral midazolam in a pediatric patient is typically administered at which dose? → 0.5 mg/kg PO maximum 20 mg
22. A full E-cylinder of oxygen contains approximately how many liters at full pressure? → 660 liters
23. During ACLS, sodium bicarbonate is indicated in cardiac arrest primarily caused by which condition? → Hyperkalemia
24. After removing gloves during post-anesthesia cleanup, the dental anesthesia assistant should: → Perform hand hygiene with soap and water or an alcohol-based hand rub
25. Which patient condition is an absolute contraindication to nitrous oxide sedation? → Bowel obstruction or pneumothorax
26. The head-tilt chin-lift maneuver opens the airway primarily by: → Extending the neck and displacing the tongue anteriorly
27. After IV sedation in the dental office, a patient is ready for step-down but the escort has not yet arrived. The correct action is to: → Continue monitoring the patient in the recovery area until the responsible adult arrives
28. A patient with a known sulfa allergy is scheduled for IV sedation. Which drug should be avoided due to potential cross-reactivity? → Propofol
29. Which drug is classified as an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist and is sometimes used as an adjunct in sedation for its anxiolytic and analgesic-sparing properties? → Dexmedetomidine
30. Which anatomical structure, located at the top of the larynx, closes the airway and prevents foreign bodies from entering the trachea? → Epiglottis