CPSM Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CPSM facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

50 questions
60 min time limit
70.00% to pass
  1. What role does peer review play in the CPSM design process? → It provides independent verification, catches errors, and enhances overall quality
  2. What role does continuous feedback play in CPSM quality improvement processes? → It provides ongoing data for identifying trends, successes, and areas needing improvement
  3. What is a key benefit of project integration management? → It ensures seamless coordination among project processes
  4. Why is monitoring risk important throughout the project? → To address new risks and minimize their impact
  5. Which type of requirement specifies constraints on how the system performs its functions, such as response time? → Non-functional requirements
  6. What does a RAG (Red/Amber/Green) status indicator in project reporting communicate? → Visual health indicators showing severity of project status on key dimensions
  7. What is the relationship between time, cost, and quality in project management? → Increasing cost improves quality and timeline
  8. How does scope creep affect a project? → It leads to increased costs, delays, and poor quality
  9. During project execution, a technical lead makes a 'minor' design change without submitting a change request. The PM should: → Require a formal change request and reverse the change if denied
  10. What does the concept of 'resource calendar' define in project resource management? → When specific resources are available, including working days, holidays, and shifts
  11. Which scheduling method determines the longest path through the project network to identify the minimum project duration? → Critical Path Method (CPM)
  12. Which integration management activity ensures that changes to one knowledge area are reflected across all related plans? → Perform Integrated Change Control
  13. Which stakeholder analysis technique maps stakeholders by their level of interest and level of power? → Power/Interest grid
  14. Which document formally authorizes a project manager to apply organizational resources and establishes their authority? → Project charter
  15. The 100% rule in WBS development means: → The WBS must capture 100% of the work defined in the project scope
  16. Which metric best measures sustainable team productivity in an agile software project over multiple iterations? → Team velocity (story points completed per sprint)
  17. Which team development stage in Tuckman's model is characterized by conflicts over roles and responsibilities? → Storming
  18. Which technique uses a structured group session to gather requirements from multiple stakeholders simultaneously? → Joint Application Development (JAD)
  19. What scheduling technique splits a task and allows another higher-priority task to use the resource temporarily? → Preemptive scheduling
  20. After implementing a corrective action, what is the project manager's most important next step? → Monitor performance to verify the corrective action was effective
  21. What is the purpose of stakeholder management in project management? → To prioritize stakeholders based on their influence and importance
  22. What is a software baseline in configuration management? → A formally reviewed and agreed-upon specification used as a basis for further development
  23. Which EVM metric represents the monetary value of work actually completed at a given point in time? → Earned Value (EV)
  24. How does the CPSM body of knowledge relate to daily professional practice? → It provides the foundational framework that guides decision-making and standard practices
  25. A schedule compression technique that overlaps phases or tasks that would normally be done sequentially is called: → Fast tracking
  26. What is a use case primarily used for in requirements engineering? → Describing interactions between users and the system to achieve a goal
  27. What is the purpose of a communication plan in project management? → To outline how and when information will be communicated
  28. In Certified Software Project Manager practice, what is the CORRECT sequence when performing a technical procedure? → Plan, prepare, execute, verify, and document
  29. How does the CPSM body of knowledge relate to daily professional practice? → It provides the foundational framework that guides decision-making and standard practices
  30. Which contract type provides the buyer with the most flexibility to change scope during execution? → Time and Materials (T&M)
Turn these facts into recall:
Was this helpful?