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Mixed Deck — All CSS Topics Flashcards

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  1. A leading indicator in workplace safety is best described as:

    Answer: A proactive measure tracking activities that prevent incidents before they occur

    Leading indicators are proactive, preventive measures such as safety training completion rates, hazard observations reported, or near-miss investigations that predict future safety performance.

  2. Under the Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act (EPCRA), facilities must immediately notify the Local Emergency Planning Committee (LEPC) when a reportable quantity of an Extremely Hazardous Substance (EHS) is released. This notification requirement is found in which EPCRA section?

    Answer: Section 304

    EPCRA Section 304 requires immediate emergency notification to LEPCs and SERCs when a release of an EHS or CERCLA hazardous substance exceeds its reportable quantity.

  3. OSHA's HAZWOPER standard (29 CFR 1910.120) requires that workers at uncontrolled hazardous waste sites receive a minimum of how many hours of initial training?

    Answer: 40 hours

    General site workers at uncontrolled hazardous waste sites must complete 40 hours of off-site instruction and three days of supervised field experience.

  4. Which of the following best describes a 'compliance audit' versus a 'safety inspection'?

    Answer: A compliance audit measures adherence to regulations; a safety inspection identifies hazards in the physical environment

    Compliance audits systematically evaluate adherence to laws and standards, while safety inspections focus on identifying physical hazards.

  5. A safety supervisor wants to reinforce positive safety behaviors on the shop floor. The most effective reinforcement strategy is to:

    Answer: Provide immediate, specific, and sincere positive feedback when safe behaviors are observed

    Immediate, specific positive reinforcement following desired behavior is the most effective operant conditioning strategy for sustaining safe work practices.

  6. What does the acronym 'BLEVE' stand for in emergency response?

    Answer: Boiling Liquid Expanding Vapor Explosion

    BLEVE occurs when a vessel containing a liquid above its boiling point fails, causing rapid vapor expansion and explosion.

  7. What is the role of an 'attendant' in a confined space entry operation under 29 CFR 1910.146?

    Answer: To remain outside, track authorized entrants, and initiate rescue if needed

    The attendant remains outside the permit space, maintains communication with entrants, monitors for hazards, and initiates rescue procedures without entering.

  8. The Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health (IDLH) concentration values are established by which U.S. agency?

    Answer: NIOSH

    NIOSH (National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health) establishes IDLH values, which represent the maximum concentration from which a worker could escape within 30 minutes without irreversible health effects.

  9. Which OSHA standard requires employers to develop and implement a written Injury and Illness Prevention Program (I2P2) for high-hazard industries?

    Answer: State OSHA plans may require it; federal OSHA has proposed but not finalized a rule

    Federal OSHA has proposed an I2P2 rule but it is not finalized; however, many state OSHA plans already mandate written safety programs.

  10. When a chemical presents multiple hazards (e.g., both flammable and acutely toxic), how must the SDS label address these hazards?

    Answer: All applicable hazard information and pictograms must be included on the label

    GHS requires that labels include all applicable hazard pictograms, signal words, hazard statements, and precautionary statements for every hazard class the chemical falls under.

  11. Which component of a personal fall arrest system is responsible for dissipating energy during a fall?

    Answer: Deceleration device (shock absorber)

    The deceleration device (shock absorber or self-retracting lanyard mechanism) absorbs the energy of a fall to limit arrest forces on the worker.

  12. An employer receives an OSHA citation and disagrees with it. What is the deadline for filing a Notice of Contest?

    Answer: 15 working days from receipt of the citation

    Employers must file a Notice of Contest with the OSHA Area Director within 15 working days of receiving a citation, or the citation becomes a final order.

  13. When must an employer post an OSHA 300A Summary of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses?

    Answer: February 1 through April 30 each year

    The OSHA 300A Summary must be posted in a visible location from February 1 through April 30 each year, covering the previous year's data.

  14. During an electrical safety inspection, which condition would warrant immediate shutdown of equipment?

    Answer: Frayed insulation on a conductor in a wet environment

    Frayed insulation in a wet area creates an imminent electrocution risk requiring immediate removal from service.

  15. An OSHA 'willful' violation is defined as one committed with:

    Answer: Intentional disregard of, or plain indifference to, OSHA requirements

    A willful violation involves intentional disregard of OSHA requirements or plain indifference to employee safety, carrying penalties up to $165,514 per violation.

  16. Which OSHA standard requires a written Exposure Control Plan (ECP) to be reviewed and updated at least annually?

    Answer: 29 CFR 1910.1030 (Bloodborne Pathogens)

    The Bloodborne Pathogens standard requires the written Exposure Control Plan to be reviewed and updated at least annually and whenever new tasks affect occupational exposure.

  17. Under OSHA 1910.132, employers are generally required to provide PPE at NO cost to employees EXCEPT for which item?

    Answer: Prescription safety glasses

    OSHA's PPE payment rule requires employers to pay for most required PPE, but prescription eyewear that an employee could also use off the job is a noted exception.

  18. What does a Job Hazard Analysis (JHA) primarily help a safety supervisor accomplish?

    Answer: Identify hazards associated with each step of a task before work begins

    A JHA breaks a job into steps, identifies potential hazards at each step, and recommends controls before work is performed.

  19. What is the purpose of engineering controls in hazard control?

    Answer: To limit employee exposure to hazards through machine design

    Engineering controls involve making physical changes to the workplace or equipment to reduce or eliminate exposure to hazards. This means designing or modifying machinery, processes, or the work environment itself to inherently make it safer. Examples include installing ventilation systems, machine guards, or noise enclosures, which isolate people from the hazard or remove the hazard at its source through design.

  20. A qualified electrical worker is defined by OSHA as someone who:

    Answer: Has training on hazards and construction or maintenance of electrical equipment they work on

    OSHA defines a qualified person as one who has received training in avoiding electrical hazards and the specific construction/operation of equipment they service.