PTCB Certified Pharmacy Technician Exam (PTCE) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A nitroglycerin drip runs at 20 mL/hr. The bag is 250 mL of nitroglycerin 50 mg/250 mL. How many mcg/min is the patient receiving?

33 mcg/min
133 mcg/min
67 mcg/min (Correct answer)
100 mcg/min

Correct answer: 67 mcg/min

Concentration = 50 mg ÷ 250 mL = 0.2 mg/mL; 20 mL/hr × 0.2 mg/mL = 4 mg/hr = 4,000 mcg/hr ÷ 60 = 66.7 ≈ 67 mcg/min.

Question 2: What is the purpose of a 'certificate of analysis' (COA) when procuring bulk drug substances for compounding?

It specifies the beyond-use date the pharmacy should assign
It documents identity, purity, potency, and sterility test results for the raw ingredient (Correct answer)
It verifies the supplier's DEA registration
It confirms the drug has FDA market approval

Correct answer: It documents identity, purity, potency, and sterility test results for the raw ingredient

A COA from the manufacturer or third-party lab confirms the active pharmaceutical ingredient meets stated specifications before use in compounding.

Question 3: Electronic prescribing for controlled substances (EPCS) must comply with which federal regulation?

HIPAA Privacy Rule 45 CFR Part 164
FDA 21 CFR Part 211
USP Chapter 800
DEA 21 CFR Part 1311 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: DEA 21 CFR Part 1311

DEA 21 CFR Part 1311 establishes the requirements for the electronic prescribing of controlled substances (EPCS), including identity proofing and two-factor authentication.

Question 4: How often must a Certified Pharmacy Technician renew their certification?

Certification does not expire
Every 5 years
Every year
Every 2 years (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Every 2 years

Certified Pharmacy Technicians must renew their certification every two years to maintain their CPhT status. This regular renewal process, which typically includes completing continuing education hours, ensures that technicians stay current with best practices, new medications, and changes in pharmacy law and regulations, thereby maintaining their competency and professional standing.

Question 5: What does 'PRN' mean on a prescription?

As needed (Correct answer)
At bedtime
Before meals
Twice daily

Correct answer: As needed

PRN comes from Latin 'pro re nata' meaning 'as needed.'

Question 6: When a patient requests that their medication be dispensed in a non-child-resistant container, which of the following is required?

A signed patient request or waiver documented by the pharmacy (Correct answer)
A physician's written order
State health department approval
The prescriber's verbal consent

Correct answer: A signed patient request or waiver documented by the pharmacy

The Poison Prevention Packaging Act allows adults to request non-child-resistant packaging, but the pharmacy must document this patient request.

Question 7: What is the maximum valid period for a Schedule II prescription in most states?

1 year from the date written
90 days from the date written
6 months from the date written (Correct answer)
30 days from the date written

Correct answer: 6 months from the date written

Federal regulations allow Schedule II prescriptions to be filled up to 6 months from the written date, though individual states may impose shorter limits.

Question 8: What does 'DAW' stand for on a prescription?

Dose Adjustment Warning
Dispense As Written (Correct answer)
Daily Allowed Withdrawal
Drug Authorization Waiver

Correct answer: Dispense As Written

DAW (Dispense As Written) indicates the prescriber requires the brand-name drug and no generic substitution is allowed.

Question 9: Which auxiliary label is most appropriate for doxycycline?

Take on an empty stomach only
Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight (Correct answer)
May cause orange discoloration of urine
Store in freezer

Correct answer: Avoid prolonged exposure to sunlight

Doxycycline can cause photosensitivity, making patients prone to sunburn, so an auxiliary label warning of sun exposure is needed.

Question 10: Which organization accredits pharmacy technician training programs under the ASHP/ACPE joint accreditation model?

ACPE (Correct answer)
BOP
PTCB
NABP

Correct answer: ACPE

The Accreditation Council for Pharmacy Education (ACPE) partners with ASHP to accredit pharmacy technician education programs.

Question 11: What does 'PO' mean on a prescription?

By phone order
As prescribed by physician's order
Pharmacy only
By mouth (per os) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: By mouth (per os)

'PO' comes from the Latin 'per os,' meaning by mouth, indicating the oral route of administration.

