DAANCE Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield DAANCE facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. At what SpO2 level should supplemental oxygen intervention typically be initiated during dental sedation? → Below 95%
2. The fail-safe mechanism on a nitrous oxide/oxygen machine is designed to: → Prevent the N2O flowmeter from opening if oxygen supply pressure fails
3. When preparing a patient for a sedation appointment, which of the following is an essential logistical arrangement that must be confirmed beforehand? → The patient has a responsible adult escort for transportation home.
4. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate discharge criterion after office-based dental sedation? → Currently experiencing nausea and vomiting
5. A consent discussion for IV sedation should include all of the following EXCEPT: → A guarantee of complete amnesia during the procedure
6. Succinylcholine (suxamethonium) is used to break refractory laryngospasm because it is: → A depolarizing neuromuscular blocking agent that produces rapid, brief paralysis
7. Which factor most commonly causes unintended deepening of sedation beyond the intended level? → Synergistic drug interactions when combining opioids and benzodiazepines
8. Which type of drug interaction occurs when two sedatives are combined and produce an effect greater than the sum of their individual effects? → Synergistic (potentiation) interaction
9. Which pharmacological characteristic explains why IV midazolam has a faster onset than orally administered midazolam? → IV administration bypasses gastrointestinal absorption and first-pass hepatic metabolism
10. Which cranial nerve carries preganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the parotid gland? → CN IX (glossopharyngeal)
11. Which factor most commonly causes falsely LOW pulse oximetry readings (SpO2 underestimation)? → Peripheral vasoconstriction and poor perfusion to the probe site
12. The appropriate amount of fast-acting carbohydrate for treating a conscious hypoglycemic dental patient is: → 15 to 20 g fast-acting carbohydrate, repeated in 15 minutes if needed
13. Which statement about the IV induction drug propofol is CORRECT? → It requires a separate analgesic agent because it provides no analgesia
14. Preoperative anxiolysis with oral midazolam in a pediatric patient is typically administered at which dose? → 0.5 mg/kg PO maximum 20 mg
15. A full E-cylinder of oxygen contains approximately how many liters at full pressure? → 660 liters
16. The head-tilt chin-lift maneuver opens the airway primarily by: → Extending the neck and displacing the tongue anteriorly
17. After IV sedation in the dental office, a patient is ready for step-down but the escort has not yet arrived. The correct action is to: → Continue monitoring the patient in the recovery area until the responsible adult arrives
18. Which anatomical structure, located at the top of the larynx, closes the airway and prevents foreign bodies from entering the trachea? → Epiglottis
19. Which medication is a reversal agent for benzodiazepine sedation used in post-anesthesia recovery? → Flumazenil
20. A normal sinus rhythm on ECG is characterized by which combination of findings? → P wave before each QRS, regular rate 60 to 100 bpm, PR interval 0.12 to 0.20 sec
21. During a Valsalva maneuver, intrathoracic pressure increases, which initially causes: → A decrease in venous return leading to decreased cardiac output
22. Nitroglycerin (sublingual) is indicated for an emergency involving: → Suspected acute myocardial ischemia with chest pain in a normotensive patient
23. Inhalation sedation with nitrous oxide/oxygen (N2O/O2) is MOST appropriate for which patient? → A mildly anxious, cooperative adult for a routine restoration
24. Which part of the eye loses reflex on induction of anesthesia? → Eyelid
25. The medical history and physical assessment for emergency preparedness in a dental office should be completed: → For every patient at every visit, updating the medical history
26. A patient in recovery reports severe chest pain and shortness of breath. The most appropriate action is: → Activate emergency medical services (EMS) immediately
27. The hepatic first-pass effect refers to: → Metabolism of orally administered drugs in the liver before reaching systemic circulation
28. A patient is a minor. Who must provide consent for dental anesthesia? → A parent or legal guardian
29. A patient receiving an IV opioid develops pinpoint pupils (miosis). This finding is caused by: → Opioid-induced Edinger-Westphal nucleus stimulation causing pupillary constriction
30. A nasal cannula at 4–6 L/min delivers an approximate FiO2 of: → 36–44%