Mixed Deck — All CyberVista Test Topics Flashcards

What is the primary difference between a virus and a worm?

Answer: A worm can self-replicate and spread independently across networks, while a virus requires a host file or program to spread.

The primary distinction is that a worm is a standalone piece of malware that can replicate and spread on its own through a network. A virus, on the other hand, needs to attach itself to a legitimate program or file. Human action, like opening an infected file, is typically required to trigger the virus and allow it to spread.

What term describes the practice of spreading data and workloads across multiple cloud providers to avoid vendor lock-in and increase resilience?

Answer: Multi-cloud strategy

A multi-cloud strategy uses two or more cloud providers, reducing dependency on any single vendor and improving availability.

What is the purpose of a risk matrix?

Answer: To assess the probability and severity of risks

A risk matrix is a fundamental tool in risk management used to visually assess and prioritize various risks. It typically plots the likelihood or probability of a risk event occurring against the potential impact or severity of that event. This helps organizations understand which risks are most critical and require immediate attention.

What is the primary goal of cybersecurity?

Answer: To protect digital assets from unauthorized access

The primary goal of cybersecurity is to establish robust defenses that protect digital assets, such as data, systems, and networks, from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, disruption, modification, or destruction. This involves implementing various technologies, processes, and controls to safeguard information and ensure the continuity of operations. Ultimately, it aims to maintain the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of digital resources.

What is the primary purpose of security guards performing rounds at irregular intervals rather than fixed schedules?

Answer: To make patrol timing unpredictable and harder for attackers to exploit

Random patrol schedules prevent adversaries from timing intrusion attempts during predictable gaps in coverage.

What is the first step in a risk assessment?

Answer: Identifying assets and their value

The first step in any effective risk assessment is to identify and understand the assets that need protection, along with their value to the organization. This involves cataloging hardware, software, data, intellectual property, and critical business processes. By knowing what assets exist and their importance, organizations can then prioritize which ones require the most robust security measures against potential threats.

Which of the following best defines a Recovery Time Objective (RTO)?

Answer: The maximum acceptable time to restore a system or process after a disruption

RTO defines how quickly a system must be restored after an incident to avoid unacceptable business impact.

A U.S.-based e-commerce company processes data for customers in California and the European Union. A key difference in their compliance obligations between CCPA and GDPR relates to the basis for processing personal data. Which statement accurately describes this difference?

Answer: GDPR requires a specific legal basis (like consent) for processing, while CCPA operates on an 'opt-out' model.

A primary difference between the two regulations is their approach to consent. GDPR requires organizations to have one of six specific legal bases (e.g., explicit consent, contractual necessity) to process personal data, which is an 'opt-in' model. CCPA, on the other hand, allows for the collection and processing of data by default but requires giving consumers a clear option to 'opt-out' of the sale or sharing of their personal information.

What physical security control uses a small enclosed space with two sets of interlocking doors to prevent tailgating?

Answer: Mantrap (airlock)

A mantrap requires an individual to authenticate before the second door opens, preventing unauthorized persons from following authorized users.

Which method is MOST secure for disposing of sensitive data stored on magnetic hard drives?

Answer: Degaussing or physical destruction

Degaussing uses a powerful magnetic field to destroy data on magnetic media, while physical destruction (shredding/crushing) ensures data cannot be recovered by any means.

A company wants to allow its employees to use their corporate credentials to log in to a third-party SaaS application for expense reporting. This is an example of which IAM concept?

Answer: Identity Federation

Identity Federation allows users from one domain (the company's corporate network, or Identity Provider) to securely access resources in another domain (the third-party SaaS app, or Service Provider) without needing a separate set of credentials. This establishes a trust relationship between the two entities, enabling single sign-on capabilities.

A financial services company is implementing a new access control policy. They require a dynamic model that can make access decisions based on a user's role, the sensitivity of the data they are trying to access, their current geographic location, and the time of day. Which of the following access control models would be MOST suitable for these requirements?

Answer: Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC)

Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC) is the most suitable model because it uses policies that evaluate multiple attributes of the user, resource, and environment to make real-time access decisions. This allows for the creation of complex, context-aware rules that can factor in variables like location and time, which is not possible with the other models. RBAC is based solely on user roles, while MAC and DAC are less flexible for this kind of dynamic environment.

Which of the following BEST describes the primary security function of Domain Name System Security Extensions (DNSSEC)?

Answer: To authenticate the origin of DNS data and verify its integrity.

The primary function of DNSSEC is to add a layer of trust to DNS by providing authentication and data integrity. It uses digital signatures to ensure that the DNS data a user receives is from the correct authoritative source and has not been tampered with in transit, thus protecting against attacks like DNS cache poisoning and spoofing.

What does Recovery Point Objective (RPO) measure?

Answer: The maximum amount of data loss an organization can tolerate, expressed as a time interval

RPO defines the oldest data that is acceptable to restore to; a 1-hour RPO means you may lose up to one hour of transactions.

What is the purpose of a Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system?

Answer: To monitor and analyze security logs in real time

A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system is designed to centralize and analyze security data from various sources across an organization's IT infrastructure. Its primary purpose is to collect, aggregate, and analyze security logs and events in real-time. This allows for the detection of potential security threats, policy violations, and suspicious activities, enabling rapid response and improved overall security posture.

What is the purpose of a security policy?

Answer: To define security protocols and guidelines

A security policy is a foundational document in cybersecurity that outlines an organization's rules, procedures, and guidelines for protecting its information assets. Its primary purpose is to define how security will be managed, what measures will be implemented, and the responsibilities of individuals. This ensures a consistent, comprehensive, and enforceable approach to security within the organization.

What is the function of antivirus software?

Answer: It protects the computer by detecting and removing malware

Antivirus software is specifically designed to protect computers by identifying, preventing, and removing malicious software, commonly known as malware. It scans files and programs for known threats and suspicious behavior, safeguarding the system's integrity and data. Its core function is to combat digital infections.

During a routine security audit, a vulnerability scanner identifies a critical cross-site scripting (XSS) flaw in a public-facing web application. Which of the following tools would be MOST appropriate for this type of discovery?

Answer: Web Application Vulnerability Scanner (e.g., Acunetix, OWASP ZAP)

Web application vulnerability scanners are specialized tools designed to scan and identify security flaws specific to web applications, such as SQL injection and cross-site scripting (XSS). While a SAST tool also finds vulnerabilities, it does so by analyzing source code, not by testing the running application from the outside.

The California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA) grants California residents the right to:

Answer: Know what personal information is collected and request its deletion

CCPA gives California residents the right to know what personal data is being collected, the right to delete it, the right to opt out of its sale, and the right to non-discrimination for exercising these rights.

What is the primary risk of using public APIs without authentication in a cloud-hosted application?

Answer: Unauthorized parties can query, modify, or delete application data

Unauthenticated public APIs allow any internet user to interact with backend services, potentially exposing or corrupting sensitive data.