Question 12: What does 'NKA' mean on a patient profile?

No Known Allergies (Correct answer)
Non-Kidney Administration
New Known Allergen
Not Kept Active

Correct answer: No Known Allergies

NKA stands for 'No Known Allergies,' indicating the patient has no documented drug, food, or environmental allergies on record.

Question 13: What PPE is required for sterile compounding?

Gloves and a surgical mask
Only gloves
Gown, gloves, hair cover, face mask, and shoe covers (Correct answer)
Lab coat and safety glasses only

Correct answer: Gown, gloves, hair cover, face mask, and shoe covers

Sterile compounding requires full PPE including a gown, sterile gloves, hair and beard covers, face mask, and shoe covers to maintain the clean room environment.

Question 14: What does the abbreviation 'SIG' refer to on a prescription?

A patient safety information guide
Directions for use (from the Latin 'signa') (Correct answer)
Strength indication guide
The prescriber's signature

Correct answer: Directions for use (from the Latin 'signa')

'SIG' derives from the Latin 'signa' meaning 'write' or 'label,' and refers to the patient directions that appear on the dispensing label.

Question 15: Which HIPAA-covered transaction requires a pharmacy to maintain patient records for a minimum of 2 years at the federal level?

Compounding batch records
Patient counseling notes
Third-party billing transactions
Prescription dispensing records (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Prescription dispensing records

Federal law requires prescription dispensing records to be kept for a minimum of 2 years, though many states require longer retention.

Question 16: A patient picking up a new nitroglycerin sublingual prescription asks how to store it. Which instruction is correct?

Transfer to a plastic pill organizer for convenience
Store in a shirt pocket close to body warmth
Store in the refrigerator at all times
Keep in the original amber glass bottle away from heat and light (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Keep in the original amber glass bottle away from heat and light

Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets must be kept in the original amber glass container because plastic absorbs the drug and light/heat degrade it.

Question 17: A prescription calls for 1 tsp of a liquid medication TID for 7 days. How many mL should be dispensed?

105 mL (Correct answer)
70 mL
21 mL
35 mL

Correct answer: 105 mL

1 tsp = 5 mL; 5 mL × 3 doses/day × 7 days = 105 mL.

Question 18: What is the first step when preparing sterile compounds in a LAFW?

Put on gloves and start working
Allow the hood to run at least 30 minutes before use and clean the work surface with 70% IPA (Correct answer)
Begin compounding immediately
Check the medication orders

Correct answer: Allow the hood to run at least 30 minutes before use and clean the work surface with 70% IPA

The LAFW must run for at least 30 minutes before use to establish proper airflow, and the work surface must be cleaned with 70% IPA before beginning preparation.

Question 19: A patient filling a bisphosphonate (alendronate) asks how to take it properly. Which instruction is CORRECT?

Take with a full glass of plain water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes (Correct answer)
Take at bedtime for best absorption
Crush the tablet and mix with yogurt if swallowing is difficult
Take with orange juice first thing in the morning

Correct answer: Take with a full glass of plain water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes

Bisphosphonates can cause esophageal irritation; patients must take them with plain water and stay upright to prevent esophageal ulceration.

Question 20: Which organization publishes the Orange Book, which lists FDA-approved drug products and their therapeutic equivalence?

CMS
USP
FDA (Correct answer)
DEA

Correct answer: FDA

The FDA publishes the Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations (Orange Book) to guide generic substitution decisions.

Question 21: A pharmacist counsels a patient on a new anticoagulant. Under medication safety principles, what role does patient education play?

It substitutes for pharmacist verification
It adds a patient-centered safety layer to the dispensing process (Correct answer)
It is the last defense against medication errors
It is required only for Schedule II medications

Correct answer: It adds a patient-centered safety layer to the dispensing process

Patient education empowers patients to recognize errors, understand their medications, and report problems, adding a critical safety layer.

Question 22: Which accrediting body is most commonly associated with hospital pharmacy practice standards in the US?

NABP
PTCB
The Joint Commission (TJC) (Correct answer)
ASHP

Correct answer: The Joint Commission (TJC)

The Joint Commission accredits hospitals and evaluates pharmacy practices as part of its comprehensive healthcare facility standards.

