Disciplined Agile Scrum Master (DASM) Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: How does continuing education relate to automation & scripting fundamentals for DA certified professionals?

It is required only for entry-level practitioners
It is only needed when changing employers
It ensures professionals stay current with evolving standards and best practices (Correct answer)
It is optional and rarely impacts practice quality

Correct answer: It ensures professionals stay current with evolving standards and best practices

Continuing education ensures DA professionals stay current with evolving standards, technologies, and best practices in automation & scripting fundamentals, maintaining competency throughout their careers.

Question 2: Crystal methodology, as referenced in the DA toolkit, is best characterized by:

One-size-fits-all process rules
Strict engineering practices like TDD and pair programming
Mandatory use of Kanban boards
A family of methodologies scaled by team size and criticality (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A family of methodologies scaled by team size and criticality

Crystal is a family of methodologies (Clear, Yellow, Orange, Red) where the appropriate variant is chosen based on team size and project criticality.

Question 3: According to Disciplined Agile, what is the primary risk of relying solely on velocity as a performance metric?

Velocity is too difficult to calculate accurately
Teams may game the metric by inflating story points rather than improving real productivity (Correct answer)
Velocity ignores technical debt accumulation
Velocity does not account for team size differences

Correct answer: Teams may game the metric by inflating story points rather than improving real productivity

DA warns that velocity-only focus incentivizes point inflation and story padding rather than genuine productivity improvement or customer value delivery.

Question 4: In Certified Disciplined Agile, what role does incident response & disaster recovery play in ensuring client/stakeholder satisfaction?

It builds trust through demonstrated competence and consistency (Correct answer)
It replaces the need for direct communication
It has no direct impact on stakeholder satisfaction
It only matters during initial certification

Correct answer: It builds trust through demonstrated competence and consistency

Incident Response & Disaster Recovery builds trust through demonstrated competence and consistency, which directly contributes to stakeholder satisfaction and confidence in the DA professional.

Question 5: Which Lean principle is most closely aligned with DA's emphasis on delivering small, incremental value frequently?

5S methodology
Single-piece flow
Batch size reduction (Correct answer)
Respect for people

Correct answer: Batch size reduction

Reducing batch size in Lean aligns with DA's emphasis on delivering value in small, frequent increments to reduce risk and improve throughput.

Question 6: In Disciplined Agile, what role is responsible for identifying and managing project risks?

Product Owner
Development Team
Stakeholders
Scrum Master and Project Manager (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Scrum Master and Project Manager

Risk management in Disciplined Agile is a shared responsibility, particularly between the Scrum Master and the Project Manager. The Scrum Master helps the team identify and address internal impediments and risks, while the Project Manager focuses on broader project-level risks, external dependencies, and organizational impediments. Together, they ensure a comprehensive approach to identifying, assessing, and mitigating risks.

Question 7: According to Disciplined Agile, what is a 'T-shaped' team member and why does DA value this profile?

Someone who works across two teams simultaneously
Someone who has two deep specializations and no general skills
Someone who specializes deeply in one skill and has broad knowledge across other areas, enabling flexible collaboration (Correct answer)
Someone who manages both technical and business requirements

Correct answer: Someone who specializes deeply in one skill and has broad knowledge across other areas, enabling flexible collaboration

T-shaped professionals have deep expertise in one area (the vertical bar) and broad familiarity with adjacent disciplines (the horizontal bar), enabling greater team flexibility and collaboration.

Question 8: According to DA, what is the significance of the 'Consumable Solution' milestone?

It marks when the team has consumed all budget allocated for the project
It signals that user documentation has been completed
It is the point at which the team is allowed to request additional resources
It indicates that the solution is of sufficient quality and completeness that stakeholders can actually use it (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It indicates that the solution is of sufficient quality and completeness that stakeholders can actually use it

The Consumable Solution milestone confirms the increment is genuinely usable by stakeholders, not just technically complete.

Question 9: What does the term 'Kanban' refer to in Agile methodologies?

An estimate of the project's timeline
A board for visualizing work tasks (Correct answer)
A fixed schedule for all tasks
A set of roles for team members

Correct answer: A board for visualizing work tasks

In Agile methodologies, 'Kanban' refers to a visual system, often a board, used to manage and visualize work as it flows through a process. It helps teams see the status of tasks, identify bottlenecks, and limit work in progress. This visual management system promotes efficiency and continuous improvement by making the workflow transparent.

