CPR Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CPR facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. When preparing for electrical therapy, which of the following safety precautions is essential to prevent arcing and ensure effective energy delivery? → Ensuring the patient's chest is clean and dry.
2. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate ventilation rate for a patient with ROSC (return of spontaneous circulation) who requires assisted ventilation? → 10–12 breaths/min
3. You are treating an 18-month-old in ventricular fibrillation. What is the recommended initial energy dose for defibrillation? → 2 J/kg
4. What is the first step in assessing an emergency patient? → To perform an initial assessment and prioritize treatment
5. In which of the following cardiac arrest situations is the administration of epinephrine recommended as early as feasible once IV/IO access is established? → Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA)
6. To ensure both high-quality CPR and effective team coordination, what is the recommended approach for switching the person performing chest compressions? → Switch compressors every 2 minutes, ideally during a planned pause like a rhythm check.
7. Why is it important for paramedics to be familiar with their medical equipment? → To ensure effective and efficient care
8. Which IV fluid is currently recommended by PHTLS and most EMS systems for hemorrhagic shock resuscitation? → Lactated Ringer's solution
9. What is the primary concern when transporting a trauma patient? → To keep the airway clear, control bleeding, and stabilize
10. Which of the following BEST indicates successful intraosseous needle placement before drug administration? → The needle stands upright without support and saline flushes without resistance
11. What is the importance of response time in emergency care? → To ensure immediate intervention and improve patient outcomes
12. How should a paramedic manage a choking patient? → By using the Heimlich maneuver or abdominal thrusts
13. What is the importance of obtaining a medical history from a patient? → To identify underlying health conditions and treatment risks
14. Which IV access route is preferred for initial resuscitation when peripheral IV access cannot be established rapidly in a trauma patient? → Intraosseous access
15. How should a paramedic assess a patient's airway? → By ensuring the airway is clear of obstructions
16. A worker exposed to hydrofluoric (HF) acid has severe burns, hypocalcemia, and life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias. What specific treatment is required? → Calcium gluconate gel topically and IV calcium replacement
17. What is the primary purpose of emergency medical protocols? → To provide a set of guidelines for paramedics
18. A patient with tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose develops a wide QRS complex and hypotension. What is the treatment of choice? → Sodium bicarbonate IV
19. What is the primary intervention for a patient with a collapsed lung? → Decompress with a needle or chest tube
20. How should a paramedic manage a burn injury? → Cool the burn with water and cover with sterile dressing
21. What is the primary goal of trauma management? → To stabilize the patient and control bleeding
22. A patient presents with severe acute asthma not responding to two albuterol nebulizations. What is the MOST appropriate next pharmacological intervention? → Administer ipratropium bromide in combination with albuterol
23. Which of the following is the primary reason for administering epinephrine during cardiac arrest? → To cause peripheral vasoconstriction and improve coronary perfusion.
24. A trauma patient in Class III hemorrhagic shock would MOST likely present with which set of vital signs? → HR 120, BP 90/70, RR 28
25. What is the importance of controlling shock in trauma patients? → To manage blood loss and ensure perfusion
26. In a patient with acute severe asthma who is becoming fatigued and hypercapnic despite aggressive bronchodilator therapy, the MOST appropriate action is: → Prepare for definitive airway management and consider intubation
27. When performing a cricothyrotomy using the surgical method, between which structures is the incision made? → Thyroid cartilage and cricoid cartilage through the cricothyroid membrane
28. In a patient requiring RSI (Rapid Sequence Intubation), what is the CORRECT sequence of medication administration? → Sedative/induction agent first, then neuromuscular blocking agent
29. What is the role of rapid trauma assessment? → To identify life-threatening injuries and guide treatment
30. Which ECG finding is most characteristic and specific for severe digoxin toxicity? → Bidirectional ventricular tachycardia