CTO Aviation Safety & Emergency Response 5 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: What is the primary purpose of a 'hot spot' designation on an airport surface movement chart?
- To mark areas with high jet blast intensity
- To identify locations with a history of or potential for runway incursions or surface incidents (Correct answer)
- To indicate preferred engine run-up areas
- To mark de-icing pad locations
Correct answer: To identify locations with a history of or potential for runway incursions or surface incidents
Hot spots are labeled areas on airport diagrams that have a documented history of accidents or incidents, alerting pilots and controllers to exercise extra caution.
Question 2: A controller observes two aircraft converging on the same taxiway. Which action best prevents a ground collision?
- Wait for the pilots to self-separate using visual separation
- Immediately issue stop instructions to one or both aircraft and verify compliance (Correct answer)
- Issue a general advisory to all aircraft on ground frequency
- Transfer both aircraft to the operations frequency
Correct answer: Immediately issue stop instructions to one or both aircraft and verify compliance
Immediate stop instructions with verified compliance prevent collision; waiting for self-separation is unacceptable when a controller has identified the conflict.
Question 3: Which of the following best describes 'positive control' as applied to emergency aircraft in the tower environment?
- The controller assumes full autopilot authority over the aircraft
- The controller provides explicit, specific instructions and maintains continuous monitoring until the emergency is resolved (Correct answer)
- Positive control is suspended during emergencies to give pilots full authority
- The controller transfers the aircraft to ARTCC immediately
Correct answer: The controller provides explicit, specific instructions and maintains continuous monitoring until the emergency is resolved
Positive control during emergencies means the controller actively manages the aircraft with specific instructions and continuous attention rather than passive monitoring.
Question 4: What is the role of the Airport Emergency Plan (AEP) in tower operations?
- It replaces FAA Order 7110.65 procedures during emergencies
- It provides pre-coordinated response procedures ensuring all airport agencies act in concert during an emergency (Correct answer)
- It is used only by ARFF and is not relevant to controllers
- It establishes alternate ATC frequencies for emergency use
Correct answer: It provides pre-coordinated response procedures ensuring all airport agencies act in concert during an emergency
The AEP coordinates roles for ATC, ARFF, airport operations, police, and medical services so each agency has defined responsibilities during emergencies.
Question 5: When ATC loses radio contact with a VFR aircraft in the traffic pattern, which initial action is most appropriate?
- Issue a NOTAM and close the airport until contact is re-established
- Transmit on the last known frequency and instruct the pilot to rock wings if they can hear (Correct answer)
- Coordinate a military intercept through NORAD immediately
- Issue a general broadcast to all aircraft to land as soon as possible
Correct answer: Transmit on the last known frequency and instruct the pilot to rock wings if they can hear
FAA procedures for lost communications with a VFR aircraft include blind transmissions with instructions to acknowledge with a light gun signal or aircraft movement.
Question 6: An aircraft reports a pressurization failure requiring emergency descent. What separation actions should the tower controller take?
- Request the aircraft maintain assigned altitude until below 10,000 feet
- Coordinate immediately with adjacent facilities, clear the airspace below, and provide direct routing (Correct answer)
- Issue a standard emergency squawk and advise the pilot to contact approach
- Notify the airline and wait for company instructions before issuing clearances
Correct answer: Coordinate immediately with adjacent facilities, clear the airspace below, and provide direct routing
Pressurization failures require rapid descent; the controller must immediately clear underlying airspace, coordinate with adjacent sectors, and provide the most direct routing to the airport.
Question 7: What is the significance of a runway visual range (RVR) reading of 1,600 feet for a tower controller?
- It indicates conditions suitable for all IFR approaches without restriction
- It is below the minimum required for most Category I approaches, requiring restriction of certain operations (Correct answer)
- It triggers automatic closure of all runways
- It applies only to helicopter operations
Correct answer: It is below the minimum required for most Category I approaches, requiring restriction of certain operations
An RVR of 1,600 feet is below the standard Category I minimum of 1,800 feet RVR, requiring controllers to ensure only appropriately equipped aircraft with proper authorizations conduct approaches.
CTO Aviation Safety & Emergency Response 5
What is the primary purpose of a 'hot spot' designation on an airport surface movement chart?