Question 10: According to Disciplined Agile, what is the primary benefit of co-located teams compared to distributed teams?

Co-located teams benefit from richer informal communication, faster feedback, and easier collaboration (Correct answer)
Co-located teams cost less due to reduced tooling requirements
Co-located teams are required for DA certification compliance
Co-located teams always deliver higher quality code

Correct answer: Co-located teams benefit from richer informal communication, faster feedback, and easier collaboration

DA acknowledges that co-located teams gain richer communication through spontaneous conversation, body language, and instant feedback that distributed teams must actively compensate for.

Question 11: How many core principles make up the Disciplined Agile (DA) mindset?

4
10
8 (Correct answer)
6

Correct answer: 8

The DA mindset consists of 8 principles that guide how teams and individuals should approach their work.

Question 12: According to DA, why is limiting Work in Progress (WIP) an important practice for improving team performance metrics?

It simplifies sprint planning calculations
It reduces the number of requirements that need to be tracked
It ensures each developer works on only one technology at a time
It lowers cycle time and improves flow by reducing multitasking and context switching (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It lowers cycle time and improves flow by reducing multitasking and context switching

DA advocates WIP limits because reducing the number of items in progress simultaneously shortens cycle time and improves flow by eliminating costly context switching.

Question 13: In Disciplined Agile, what does the principle 'context counts' mean for team formation?

Team structure and practices should be tailored to each team's unique circumstances (Correct answer)
All teams must follow the same structure regardless of their situation
Context diagrams must be created before any team forms
Teams are ranked by their contextual maturity level

Correct answer: Team structure and practices should be tailored to each team's unique circumstances

DA's 'context counts' principle recognizes that no single team structure fits all situations, so teams should adapt their composition and practices to their specific environment.

Question 14: According to DA, what distinguishes a 'self-organizing' team from a traditionally managed team?

Self-organizing teams determine how to best accomplish their work rather than being assigned specific tasks by a manager (Correct answer)
Self-organizing teams never need retrospectives because they naturally adapt
Self-organizing teams are only used in startup environments
Self-organizing teams have no manager or product owner

Correct answer: Self-organizing teams determine how to best accomplish their work rather than being assigned specific tasks by a manager

In DA, self-organizing teams have the authority to decide how to approach their work, assign tasks internally, and adapt their process — the manager sets direction but doesn't dictate execution.

Question 15: What is the goal of the DA lifecycle in terms of continuous improvement?

To avoid introducing new ideas
To make improvements based on feedback and performance evaluations (Correct answer)
To reduce the team size for efficiency
To adhere strictly to original plans

Correct answer: To make improvements based on feedback and performance evaluations

A core tenet of the DA lifecycle is continuous improvement, which involves regularly reflecting on current practices and seeking opportunities to enhance them. This goal is achieved by actively soliciting and incorporating feedback from various sources, such as stakeholders and performance metrics. By doing so, teams can adapt their processes and tools to become more effective and efficient over time.

Question 16: Which of the following is NOT one of DA's primary team-level life cycles?

Waterfall (Correct answer)
Continuous Delivery: Agile
Agile (Scrum-based)
Lean (Kanban-based)

Correct answer: Waterfall

DA does not include a traditional Waterfall life cycle; its life cycles are Agile, Lean, Exploratory, Program, Continuous Delivery: Agile, and Continuous Delivery: Lean.

Question 17: The 'Visual Management' responsibility in a DA team — such as maintaining information radiators — typically falls to:

All team members as a shared responsibility (Correct answer)
Only the Team Lead
The Architecture Owner exclusively
Only the Product Owner

Correct answer: All team members as a shared responsibility

Maintaining visible team information such as boards and radiators is typically a shared team responsibility, not assigned to one role.

Question 18: A DA team is required to comply with SOC 2 security standards. What is the BEST approach to handle this compliance need?

