CPR Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CPR facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. When preparing for electrical therapy, which of the following safety precautions is essential to prevent arcing and ensure effective energy delivery? → Ensuring the patient's chest is clean and dry.
2. A construction worker fell 20 feet and presents with midshaft femur fracture. Estimated blood loss into the thigh can be as high as: → 1,000–1,500 mL
3. A 12-lead ECG reveals right axis deviation, tall R wave in V1, and deep S waves in V6. Which condition is most consistent with these findings? → Right ventricular hypertrophy
4. A patient develops pulseless electrical activity after receiving a high spinal anesthetic. Which drug mechanism is MOST relevant? → Epinephrine alpha-1 effect restoring vascular resistance lost from sympathectomy
5. Which dysrhythmia is most commonly associated with hypothermic cardiac arrest at core temperatures below 30°C (86°F)? → Ventricular fibrillation
6. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate ventilation rate for a patient with ROSC (return of spontaneous circulation) who requires assisted ventilation? → 10–12 breaths/min
7. What is the correct dose of epinephrine administered during adult cardiac arrest per current AHA ACLS protocol? → 1 mg IV every 3-5 minutes
8. What is the correct ET tube dose of epinephrine when IV/IO access is unavailable? → 2–2.5 mg diluted in 5–10 mL NS
9. What is the primary mechanism by which epinephrine improves outcomes in cardiac arrest? → Alpha-1 vasoconstriction increasing coronary perfusion pressure
10. You are treating an 18-month-old in ventricular fibrillation. What is the recommended initial energy dose for defibrillation? → 2 J/kg
11. A glucometer reads 'HI' for a diabetic patient in altered mental status. This indicates blood glucose is: → Above the device's measurable range (>600 mg/dL)
12. A team member administers a second dose of epinephrine 2 minutes after the first. As team leader, what is your FIRST action? → Document the event and continue resuscitation while monitoring for complications
13. What is the first step in assessing an emergency patient? → To perform an initial assessment and prioritize treatment
14. In which of the following cardiac arrest situations is the administration of epinephrine recommended as early as feasible once IV/IO access is established? → Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA)
15. A patient requires spinal motion restriction on a long backboard. After securing the torso, the head is immobilized: → Last, after torso and legs are secured
16. A paramedic applies a tourniquet to a patient's mid-thigh for arterial bleeding. The bleeding does not stop. What is the correct next step? → Apply a second tourniquet proximal to the first
17. For synchronized cardioversion of unstable atrial fibrillation, the recommended initial energy setting using a biphasic defibrillator is: → 100-200 J
18. To ensure both high-quality CPR and effective team coordination, what is the recommended approach for switching the person performing chest compressions? → Switch compressors every 2 minutes, ideally during a planned pause like a rhythm check.
19. Why is it important for paramedics to be familiar with their medical equipment? → To ensure effective and efficient care
20. A patient in cardiac arrest has ECG showing organized electrical activity but no palpable pulse. Which rhythm is present? → Pulseless electrical activity
21. Which phrase BEST demonstrates closed-loop communication when a team leader orders 1 mg epinephrine IV? → '1 mg epinephrine IV — administering now. Epinephrine 1 mg given.'
22. Which IV fluid is currently recommended by PHTLS and most EMS systems for hemorrhagic shock resuscitation? → Lactated Ringer's solution
23. In a patient with suspected digoxin toxicity, which ECG pattern is classically described as the 'Salvador Dali' or 'scooping' sign? → Downsloping ST depression resembling a sagging baseline
24. The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale assesses which three findings? → Facial droop, arm drift, speech abnormality
25. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to nasotracheal intubation? → Suspected basilar skull fracture
26. What term describes the minimum current needed to reliably capture the myocardium during transcutaneous pacing? → Capture threshold
27. A patient presents with a GCS of 8 and is unresponsive to verbal stimuli. What is the MOST appropriate initial airway intervention? → Endotracheal intubation
28. Which condition is the most common cause of cardiac arrest in infants and children? → Respiratory failure or shock leading to hypoxia
29. A 2-year-old child is unresponsive with no pulse. A single rescuer is present. What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio? → 30:2
30. What is the primary concern when transporting a trauma patient? → To keep the airway clear, control bleeding, and stabilize