CRRN Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CRRN facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. A patient with an ankle sprain is beginning rehabilitation in the subacute phase. Which intervention is MOST appropriate at this stage? → Proprioceptive and balance training to restore neuromuscular control
2. A rehabilitation nurse is caring for a patient with complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) of the right hand. Which nursing priority is MOST appropriate? → Facilitate desensitization therapy and graded motor imagery
3. Which outcome is EXPECTED for a patient with a complete C6 spinal cord injury regarding self-care? → Ability to perform upper body dressing independently with adaptive equipment
4. A rehabilitation nurse is assessing a patient one week post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG). Which finding requires IMMEDIATE reporting? → Sternal clicking with movement and fever of 101.8°F
5. A rehabilitation patient is receiving scheduled opioid analgesics for moderate-to-severe pain. Which nursing assessment finding requires immediate intervention? → Respiratory rate of 8 breaths per minute with decreased arousal
6. A patient with a T6 complete spinal cord injury is at risk for autonomic dysreflexia (AD). Which stimulus is the MOST common trigger? → Bladder distension or bowel impaction
7. What does the term "reliability" mean when analyzing data and results? → Results are reproducible.
8. Which intervention BEST prevents heterotopic ossification (HO) in a patient with severe TBI? → Administer prophylactic indomethacin and maintain gentle ROM
9. A pulmonary rehabilitation patient asks about the benefits of respiratory muscle training. Which response by the CRRN is MOST accurate? → It can improve inspiratory muscle strength, reduce dyspnea, and enhance exercise capacity
10. A patient in cardiac rehab has a resting blood pressure of 180/105 mmHg before the exercise session. What is the APPROPRIATE nursing action? → Withhold exercise and notify the physician
11. A patient with osteoporosis is being discharged after a vertebral compression fracture. Which activity instruction is MOST appropriate? → Avoid spinal flexion exercises; focus on extension and balance
12. When performing neurovascular checks on a patient in skeletal traction, which finding requires IMMEDIATE intervention? → Paresthesias and absent distal pulse in the affected extremity
13. A rehabilitation nurse is educating a patient with chronic pain about cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). The primary focus of CBT for pain management is to: → Identify and restructure maladaptive thought patterns and behaviors associated with pain
14. The cause of esophageal speech. → burping to exert pressure and produce vibration
15. A patient who underwent total hip arthroplasty (THA) via posterior approach is being educated on hip precautions. Which movement is CONTRAINDICATED? → Hip flexion beyond 90 degrees
16. What kind of living situation offers supervised living for people with comparable disabilities and employees who are on call day and night? → group home
17. Which finding BEST indicates a successful neurogenic bowel program in a patient with SCI? → Predictable bowel evacuation every 1–2 days without incontinence episodes
18. A rehabilitation nurse is performing a Braden Scale assessment. Which subscale DIRECTLY assesses the patient's level of physical activity? → Activity
19. Which oxygen saturation level during pulmonary rehabilitation exercise REQUIRES supplemental oxygen to be initiated or increased? → SpO2 < 88%
20. A patient with fibromyalgia is starting a rehabilitation program. Which exercise approach has the STRONGEST evidence for improving symptoms? → Low-impact aerobic exercise such as water aerobics or walking
21. A rehabilitation patient with SCI consistently has post-void residual (PVR) volumes of 350 mL after voiding attempts. What does this indicate? → Incomplete bladder emptying indicating potential for UTI and upper urinary tract damage
22. A patient with TBI at Rancho Level IV is agitated and pulling at tubes. Which nursing intervention is MOST appropriate? → Use a calm, consistent approach and minimize stimulation
23. A patient with an above-knee amputation is beginning prosthetic gait training. Which nursing observation indicates the prosthetic socket fit is INAPPROPRIATE? → Circumferential skin redness and blistering on the distal residual limb
24. A 35-year-old MS patient experiences chronic constipation but only infrequent fecal incontinence. What intervention is MOST appropriate from the list below? → Bowel training (timed defecation, high fiber, adequate liquids, and stool softeners).
25. A patient with a rotator cuff repair is at 6 weeks post-surgery. Which activity is APPROPRIATE at this stage? → Pendulum exercises and passive ROM within prescribed limits
26. As opposed to bilevel positive airway pressure (BPAP), which of the following conditions is typically treated with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)? → Obstructive sleep apnea.
27. A patient recovering from a stroke develops central post-stroke pain. Which description BEST characterizes this condition? → Burning or aching pain on the side affected by the stroke, often allodynia
28. A patient with stroke has urge urinary incontinence due to neurogenic detrusor overactivity. Which pharmacological intervention is most commonly used? → Anticholinergic medication such as oxybutynin
29. When assessing a patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) for aspiration risk, which finding is MOST concerning? → Weak cough and wet vocal quality after swallowing
30. A patient with gout is admitted to the rehabilitation unit with an acute flare. Which nursing intervention is PRIORITY during an acute attack? → Rest the affected joint, apply ice, and administer prescribed anti-inflammatory medication