Mixed Deck — All CPL Topics Flashcards

The FAA can issue an emergency revocation of a pilot certificate under which authority?

Answer: 49 U.S.C. 44709

49 U.S.C. 44709 grants the FAA Administrator authority to re-examine certificate holders and reissue, amend, modify, suspend, or revoke certificates.

Which atmospheric condition causes the most significant reduction in aircraft climb performance?

Answer: High temperature and high elevation (high density altitude)

High temperature combined with high elevation produces a high density altitude, dramatically reducing engine power output and propeller/wing efficiency, severely limiting climb performance.

Transponder Mode C provides ATC with which information?

Answer: Aircraft identification code and pressure altitude

Mode C transponders reply with the assigned 4096 squawk code plus encoded pressure altitude, enabling ATC to display both identity and altitude on radar.

What is the purpose of a 'squat switch' (weight-on-wheels switch) in aircraft systems?

Answer: To sense whether the aircraft is on the ground and enable or inhibit certain systems accordingly

Squat switches sense ground contact through compression of the landing gear oleo struts, enabling ground-only systems and inhibiting air-only systems to prevent inadvertent operation.

A NOTAM reports an ILS glideslope 'out of service' for your destination. Which approach type becomes the most appropriate precision substitute?

Answer: LOC approach using localizer-only minimums

When the glideslope is out of service, the ILS degrades to a localizer (LOC) approach, which uses only the lateral guidance with higher published minimums.

What is the primary advantage of a constant-speed propeller over a fixed-pitch propeller?

Answer: It maintains an optimal blade pitch angle to match engine RPM to changing flight conditions, maximizing efficiency

A constant-speed propeller uses a governor to automatically vary blade pitch, keeping engine RPM constant and allowing the propeller to operate at its most efficient angle throughout the flight envelope.

Shared mental models in CRM refer to:

Answer: A common understanding among crew members of the current situation, goals, and plan

A shared mental model means all crew members have the same situational picture, reducing coordination errors and communication gaps.

A commercial pilot, feeling pressured to get a group of clients to a destination on time, decides to continue a flight into weather that is deteriorating but still legally VFR. This behavior is a classic example of which hazardous attitude?

Answer: Impulsivity

Impulsivity, also known as 'get-there-itis,' is the hazardous attitude of feeling the need to do something—anything—immediately. This often leads to rushing into a decision, such as continuing a flight into worsening conditions, without properly evaluating all options and risks. The external pressure from clients exacerbates this attitude.

What is the key difference between 'homing' and 'tracking' to an NDB?

Answer: Homing keeps the needle at 000° causing a curved ground path in crosswind; tracking applies a wind correction angle for a straight track

Homing points the aircraft directly at the station (ADF stays at 000°) but results in a curved, wind-drifted path; tracking applies a wind correction angle to maintain a straight ground track.

Which altimetry system setting should a commercial pilot use when flying IFR above 18,000 ft MSL (Class A airspace)?

Answer: 29.92 in Hg (standard pressure)

At and above 18,000 ft MSL (FL180), all aircraft must set altimeters to standard pressure of 29.92 in Hg per FAR 91.121.

What condition is indicated by a surface temperature-dewpoint spread of 2°C or less with rapidly increasing relative humidity?

Answer: Potential for fog or low cloud formation

A temperature-dewpoint spread of 2°C or less indicates the air is near saturation, making fog or low cloud formation very likely.

What is the primary hazard associated with 'Moist Adiabatic Lapse Rate' being less than the 'Dry Adiabatic Lapse Rate'?

Answer: A lifted saturated air parcel cools more slowly, remaining warmer than environment and promoting continued ascent and convective instability

Because the moist adiabatic lapse rate (roughly 3°C/1,000 ft) is less than the dry rate (roughly 3°C/1,000 ft is wrong — MALR ~1.5°C/1,000 ft vs DALR ~3°C/1,000 ft), saturated rising air stays warmer than its surroundings, sustaining lift and convective development.

What does a SIGMET alert pilots to?

Answer: Severe weather conditions

A SIGMET (Significant Meteorological Information) is a weather advisory that alerts pilots to severe weather phenomena that are potentially hazardous to all aircraft. These include severe turbulence, severe icing, widespread dust storms, sandstorms, or volcanic ash. SIGMETs are issued for conditions that are widespread or of significant intensity, requiring immediate attention from pilots for flight safety.

A RAIM warning appears immediately before the final approach fix (FAF) on a GPS approach. The correct pilot action is to:

Answer: Discontinue the GPS approach and execute a missed approach

Loss of RAIM before the FAF means GPS integrity cannot be verified; FAA regulations prohibit continuing a GPS approach without RAIM, so a missed approach must be executed.

A pilot of a large, swept-wing aircraft encounters an uncommanded, coupled oscillation of rolling and yawing. This aerodynamic characteristic is known as:

Answer: Dutch roll.

Dutch roll is a coupled lateral-directional oscillation that is characteristic of swept-wing aircraft. It consists of an out-of-phase combination of yawing ('tail-wagging') and rolling. It occurs due to an imbalance where dihedral effect (strong lateral stability) is stronger than directional stability. Modern transport aircraft use a yaw damper system to automatically counteract this tendency.

What is the primary purpose of a vortex generator on an aircraft wing?

Answer: To re-energize the boundary layer and delay flow separation

Vortex generators create small vortices that mix high-energy air from the free stream into the boundary layer, delaying separation and stall.

A pilot is using a takeoff performance chart that requires inputs for pressure altitude, temperature, weight, wind, and runway slope. If the runway has a 2% upslope, how will this affect the takeoff distance required?

Answer: It will increase the takeoff distance.

Taking off on a runway with an upslope requires the aircraft's engines to overcome both rolling friction and the force of gravity acting against the direction of motion. This results in slower acceleration and a longer ground roll to reach liftoff speed.

What is the primary aerodynamic effect of fowler flaps compared to plain flaps?

Answer: They increase wing area and camber simultaneously

Fowler flaps slide rearward and then deflect, increasing both wing chord area and camber, providing a greater lift increase than plain flaps.

What is the primary purpose of a SIGMET (Significant Meteorological Information)?

Answer: Warnings of hazardous weather significant to all aircraft

SIGMETs warn of weather hazardous to all aircraft, including severe turbulence, icing, dust storms, and volcanic ash.

Which publication contains the legal basis for aeronautical charts and minimum en route altitudes in the United States?

Answer: 14 CFR Part 95

14 CFR Part 95 prescribes IFR altitudes and minimum en route altitudes (MEAs) for airway segments within the US.