Question 23: What is a pharmacy benefit manager (PBM)?

A government agency that regulates drug pricing
A pharmacy technician supervisor
A third-party administrator that manages prescription drug benefits (Correct answer)
A pharmacist who manages patient medications

Correct answer: A third-party administrator that manages prescription drug benefits

A PBM is a third-party administrator that manages prescription drug benefits on behalf of health insurers, employers, and other payers.

Question 24: What does 'QID' mean on a prescription?

Quantity in dispenser
Twice daily
Every other day
Four times daily (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Four times daily

'QID' comes from the Latin 'quater in die,' meaning four times daily.

Question 25: Which record must a pharmacy maintain for all dispensed Schedule II controlled substances?

A general prescription log only
Only the patient's signature at pickup
DEA Form 222 or CSOS electronic records for ordering and a perpetual inventory log (Correct answer)
Monthly inventory submitted to the state board

Correct answer: DEA Form 222 or CSOS electronic records for ordering and a perpetual inventory log

Schedule II ordering requires DEA Form 222 or CSOS records, and pharmacies must maintain a perpetual inventory for accountability.

Question 26: What is the legal requirement for a pharmacy technician who discovers a dispensing error made by another technician?

Document the error privately and monitor the patient
Immediately report the error to the pharmacist for evaluation (Correct answer)
Correct the error personally without involving the pharmacist
Contact the patient directly to explain the error

Correct answer: Immediately report the error to the pharmacist for evaluation

Any discovered dispensing error must be immediately escalated to the supervising pharmacist, who is legally responsible for evaluating patient safety and required reporting.

Question 27: Which metric does ISMP use to categorize the severity of a medication error?

Harm index scale 1–10
WHO adverse event scale
NCC MERP index categories A–I (Correct answer)
FDA MedWatch severity grades

Correct answer: NCC MERP index categories A–I

ISMP uses the NCC MERP Index for Categorizing Medication Errors, which ranges from Category A (no error) through Category I (death).

Question 28: Tramadol (Ultram) is classified as which DEA schedule?

Schedule II
Schedule III
Schedule V
Schedule IV (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Schedule IV

Tramadol was placed in Schedule IV by the DEA effective August 2014.

Question 29: A pharmacy receives a shipment with damaged packaging on several vials. What is the FIRST action the technician should take?

Dispense the medication if contents appear intact
Quarantine the damaged items and notify the pharmacist (Correct answer)
Document the damage in the patient profile
Return all items to the wholesaler immediately

Correct answer: Quarantine the damaged items and notify the pharmacist

Damaged goods must be quarantined and reviewed by the pharmacist before any dispensing decision is made.

Question 30: Why is ethical behavior critical for a pharmacy technician?

It helps technicians sell more products.
It reduces the need for continuing education.
It ensures compliance with legal and safety standards. (Correct answer)
It allows technicians to diagnose patients.

Correct answer: It ensures compliance with legal and safety standards.

Ethical behavior ensures that pharmacy technicians adhere to legal regulations, professional standards, and patient safety protocols, such as maintaining patient confidentiality (HIPAA). This commitment upholds public trust in the pharmacy profession and prevents medication errors or other actions that could harm patients or compromise the integrity of healthcare.

Question 31: Under HIPAA's minimum necessary standard, what should a pharmacy technician do when accessing patient records?

Print a copy of records before accessing electronically
Access only the information needed to complete the specific task (Correct answer)
Request supervisor approval before accessing any patient record
Access full patient records for all tasks to ensure accuracy

Correct answer: Access only the information needed to complete the specific task

The minimum necessary standard requires workforce members to access only the PHI needed to perform their specific job function.

Question 32: What are standard precautions in healthcare?

Treating all blood and body fluids as potentially infectious (Correct answer)
Only wearing gloves for known infections
Hand washing after patient contact only
Using masks during surgery only

Correct answer: Treating all blood and body fluids as potentially infectious

Standard precautions assume all blood and body fluids are potentially infectious, requiring consistent use of barriers (gloves, gowns, masks) and hand hygiene for all patient interactions.