Delegate all compliance tasks to a separate non-agile team
Ignore compliance until an audit is scheduled
Adopt a fully waterfall approach to satisfy auditors
Treat compliance as a constraint that shapes but doesn't override WoW choices (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Treat compliance as a constraint that shapes but doesn't override WoW choices

DA treats regulatory and compliance requirements as constraints that teams must incorporate into their WoW choices while still remaining agile.

Question 19: What is the significance of peer review in automation & scripting fundamentals for DA professionals?

It is primarily used for disciplinary purposes
It is only relevant for newly certified professionals
It promotes accountability, knowledge sharing, and quality improvement (Correct answer)
It replaces the need for self-assessment

Correct answer: It promotes accountability, knowledge sharing, and quality improvement

Peer review promotes accountability, knowledge sharing, and quality improvement by allowing DA professionals to benefit from collective expertise and identify areas for growth.

Question 20: What role does feedback play in continuous improvement within the DA framework?

It is only required at the end of the project
It helps teams adjust processes and improve performance throughout the project (Correct answer)
It is used solely for measuring product success
It is not relevant to the DA framework

Correct answer: It helps teams adjust processes and improve performance throughout the project

Feedback is a cornerstone of continuous improvement in the DA framework. By regularly collecting and analyzing feedback from various sources—including team members, stakeholders, and system metrics—teams gain insights into their performance and processes. This enables them to make timely adjustments and adaptations, leading to ongoing enhancements in efficiency, quality, and value delivery.

Question 21: The DA Tool Kit provides process goals as:

Decision points that guide teams toward good practices for their context (Correct answer)
Fixed metrics for measuring team performance
A list of approved Agile frameworks only
Mandatory steps that all teams must follow

Correct answer: Decision points that guide teams toward good practices for their context

DA process goals provide decision points that teams use as guidance to choose contextually appropriate practices rather than prescribing mandatory steps.

Question 22: In DA, when a team selects the Exploratory lifecycle and runs a Minimum Viable Experiment (MVE), what is the EXPECTED next step after evaluating results?

Always pivot to a new hypothesis regardless of results
Proceed directly to the Transition phase
Present findings to the enterprise architecture board for approval
Decide to persevere, pivot, or stop based on validated learning (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Decide to persevere, pivot, or stop based on validated learning

After evaluating MVE results, the team applies Lean Startup thinking to persevere if validated, pivot if needed, or stop if unviable.

Question 23: In Disciplined Agile, which governance model best supports teams that choose their own way of working (WoW)?

Lean governance that provides guardrails and enables team autonomy (Correct answer)
Waterfall-stage-gate governance with formal phase reviews
Regulatory-first governance that mandates compliance checklists
Command-and-control governance with mandatory process templates

Correct answer: Lean governance that provides guardrails and enables team autonomy

DA's lean governance model establishes guardrails and guidance while empowering teams to choose their own WoW rather than imposing uniform processes.

Question 24: In Disciplined Agile, the 'Construction' phase in the Agile lifecycle is characterized by which activity?

Iteratively building and testing potentially shippable increments (Correct answer)
Performing all integration testing in a single sprint
Documenting all requirements before any coding begins
Finalizing contracts with external vendors

Correct answer: Iteratively building and testing potentially shippable increments

The Construction phase involves repeated sprints that each produce tested, potentially shippable software increments.

Question 25: In Disciplined Agile performance measurement, what is a 'fitness for purpose' metric?

A metric that measures code quality against industry benchmarks
A metric that evaluates whether a team follows the prescribed DA process
A metric used by auditors to assess compliance
A metric that evaluates whether the product meets actual customer needs and expectations (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A metric that evaluates whether the product meets actual customer needs and expectations

Fitness for purpose metrics assess whether the delivered product or service satisfies the real needs of customers, focusing on effectiveness over technical correctness.

Question 26: In Disciplined Agile, what does 'enterprise awareness' require of individual agile teams?

Teams must adopt the same process as every other team in the organization
Teams must report their metrics weekly to enterprise program managers
Teams must understand how their work connects to and impacts the broader organization and other teams (Correct answer)
Teams must follow enterprise architecture patterns without any local adaptation

Correct answer: Teams must understand how their work connects to and impacts the broader organization and other teams

Enterprise awareness means teams recognize they don't operate in isolation — their decisions, dependencies, and deliverables affect other teams, shared systems, and organizational goals.

