CRNA Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CRNA facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. A patient develops bronchospasm during general anesthesia. Which inhaled agent, if already in use, provides direct bronchodilation and should be continued? → Sevoflurane
2. What is the primary concern with using nitrous oxide in a patient with a bowel obstruction? → Nitrous oxide diffuses into gas-filled spaces and expands bowel volume
3. What dermatomal level of spinal anesthesia is typically required for a cesarean section? → T4
4. What is the nurse's primary responsibility in patient care standards? → Advocating for patient safety and well-being
5. How should a nurse prioritize tasks related to care planning? → Based on the acuity and urgency of patient needs
6. When a conflict arises during medication administration, what is the appropriate nursing action? → Use the chain of command to escalate concerns through proper channels
7. What does it mean for CRNAs to have "full practice authority"? → They can administer anesthesia without physician supervision.
8. How should a nurse prioritize tasks related to patient care standards? → Based on the acuity and urgency of patient needs
9. What infection control measure is most critical during clinical procedures procedures? → Performing hand hygiene before and after every patient contact
10. What is the MAC (minimum alveolar concentration) value used for in anesthesia? → It defines the concentration preventing movement in 50% of patients
11. A patient receiving spinal anesthesia develops sudden hypotension and bradycardia. What is the MOST likely mechanism? → Sympathetic blockade causing venodilation and reduced preload
12. When a conflict arises during infection control, what is the appropriate nursing action? → Use the chain of command to escalate concerns through proper channels
13. What assessment technique is fundamental to patient care standards? → Systematic head-to-toe assessment combined with patient interview
14. The femoral nerve block provides sensory coverage primarily to which area? → Anterior and medial thigh, knee, and medial leg
15. What is the nurse's primary responsibility in clinical procedures? → Advocating for patient safety and well-being
16. What is the nurse's primary responsibility in patient education? → Advocating for patient safety and well-being
17. When a conflict arises during health assessment, what is the appropriate nursing action? → Use the chain of command to escalate concerns through proper channels
18. What assessment technique is fundamental to health assessment? → Systematic head-to-toe assessment combined with patient interview
19. What are the potential legal risks for CRNAs with expanded autonomy? → Increased exposure to malpractice claims.
20. What assessment technique is fundamental to infection control? → Systematic head-to-toe assessment combined with patient interview
21. How should a nurse respond to a change in patient condition during care planning? → Immediately assess, intervene if within scope, and notify the provider using SBAR
22. Propofol infusion syndrome (PRIS) is most likely to occur in which clinical scenario? → High-dose prolonged infusion in critically ill patients
23. What is the recommended preoxygenation target end-tidal O2 (EtO2) percentage before rapid sequence intubation (RSI)? → ≥90%
24. What is the primary mechanism of action of local anesthetics? → Blockade of voltage-gated sodium channels preventing depolarization
25. According to the ASA Difficult Airway Algorithm, what is the first step after recognizing a 'cannot intubate, cannot oxygenate' (CICO) emergency? → Emergency surgical airway (cricothyrotomy)
26. How does the AANA advocate for CRNAs? → Lobbying for full practice authority at the state and federal levels
27. How should a nurse prioritize tasks related to professional standards? → Based on the acuity and urgency of patient needs
28. Which clinical sign is most specific for identifying right mainstem bronchus intubation? → Decreased or absent breath sounds on the left
29. What is the appropriate response if laryngospasm does not break with positive pressure ventilation and jaw thrust? → Administer succinylcholine 0.1–0.5 mg/kg IV to relax the vocal cords
30. The standard epidural test dose detects which two complications? → Intravascular injection and subarachnoid injection