Question 33: Which of the following is required on a valid prescription?

Prescriber's DEA number only
Patient name, drug name, strength, directions, and prescriber signature (Correct answer)
Drug name and quantity only
Patient name and phone number only

Correct answer: Patient name, drug name, strength, directions, and prescriber signature

A valid prescription must include patient name, drug name and strength, quantity, directions for use, and the prescriber's name and signature.

Question 34: A prescription reads 'Metformin 500mg #60 Sig: 1 tab BID.' What is the days supply?

45 days
30 days (Correct answer)
60 days
15 days

Correct answer: 30 days

BID means twice daily (2 tablets/day); 60 tablets ÷ 2 = 30 days supply.

Question 35: An otic solution is compounded using propylene glycol as the vehicle. Which property of propylene glycol makes it suitable for this route?

It is hygroscopic and helps remove moisture from the ear canal (Correct answer)
It provides isotonicity to prevent osmotic damage
It sterilizes the preparation by denaturing proteins
It raises the pH to match the ear canal

Correct answer: It is hygroscopic and helps remove moisture from the ear canal

Propylene glycol is hygroscopic, drawing moisture away from the ear canal environment, which is beneficial in treating conditions such as swimmer's ear.

Question 36: Which federal agency regulates nuclear pharmacies that distribute radiopharmaceuticals across state lines?

NRC (Nuclear Regulatory Commission) (Correct answer)
CMS
DEA
FDA

Correct answer: NRC (Nuclear Regulatory Commission)

The Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) oversees the use and distribution of radioactive materials, including radiopharmaceuticals prepared in nuclear pharmacies.

Question 37: A patient requests their prescription records from the pharmacy. Under HIPAA, within how many days must the pharmacy respond?

90 days
60 days
10 days
30 days (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 30 days

HIPAA requires covered entities to provide requested health records within 30 days, with a possible 30-day extension if needed.

Question 38: Furosemide (Lasix) belongs to which diuretic class?

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
Loop diuretics (Correct answer)
Potassium-sparing diuretics
Thiazide diuretics

Correct answer: Loop diuretics

Furosemide is a loop diuretic that inhibits the Na-K-2Cl cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle.

Question 39: Which DEA schedule includes drugs with accepted medical use but the highest potential for abuse among scheduled drugs with accepted use?

Schedule II (Correct answer)
Schedule I
Schedule IV
Schedule III

Correct answer: Schedule II

Schedule II drugs have accepted medical use but the highest abuse potential among regulated pharmaceuticals (e.g., oxycodone, amphetamines).

Question 40: What does 'PRN' mean on a prescription?

Prior to next refill
Per registered nurse
Per routine notes
As needed (Correct answer)

Correct answer: As needed

'PRN' comes from the Latin 'pro re nata,' meaning 'as needed' or 'as the situation demands,' indicating the patient takes the medication only when required.

Question 41: What does 'QID' mean in prescription abbreviations?

Every other day
Twice a day
Once a day
Four times a day (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Four times a day

QID stands for 'quater in die' (Latin), meaning four times a day.

Question 42: Which DEA schedule includes drugs with high abuse potential and no currently accepted medical use in the US?

Schedule IV
Schedule II
Schedule I (Correct answer)
Schedule III

Correct answer: Schedule I

Schedule I substances (e.g., heroin, LSD) have high abuse potential and no accepted medical use, making them illegal for standard prescribing.

Question 43: When a non-controlled prescription is transferred between pharmacies, what must happen?

The original pharmacy must notify the DEA
The patient must obtain a new prescription from the prescriber
The pharmacists communicate the prescription data and the original pharmacy marks it as transferred with remaining refills noted (Correct answer)
The transfer must be completed within 24 hours or the prescription is void

Correct answer: The pharmacists communicate the prescription data and the original pharmacy marks it as transferred with remaining refills noted

A non-controlled prescription transfer requires pharmacist-to-pharmacist communication of all prescription data, and the originating pharmacy must mark the prescription as transferred with remaining refills documented.

Question 44: ExCPT certification is awarded by which organization?

ACPE
NHA (Correct answer)
PTCB
ASHP

Correct answer: NHA

The National Healthcareer Association (NHA) administers the ExCPT exam and awards certification to qualifying pharmacy technicians.