Question 27: Which of the following responsibilities is NOT typically associated with the Product Owner in Disciplined Agile?

Providing regular feedback to the team
Prioritizing the product backlog (Correct answer)
Ensuring the product meets customer needs
Defining the project scope

Correct answer: Prioritizing the product backlog

While the Product Owner is ultimately accountable for the product backlog's content and value, the act of 'prioritizing the product backlog' in Disciplined Agile can be a highly collaborative effort. The development team provides crucial input on feasibility and effort, and the Scrum Master facilitates the process. Therefore, while the Product Owner makes the final decisions, the detailed prioritization is often a shared activity rather than a sole, exclusive responsibility, making it less 'typically' a singular task for the PO compared to defining scope or ensuring customer needs.

Question 28: What is a common challenge professionals face when applying security architecture & network defense principles in Certified Disciplined Agile?

Lack of any professional development opportunities
Excessive simplicity of industry regulations
Balancing theoretical knowledge with practical application (Correct answer)
Having too much support from colleagues

Correct answer: Balancing theoretical knowledge with practical application

Balancing theoretical knowledge with practical application is a well-recognized challenge, as real-world scenarios often present complexities not covered in standard training.

Question 29: In Certified Disciplined Agile, what role does security architecture & network defense play in ensuring client/stakeholder satisfaction?

It replaces the need for direct communication
It builds trust through demonstrated competence and consistency (Correct answer)
It only matters during initial certification
It has no direct impact on stakeholder satisfaction

Correct answer: It builds trust through demonstrated competence and consistency

Security Architecture & Network Defense builds trust through demonstrated competence and consistency, which directly contributes to stakeholder satisfaction and confidence in the DA professional.

Question 30: What does the Development Team in a Disciplined Agile project do?

Managing project budgets
Communicating with stakeholders
Creating the product roadmap
Implementing and testing product features (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Implementing and testing product features

The Development Team in a Disciplined Agile project is responsible for the actual creation and validation of the solution. This includes designing, coding, integrating, and testing the product features as defined by the Product Owner. They work collaboratively to transform requirements into working, high-quality increments of the product.

Question 31: In the DA toolkit, what role does Lean thinking play across all life cycles?

It provides the philosophical foundation for reducing waste and optimizing flow (Correct answer)
It mandates fixed team sizes
It replaces Agile ceremonies
It defines sprint lengths

Correct answer: It provides the philosophical foundation for reducing waste and optimizing flow

Lean thinking underpins DA's approach by focusing on eliminating waste, delivering value, and optimizing the whole system.

Question 32: What is the purpose of the Transition phase in the DA lifecycle?

To refine development practices
To prepare for product release and operational readiness (Correct answer)
To manage project risks
To create the product backlog

Correct answer: To prepare for product release and operational readiness

The Transition phase in the Disciplined Agile (DA) lifecycle focuses on preparing the solution for release into production and ensuring operational readiness. This involves activities such as final testing, deployment, user training, and documentation. The goal is to successfully deliver the working solution to end-users and ensure it can be effectively supported and maintained in its operational environment.

Question 33: What is the purpose of a Product Backlog in Scrum?

A prioritized list of features or tasks (Correct answer)
A list of all deliverables for the project
A document outlining team roles
A detailed schedule for the project

Correct answer: A prioritized list of features or tasks

The Product Backlog in Scrum is a dynamic, prioritized list of all the features, functions, requirements, enhancements, and fixes that constitute the work to be done on the product. It is maintained by the Product Owner and serves as the single source of truth for all work. This backlog guides the Development Team on what to build next, ensuring alignment with product vision.

Question 34: In DA, which layer of governance is MOST concerned with ensuring team-level practices comply with enterprise architecture standards?

Enterprise or program governance layer (Correct answer)
Customer layer
Individual layer
Team layer only

Correct answer: Enterprise or program governance layer

Enterprise and program governance layers set and enforce architecture standards as guardrails that team-level WoW choices must respect.

Question 35: In DA's process goal 'Develop on Cadence; Release on Demand,' what does 'Release on Demand' mean?

