CRRN Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CRRN facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. A patient with an ankle sprain is beginning rehabilitation in the subacute phase. Which intervention is MOST appropriate at this stage? → Proprioceptive and balance training to restore neuromuscular control
2. Which bladder management strategy is most appropriate for a patient with a complete T10 spinal cord injury who has a flaccid neurogenic bladder? → Intermittent catheterization every 4–6 hours
3. A rehabilitation nurse is caring for a patient with complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) of the right hand. Which nursing priority is MOST appropriate? → Facilitate desensitization therapy and graded motor imagery
4. Which outcome is EXPECTED for a patient with a complete C6 spinal cord injury regarding self-care? → Ability to perform upper body dressing independently with adaptive equipment
5. A rehabilitation nurse is assessing a patient one week post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG). Which finding requires IMMEDIATE reporting? → Sternal clicking with movement and fever of 101.8°F
6. A rehabilitation patient is receiving scheduled opioid analgesics for moderate-to-severe pain. Which nursing assessment finding requires immediate intervention? → Respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute with decreased arousal
7. A patient with a T6 complete spinal cord injury is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia (AD). Which stimulus is the MOST common trigger? → Bladder distension or bowel impaction
8. What does the term "reliability" mean when analyzing data and results? → Results are reproducible.
9. Which intervention BEST prevents heterotopic ossification (HO) in a patient with severe TBI? → Administer prophylactic indomethacin and maintain gentle ROM
10. During discharge planning for a patient with dysphagia following a stroke, the CRRN should coordinate with which specialist first? → Speech-language pathologist
11. Which patient is at highest risk for developing heterotopic ossification (HO) after a spinal cord injury? → A 25-year-old with a complete T4 injury and spasticity
12. When assessing pain in a rehabilitation patient with severe cognitive impairment who is unable to self-report, the nurse should use: → PAINAD (Pain Assessment in Advanced Dementia) scale
13. A patient with a C6 complete SCI is at high risk for heterotopic ossification (HO). Which early clinical finding MOST suggests HO in the hip region? → Localized warmth, swelling, and decreased range of motion below the injury
14. A patient with a C4 complete spinal cord injury is most likely to require which form of respiratory support? → Mechanical ventilation, at least initially
15. A patient is being discharged home after stroke rehabilitation. Which finding MOST strongly indicates the patient is at risk for falls in the home environment? → Timed Up and Go (TUG) test result of 16 seconds
16. A CRRN is discharging a patient who will self-manage anticoagulation therapy after DVT. Which teaching point is the highest priority? → Report any unusual bleeding, bruising, or blood in urine or stool immediately
17. A rehabilitation nurse is assessing a patient's pressure injury risk. Which tool is specifically validated and widely used in rehabilitation settings? → Braden Scale
18. When setting functional goals for a patient after a stroke, the rehabilitation nurse should ensure goals are: → Specific, measurable, attainable, relevant, and time-bound (SMART)
19. Which scale is most widely used in rehabilitation settings to measure a patient's functional independence across motor and cognitive domains? → Functional Independence Measure (FIM)
20. In rehabilitation nursing, the term 'learned non-use' most accurately describes: → Suppression of movement in an affected limb due to early failed attempts post-injury
21. A pulmonary rehabilitation patient asks about the benefits of respiratory muscle training. Which response by the CRRN is MOST accurate? → It can improve inspiratory muscle strength, reduce dyspnea, and enhance exercise capacity
22. A rehabilitation nurse discovers a Stage 2 pressure injury on a patient's sacrum. Which intervention is the PRIORITY? → Reposition the patient off the area and implement a pressure redistribution surface
23. When using the Braden Scale to assess a patient's pressure injury risk, which subscale score of '1' indicates the GREATEST risk? → Mobility: Completely immobile
24. A patient in cardiac rehab has a resting blood pressure of 180/105 mmHg before the exercise session. What is the APPROPRIATE nursing action? → Withhold exercise and notify the physician
25. A patient with osteoporosis is being discharged after a vertebral compression fracture. Which activity instruction is MOST appropriate? → Avoid spinal flexion exercises; focus on extension and balance
26. Which complication is a rehabilitation nurse most vigilant for in a patient who is post-stroke and has been prescribed subcutaneous heparin for DVT prophylaxis? → Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT)
27. When performing neurovascular checks on a patient in skeletal traction, which finding requires IMMEDIATE intervention? → Paresthesias and absent distal pulse in the affected extremity
28. A rehabilitation nurse is educating a patient with chronic pain about cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). The primary focus of CBT for pain management is to: → Identify and restructure maladaptive thought patterns and behaviors associated with pain
29. The cause of esophageal speech. → burping to exert pressure and produce vibration
30. A patient who underwent total hip arthroplasty (THA) via posterior approach is being educated on hip precautions. Which movement is CONTRAINDICATED? → Hip flexion beyond 90 degrees