Question 45: For Schedule II controlled substances, prescriptions are typically valid for how long after the date written?

30 days (Correct answer)
12 months
90 days
6 months

Correct answer: 30 days

Schedule II prescriptions are valid for 30 days from the date written in most states due to their high abuse potential and strict DEA regulations.

Question 46: Which act created the National Drug Code (NDC) numbering system for all commercially distributed drugs?

Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951
Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962
Drug Listing Act of 1972 (Correct answer)
Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906

Correct answer: Drug Listing Act of 1972

The Drug Listing Act of 1972 required all commercially distributed drug products to register with the FDA using a unique National Drug Code.

Question 47: What does 'BID' mean on a prescription?

By intramuscular delivery
Twice daily (Correct answer)
Before individual doses
Before increasing dose

Correct answer: Twice daily

'BID' comes from the Latin 'bis in die,' meaning twice daily.

Question 48: A pharmacy technician notices a prescription lacks the prescriber's DEA number for a Schedule II drug. What is the correct action?

Fill the prescription and note the missing DEA number in the log
Ask the pharmacist to verify and obtain the DEA number before dispensing (Correct answer)
Refuse the prescription without consulting the pharmacist
Dispense the medication and request the DEA number later

Correct answer: Ask the pharmacist to verify and obtain the DEA number before dispensing

A missing DEA number on a controlled substance prescription is a legal deficiency; the pharmacist must verify and obtain this information before dispensing.

Question 49: What is a drug contraindication?

A condition that makes a particular treatment inadvisable (Correct answer)
A drug recommendation
A positive drug interaction
A dosage calculation

Correct answer: A condition that makes a particular treatment inadvisable

A contraindication is a specific situation where a drug should not be used because it may be harmful to the patient.

Question 50: ASHP's Model Curriculum for pharmacy technician programs emphasizes competency in which of the following domains?

Pharmacokinetic dosing and therapeutic monitoring
Foundational knowledge, skills, and professional behaviors (Correct answer)
Clinical diagnosis and patient care planning
Electronic health record system administration

Correct answer: Foundational knowledge, skills, and professional behaviors

ASHP's Model Curriculum organizes competency around foundational knowledge, technical skills, and professional behaviors appropriate for technicians.

Question 51: How many refills may be authorized on a Schedule V prescription within 6 months?

Unlimited refills within 6 months
Up to 12 refills within 12 months
Up to 5 refills within 6 months (Correct answer)
No refills allowed

Correct answer: Up to 5 refills within 6 months

Schedule V substances may be refilled up to 5 times within 6 months of the original prescription date, matching the rules for Schedule III and IV drugs.

Question 52: A pharmacy technician role in a pharmacy benefit management (PBM) company would most involve which activity?

Compounding specialized formulations
Processing prior authorizations and adjudicating insurance claims (Correct answer)
Physically preparing and dispensing medications
Counseling patients on drug interactions

Correct answer: Processing prior authorizations and adjudicating insurance claims

PBM technicians review and process drug coverage claims, prior authorizations, and formulary exceptions rather than dispensing medications.

Question 53: Which law prohibits re-importation of prescription drugs into the US except under specific FDA-approved circumstances?

Drug Price Competition Act
Federal Food Drug and Cosmetic Act
Prescription Drug Marketing Act (PDMA) (Correct answer)
Safe Medical Devices Act

Correct answer: Prescription Drug Marketing Act (PDMA)

The PDMA of 1987 restricts re-importation of US-manufactured drugs, with limited exceptions for manufacturers and FDA-authorized cases.

Question 54: Schedule III and IV prescriptions are valid for refills for how long from the date written?

6 months (Correct answer)
90 days
12 months
30 days

Correct answer: 6 months

Schedule III and IV prescriptions expire 6 months from the date written and may be refilled up to 5 times within that period.

Question 55: If a prescription reads 'Take 1 tablet TID × 10 days,' how many tablets should be dispensed?

20 tablets
10 tablets
15 tablets
30 tablets (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 30 tablets

TID means three times daily; 3 tablets/day × 10 days = 30 tablets total.