Customers request specific release dates months in advance
Releases follow a fixed monthly schedule
Teams can release to production independently of the development cadence when value is ready (Correct answer)
Releases happen only at end of PI

Correct answer: Teams can release to production independently of the development cadence when value is ready

'Release on Demand' means teams decouple deployment from development cadence, releasing software to production whenever business value justifies it.

Question 36: What is the significance of peer review in cloud infrastructure & deployment for DA professionals?

It promotes accountability, knowledge sharing, and quality improvement (Correct answer)
It replaces the need for self-assessment
It is primarily used for disciplinary purposes
It is only relevant for newly certified professionals

Correct answer: It promotes accountability, knowledge sharing, and quality improvement

Peer review promotes accountability, knowledge sharing, and quality improvement by allowing DA professionals to benefit from collective expertise and identify areas for growth.

Question 37: Which statement BEST describes the DA concept of 'team member' versus 'specialist'?

Specialists never collaborate with other roles in DA
Team members are junior resources while specialists are senior
Only specialists are allowed to own backlog items
Team members can be generalists or T-shaped professionals who contribute broadly (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Team members can be generalists or T-shaped professionals who contribute broadly

DA encourages T-shaped professionals who have deep expertise in one area but can contribute across multiple disciplines.

Question 38: In Disciplined Agile, what is the key responsibility of a 'Domain Expert' sub-role that may appear on some teams?

Owning the release and deployment pipeline
Writing and approving all acceptance criteria for the team
Providing deep subject matter expertise to inform team decisions and solution design (Correct answer)
Acting as backup Team Lead during ceremonies

Correct answer: Providing deep subject matter expertise to inform team decisions and solution design

Domain Experts provide subject matter knowledge to help the team understand the problem space and make informed design decisions.

Question 39: Which metric is MOST aligned with DA's lean governance approach to measuring team performance?

Volume of documents produced
Adherence to a prescribed process template
Outcomes delivered relative to stakeholder value (Correct answer)
Number of hours worked per developer per sprint

Correct answer: Outcomes delivered relative to stakeholder value

DA lean governance focuses on outcomes and value delivery rather than activity-based or output-based metrics.

Question 40: What does DA's 'GCI' (Governance, Compliance, and Improvement) recognize about compliance activities?

Compliance audits replace the need for retrospectives
Compliance requirements are external constraints teams must address within their WoW (Correct answer)
Compliance should be managed by a separate PMO waterfall team
Compliance is always counter to agile values and should be minimized

Correct answer: Compliance requirements are external constraints teams must address within their WoW

DA acknowledges that compliance is a real business need and should be incorporated into the team's WoW rather than ignored or delegated away.

Question 41: How should a DA professional handle a situation where cloud infrastructure & deployment protocols conflict with practical constraints?

Make a unilateral decision without consultation
Always ignore the protocols in favor of practicality
Avoid addressing the conflict entirely
Document the conflict and seek guidance from appropriate authorities (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Document the conflict and seek guidance from appropriate authorities

When protocols conflict with practical constraints, the professional approach is to document the conflict and seek guidance, ensuring transparency and compliance while working toward a resolution.

Question 42: In Disciplined Agile, what is the significance of a team's 'working agreement' in relation to team dynamics?

It is a set of self-defined norms that guide how the team interacts and makes decisions (Correct answer)
It is a formal contract signed by all team members and their managers
It replaces the need for retrospectives by pre-defining all team processes
It is a document submitted to the PMO to justify the team's agile approach

Correct answer: It is a set of self-defined norms that guide how the team interacts and makes decisions

A working agreement is a collaboratively created set of behavioral norms that helps teams maintain consistent, respectful collaboration and resolve disputes constructively.

Question 43: XP (Extreme Programming) contributes which engineering practice most prominently to DA's toolkit?

Sprint Planning
Test-Driven Development (TDD) (Correct answer)
Program Increment
Retrospectives

Correct answer: Test-Driven Development (TDD)

XP's Test-Driven Development is one of its most influential engineering practices adopted into DA's toolkit for technical excellence.

Question 44: According to DA, what is the role of a 'team lead' (formerly Scrum Master) in facilitating effective team collaboration?

