CRNI Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CRNI facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. A Jehovah's Witness patient requires urgent surgery with expected blood loss. Which blood management strategy is MOST appropriate? → Use autologous blood salvage with a continuous circuit
2. Which of the following is a contraindication to neuraxial analgesia? → INR of 2.8 in a patient on warfarin
3. Which of the following organisms is most commonly associated with catheter-related bloodstream infections (CRBSIs) linked to hub contamination? → Coagulase-negative Staphylococci
4. What is the recommended minimum syringe size for flushing a central venous catheter to prevent catheter rupture? → 10 mL
5. Which assessment finding best indicates that a patient's multimodal pain regimen is effective after total knee replacement? → Patient participates in physical therapy with pain rated ≤4/10
6. What is the significance of catheter-related thrombosis in patients with PICCs compared to other central venous catheters? → PICCs are associated with higher rates of upper extremity DVT compared to other CVCs
7. A patient with a PICC line develops a fever of 38.9°C and chills during an infusion. What is the priority nursing action? → Stop the infusion and notify the provider immediately
8. Which site should be AVOIDED for peripheral IV insertion in a patient who had a right-sided mastectomy? → Right arm
9. What temperature should blood products be stored at in the blood bank prior to transfusion? → 1-6 degrees C
10. What is the maximum recommended dextrose concentration for peripheral IV infusion in pediatric patients? → 12.5%
11. Which imaging modality is the gold standard for confirming central venous catheter tip position? → Chest X-ray (posteroanterior)
12. When changing IV tubing for continuous lipid infusions, how frequently should tubing be replaced according to INS standards? → Every 24 hours
13. Which personal protective equipment (PPE) is required when handling antineoplastic agents according to current INS standards? → Double chemotherapy-tested gloves, gown, and face shield
14. When educating a patient about subcutaneous immunoglobulin (SCIG) therapy at home, which site should be included as an appropriate injection location? → Abdomen
15. A patient with a history of IgA deficiency requires a blood transfusion. Which precaution is MOST critical for this patient? → Use IgA-deficient or washed blood products
16. A nurse is preparing to administer fresh frozen plasma (FFP). Which of the following is the correct administration filter to use? → Standard 170-260 micron blood filter
17. A patient develops hypotension, dyspnea, and bilateral pulmonary infiltrates within 6 hours of transfusion. Which complication should the nurse suspect? → Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)
18. Which complication is unique to neonatal umbilical vein catheter (UVC) use? → Hepatic necrosis from malposition
19. A patient develops sudden dyspnea, tachycardia, and hypotension during central line removal. What is the most likely complication? → Venous air embolism
20. A patient receiving blinatumomab develops confusion, tremors, and difficulty speaking on day 3 of infusion. The nurse's priority action is: → Stop the infusion and notify the physician immediately
21. What is the maximum infusion time allowed for one unit of packed red blood cells? → 4 hours
22. A nurse is monitoring a patient receiving total parenteral nutrition. Which laboratory panel should be monitored at least twice weekly? → Basic metabolic panel including glucose, electrolytes, BUN, and creatinine
23. A 5-year-old requires IV potassium chloride supplementation. What is the maximum recommended concentration for peripheral IV administration? → 40 mEq/L
24. Which of the following is not a common safety measure? → Immunization
25. The pulsatile (push-pause) flushing technique is used primarily to: → Create turbulence that dislodges fibrin and drug deposits from the catheter lumen
26. Which pump feature allows the clinician to administer a loading dose followed by a continuous maintenance infusion? → Bolus-to-continuous mode (loading dose with automatic transition to maintenance rate)
27. Which assessment finding is most consistent with early peripheral IV infiltration? → Cool, pale, swollen skin at the insertion site
28. Which factor most directly affects the accuracy of a syringe pump's delivery rate? → Correct syringe size and brand recognition by the pump
29. Which technique is used to remove air from IV tubing before connecting to a central venous catheter? → Purging the line by allowing fluid to flow through until air-free
30. Which type of isolation is required for a patient diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis? → Airborne precautions in a negative-pressure room