Question 56: Which information is required on a prescription dispensing label per federal law?

Patient insurance ID and copay amount
Drug manufacturer name and lot number
Patient name, pharmacy name/address, drug name and strength, directions, prescriber name, and date dispensed (Correct answer)
Prescriber's phone number and DEA number

Correct answer: Patient name, pharmacy name/address, drug name and strength, directions, prescriber name, and date dispensed

Federal law requires dispensing labels to include patient name, pharmacy name and address, drug name and strength, quantity, directions, prescriber name, and the date dispensed.

Question 57: The PTCB Knowledge Assessment for Pharmacy Technicians (KAPE) is used primarily for:

Evaluating the effectiveness of technician training programs (Correct answer)
Initial certification of new pharmacy technicians
Recertification of practicing CPhTs
DEA controlled substance registration

Correct answer: Evaluating the effectiveness of technician training programs

KAPE is a post-training assessment tool designed to help programs evaluate how well their curriculum prepared technician graduates.

Question 58: A patient states they cannot afford their brand-name medication. The pharmacy technician's FIRST step should be to:

Inform the pharmacist and ask about generic alternatives or assistance programs (Correct answer)
Suggest the patient buy the medication online from a foreign website
Advise the patient to stop taking the medication
Tell the patient to skip doses to make the medication last longer

Correct answer: Inform the pharmacist and ask about generic alternatives or assistance programs

The technician should involve the pharmacist and explore generics or manufacturer assistance programs as appropriate next steps.

Question 59: A patient is prescribed metformin 1 g twice daily. The tablets available are 500 mg each. How many tablets per day?

1 tablet
2 tablets
4 tablets (Correct answer)
3 tablets

Correct answer: 4 tablets

1 g = 1,000 mg; each dose = 1,000 mg ÷ 500 mg = 2 tablets; twice daily = 4 tablets/day.

Question 60: What does the NDC number on a prescription label identify?

The pharmacy's state license number
The patient's insurance claim number
The prescriber's national ID number
A specific drug product including manufacturer, product, and package size (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A specific drug product including manufacturer, product, and package size

The National Drug Code (NDC) is a unique 10–11 digit identifier assigned by the FDA that specifies the drug manufacturer, product, and package size.

Question 61: Which federal regulation governs the safe disposal of controlled substances by patients at authorized collection sites?

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
Hazardous Materials Transportation Act
Safe Drinking Water Act
DEA Drug Disposal Regulations (21 CFR 1317) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: DEA Drug Disposal Regulations (21 CFR 1317)

21 CFR Part 1317 establishes the DEA's rules for ultimate users and registrants to dispose of controlled substances through authorized collection methods.

Question 62: Why did the ISMP recommend replacing the abbreviation 'QD' with 'once daily' in prescription writing?

'QD' was a brand name abbreviation
'QD' could be misread as 'QID' (four times daily), causing dangerous dosing errors (Correct answer)
'QD' conflicts with DEA scheduling codes
'QD' is difficult to type in electronic systems

Correct answer: 'QD' could be misread as 'QID' (four times daily), causing dangerous dosing errors

The ISMP identified 'QD' as a dangerous abbreviation because it can be misread as 'QID' (four times daily) or 'OD' (right eye), so writing 'once daily' eliminates ambiguity.

Question 63: A pharmacy dispenses a non-controlled prescription with 3 refills. How long does the patient have to use those refills under most state and federal guidelines?

1 year from the original date (Correct answer)
6 months from the original date
Until the refills are exhausted
2 years from the original date

Correct answer: 1 year from the original date

Non-controlled prescriptions and their refills are generally valid for 1 year from the date originally written, though individual state laws vary.

Question 64: Which of the following is a key reason pharmacy technicians verify a patient's date of birth when processing a prescription?

To confirm the correct patient is receiving the medication (Correct answer)
To verify the prescriber's license
To determine insurance eligibility
To calculate the days supply

Correct answer: To confirm the correct patient is receiving the medication

Verifying a patient's date of birth confirms identity and ensures the prescription is being dispensed to the correct individual, preventing medication errors.

Question 65: What does a mail-order pharmacy typically offer compared to retail pharmacy?

