CSA Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CSA facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. What is the PRIMARY purpose of continuing education requirements in Quality Assurance Programs for CSA professionals? → Maintaining current knowledge and competency as the field evolves
2. When a conflict arises between standard procedures and a unique situation in Staff Management & Training, what should a CSA professional prioritize? → Safety and ethical obligations while seeking expert consultation
3. The typical incubation period for norovirus, a common cause of gastroenteritis outbreaks in long-term care facilities, is: → 12–48 hours
4. A nursing facility must provide menus that meet the nutritional needs of residents based on which recognized standard? → Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) / Dietary Reference Intakes (DRIs)
5. Under 42 CFR §483.60, how many meals per day must a nursing facility provide, and what is the maximum time allowed between the evening meal and breakfast? → 3 meals; 14-hour gap maximum
6. Which infection surveillance method tracks all infections occurring within a defined resident population regardless of body site? → Total facility (house-wide) surveillance
7. A resident's care plan must be revised following a 'significant change in status.' Which of the following would typically trigger this requirement? → Onset of a new stage III pressure ulcer
8. In Staff Management & Training, what is the FIRST step a CSA professional should take when encountering a new case or situation? → Conduct a comprehensive assessment and gather all relevant information
9. Under CMS requirements, who is ultimately responsible for ensuring the MDS is completed accurately and on time in a nursing facility? → The facility administrator
10. How often must a nursing facility conduct a quarterly MDS assessment for a long-stay resident? → Every 90 days
11. Which IDDSI (International Dysphagia Diet Standardisation Initiative) level describes food that is 'soft and bite-sized,' requiring some chewing ability? → Level 6 – Soft & Bite-Sized
12. In Quality Assurance Programs, what is the FIRST step a CSA professional should take when encountering a new case or situation? → Conduct a comprehensive assessment and gather all relevant information
13. What is the PRIMARY purpose of continuing education requirements in Financial Management & Budgeting for CSA professionals? → Maintaining current knowledge and competency as the field evolves
14. When a conflict arises between standard procedures and a unique situation in Facility Operations & Maintenance, what should a CSA professional prioritize? → Safety and ethical obligations while seeking expert consultation
15. What minimum contact time with soap and water is recommended by the CDC for effective hand hygiene? → 20 seconds
16. Which standard of practice is MOST important for ensuring quality in Facility Operations & Maintenance? → Following evidence-based protocols while adapting to specific circumstances
17. What is the first step in regular system maintenance? → Review system logs for errors and performance issues.
18. Which standard of practice is MOST important for ensuring quality in Staff Management & Training? → Following evidence-based protocols while adapting to specific circumstances
19. Which regulation requires nursing facilities to conduct a comprehensive assessment of each resident using the RAI process? → 42 CFR §483.20
20. The MDS 3.0 Section Q addresses which area of resident care? → Return to community referrals
21. What are CMS 'Quality Measures' (QMs) derived from in a nursing facility? → MDS assessment data submitted to CMS
22. When a conflict arises between standard procedures and a unique situation in Financial Management & Budgeting, what should a CSA professional prioritize? → Safety and ethical obligations while seeking expert consultation
23. Which type of transmission-based precaution is required for a resident diagnosed with active tuberculosis (TB)? → Airborne Precautions
24. Why is it important to perform regular backups in system maintenance? → To protect against data loss in case of failure.
25. When a conflict arises between standard procedures and a unique situation in Emergency Preparedness & Safety, what should a CSA professional prioritize? → Safety and ethical obligations while seeking expert consultation
26. MRSA stands for which of the following? → Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus aureus
27. What is the PRIMARY purpose of continuing education requirements in Medication Management Oversight for CSA professionals? → Maintaining current knowledge and competency as the field evolves
28. An 'NDD' notation on a nursing facility resident's dietary record most commonly refers to which type of diet? → National Dysphagia Diet
29. Under federal regulations, within how many days of a resident's admission must the initial comprehensive care plan be completed? → 21 days
30. Which of the following represents the 'portal of entry' link in the chain of infection? → A mucous membrane exposed to respiratory secretions