To conduct performance reviews for all team members quarterly
To replace the product owner when requirements are unclear
To assign tasks, resolve all technical decisions, and report team status to management
To coach the team on process, remove impediments, and facilitate collaboration without directing the work itself (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To coach the team on process, remove impediments, and facilitate collaboration without directing the work itself

In DA, the team lead is a servant-leader who enables the team through coaching, facilitation, and impediment removal rather than directing or controlling the team's work.

Question 45: What does DSDM (Dynamic Systems Development Method) emphasize most strongly?

Strict waterfall phases
Fixed time and resources with flexible quality and scope (Correct answer)
Fixed quality and scope with flexible time and resources
Unlimited team size scaling

Correct answer: Fixed time and resources with flexible quality and scope

DSDM inverts the traditional iron triangle by fixing time and resources while allowing scope to flex to deliver on time within budget.

Question 46: According to Disciplined Agile, what is 'osmotic communication' and why is it valuable for teams?

A formal communication protocol using shared dashboards and reports
A structured daily standup format for dispersed teams
The passive absorption of information by team members overhearing nearby conversations in a shared space (Correct answer)
An email communication standard for stakeholder updates

Correct answer: The passive absorption of information by team members overhearing nearby conversations in a shared space

Osmotic communication is the organic spread of context and knowledge through casual overheard conversations in a co-located environment, reducing the need for formal information-sharing ceremonies.

Question 47: What role does compliance play in a Disciplined Agile project?

Adhering to legal and regulatory standards (Correct answer)
Managing communication with stakeholders
Tracking financial performance
Controlling project scope changes

Correct answer: Adhering to legal and regulatory standards

Compliance in a Disciplined Agile project refers to the necessity of adhering to relevant legal, regulatory, and organizational standards and policies. This is crucial for projects in regulated industries or those dealing with sensitive data. DA provides strategies to integrate compliance activities seamlessly into the agile workflow without sacrificing agility.

Question 48: In DA, what is the BEST indicator that a team's continuous improvement efforts are succeeding?

The team produces more documentation about their process changes
The team holds more retrospectives per month
The team strictly follows the same WoW for six consecutive months
Stakeholder satisfaction and delivery outcomes measurably improve over time (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Stakeholder satisfaction and delivery outcomes measurably improve over time

DA measures improvement success by actual outcomes — increased stakeholder satisfaction, faster delivery, and better quality — not by process activity volume.

Question 49: Which quality improvement method is most applicable to incident response & disaster recovery in Certified Disciplined Agile?

Making changes only when mandated by regulators
Ignoring feedback and maintaining status quo
Implementing changes without measuring outcomes
Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) continuous improvement cycle (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) continuous improvement cycle

The PDCA cycle is widely recognized as the most effective quality improvement method, allowing DA professionals to systematically improve incident response & disaster recovery practices.

Question 50: What is the primary purpose of security architecture & network defense in the context of Certified Disciplined Agile?

To replace established industry guidelines
To ensure consistent quality and professional accountability (Correct answer)
To reduce organizational costs exclusively
To eliminate the need for ongoing training

Correct answer: To ensure consistent quality and professional accountability

Security Architecture & Network Defense in Certified Disciplined Agile primarily ensures consistent quality and professional accountability, forming the foundation of competent practice in this field.

Question 51: What is the primary purpose of cloud infrastructure & deployment in the context of Certified Disciplined Agile?

To reduce organizational costs exclusively
To replace established industry guidelines
To eliminate the need for ongoing training
To ensure consistent quality and professional accountability (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To ensure consistent quality and professional accountability

Cloud Infrastructure & Deployment in Certified Disciplined Agile primarily ensures consistent quality and professional accountability, forming the foundation of competent practice in this field.

Question 52: What ethical consideration is most relevant to incident response & disaster recovery in DA practice?

Maintaining confidentiality and acting in the best interest of stakeholders (Correct answer)
Avoiding all professional development activities
Prioritizing personal advancement over professional duties
Following only those rules that are convenient

Correct answer: Maintaining confidentiality and acting in the best interest of stakeholders

Maintaining confidentiality and acting in the best interest of stakeholders is the cornerstone ethical consideration for incident response & disaster recovery in professional practice.

Disciplined Agile Scrum Master (DASM) Exam

The DASM certification validates an individual's understanding of the Disciplined Agile toolkit and how to apply it to optimize team processes and outcomes.

Questions

90 min

Time Limit

70%

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