90-day supplies at reduced cost for maintenance medications (Correct answer)
More personalized patient counseling
Faster same-day dispensing
Greater access to compounded medications

Correct answer: 90-day supplies at reduced cost for maintenance medications

Mail-order pharmacies typically offer 90-day supplies of maintenance medications at a lower cost compared to retail pharmacies filling 30-day supplies.

Question 66: A pharmacy technician working in a nuclear pharmacy primarily handles which type of medications?

Radioactive isotopes used for imaging and therapy (Correct answer)
High-alert chemotherapy agents
Controlled substances for pain management
Parenteral nutrition formulations

Correct answer: Radioactive isotopes used for imaging and therapy

Nuclear pharmacy technicians specialize in preparing and dispensing radiopharmaceuticals used for diagnostic imaging and therapeutic treatments.

Question 67: What is a drug contraindication?

A dosage calculation
A condition that makes a particular treatment inadvisable (Correct answer)
A positive drug interaction
A drug recommendation

Correct answer: A condition that makes a particular treatment inadvisable

A contraindication is a specific situation where a drug should not be used because it may be harmful to the patient.

Question 68: How many mcg of fentanyl are in a 2.5 mL dose if the concentration is 50 mcg/mL?

125 mcg (Correct answer)
75 mcg
25 mcg
100 mcg

Correct answer: 125 mcg

50 mcg/mL × 2.5 mL = 125 mcg.

Question 69: A pharmacy technician in an ambulatory care clinic setting would most likely support which pharmacy model?

Outpatient chronic disease management with clinical pharmacist oversight (Correct answer)
Physician office dispensing of samples only
Centralized sterile IV preparation for ICU patients
Inpatient unit-dose distribution

Correct answer: Outpatient chronic disease management with clinical pharmacist oversight

Ambulatory care pharmacies are outpatient-focused and support patients managing chronic conditions with the help of clinical pharmacists.

Question 70: A pharmacy wants to destroy outdated controlled substances. Which DEA form is used to document the on-site destruction?

DEA Form 224
DEA Form 41 (Correct answer)
DEA Form 222
DEA Form 106

Correct answer: DEA Form 41

DEA Form 41 (Registrant Record of Controlled Substances Destroyed) is used to document the destruction of controlled substances.

Question 71: What information is REQUIRED on a prescription label under federal law?

The name and address of the dispensing pharmacy (Correct answer)
The patient's insurance ID number
The manufacturer's lot number
The prescriber's DEA number

Correct answer: The name and address of the dispensing pharmacy

Federal law mandates that the dispensing pharmacy's name and address appear on every prescription label.

Question 72: What is the purpose of a HEPA filter in a laminar airflow hood?

To remove 99.97% of particles ≥0.3 microns from the air to create a sterile environment (Correct answer)
To humidify the air for sensitive medications
To automatically test air quality
To cool the air inside the hood

Correct answer: To remove 99.97% of particles ≥0.3 microns from the air to create a sterile environment

HEPA filters remove 99.97% of airborne particles ≥0.3 microns, creating the ISO 5 clean air environment required for sterile compounding.

Question 73: Which reference resource would a pharmacy technician use to verify whether two drugs are compatible in the same IV bag?

Facts & Comparisons
PDR (Physician's Desk Reference)
Trissel's Handbook on Injectable Drugs (Correct answer)
Micromedex Drug Interactions

Correct answer: Trissel's Handbook on Injectable Drugs

Trissel's Handbook on Injectable Drugs is the standard reference for IV drug compatibility and stability information.

Question 74: Which act established the requirement that pharmacists offer counseling to Medicaid patients receiving new prescriptions?

Kefauver-Harris Amendment
OBRA-90 (Correct answer)
Durham-Humphrey Amendment
Poison Prevention Packaging Act

Correct answer: OBRA-90

OBRA-90 (Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1990) mandated prospective drug utilization review and patient counseling offers for Medicaid patients.

Question 75: What does 'STAT' mean on a prescription or medication order?

Immediately (Correct answer)
Substitute tablet after trial
Standard treatment and therapy
Short-term administration time

Correct answer: Immediately

'STAT' comes from the Latin 'statim,' meaning immediately, and indicates the medication must be dispensed and administered without delay.

Question 76: When performing an independent double-check, what is the correct procedure?

The second checker verifies independently without seeing the first checker's result (Correct answer)
Both checkers review together at the same time
The original dispenser re-checks their own work
The pharmacist checks after the technician confirms

Correct answer: The second checker verifies independently without seeing the first checker's result

An effective independent double-check requires the second person to perform the check without seeing the first checker's result to avoid confirmation bias.

Question 77: A child receives an adult dose of acetaminophen due to a weight-based calculation error. Which pediatric safety guideline would have helped prevent this?

Requiring a brand-name drug only
Dispensing only unit-dose packaging
Using mg/kg dosing with weight verification (Correct answer)
Using tall man lettering

Correct answer: Using mg/kg dosing with weight verification

Pediatric dosing should always be calculated using mg/kg with verified patient weight to prevent under- or overdosing.

Question 78: A pharmacy technician working in a hospital setting is responsible for filling automated dispensing cabinet (ADC) stock. An ADC override is used when:

A clinician needs urgent patient-specific medication before a pharmacist verifies the order (Correct answer)
A medication requires compounding
A medication is out of stock in the central pharmacy
A technician wants to bypass the standard workflow

Correct answer: A clinician needs urgent patient-specific medication before a pharmacist verifies the order

ADC overrides allow nurses to access urgent medications before pharmacist order verification in time-critical clinical situations.

Question 79: Under HIPAA, which of the following is considered protected health information (PHI)?

Aggregate prescription trend reports
Patient name combined with diagnosis (Correct answer)
De-identified statistical health data
Anonymous patient survey responses

Correct answer: Patient name combined with diagnosis

PHI is any individually identifiable health information, including a patient name combined with medical or prescription information.

Question 80: A pharmacy's turnover rate for a product is very low. What does this MOST likely indicate?

The product has a short expiration date
The product is on the formulary preferred list
The product is overstocked or has low demand (Correct answer)
The product is frequently backordered

Correct answer: The product is overstocked or has low demand

Low turnover means the product sits on the shelf longer, suggesting it is overstocked relative to demand.

Question 81: A Schedule II prescription written by a DEA-registered prescriber in another state is:

Valid only if the prescriber holds a license in the dispensing state
Invalid and cannot be filled under any circumstances
Valid only for a 30-day emergency supply
Valid and can be filled if it meets federal and the dispensing state's requirements (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Valid and can be filled if it meets federal and the dispensing state's requirements

A valid CII prescription from an out-of-state DEA registrant may be filled if it complies with federal law and the laws of the state where it is being dispensed.

Question 82: A patient is given an auto-injector (EpiPen) for anaphylaxis. Who is responsible for training the patient on correct injection technique?

The pharmacy technician
The pharmacist (Correct answer)
The insurance representative
The pharmacy billing specialist

Correct answer: The pharmacist

Training patients on injection devices is a clinical counseling task that is the pharmacist's responsibility.

Question 83: A pharmacy technician is processing a refill request for a Schedule II controlled substance. The technician should know that Schedule II medications:

Can be refilled once with prescriber authorization
Cannot be refilled; a new prescription is required each time (Correct answer)
Have no refill restrictions under federal law
Can be refilled up to 5 times within 6 months

Correct answer: Cannot be refilled; a new prescription is required each time

Schedule II controlled substances have no authorized refills; each dispensing requires a valid new prescription.

Question 84: When compounding a suppository base, cocoa butter is classified as what type of base?

Fatty (oleaginous) base (Correct answer)
Hydrophilic base
Water-soluble base
Emulsifying base

Correct answer: Fatty (oleaginous) base

Cocoa butter is a classic fatty (oleaginous) suppository base that melts at body temperature.

Question 85: When processing a refill request, a technician notices the original prescription was written for a 30-day supply but the patient is requesting a refill only 15 days after the last fill. What is the MOST appropriate action?

Contact the prescriber for a new prescription
Check the refill date and alert the pharmacist if it's too early (Correct answer)
Deny the refill and tell the patient to call back
Fill it immediately since it's a refill

Correct answer: Check the refill date and alert the pharmacist if it's too early

Technicians must verify refill eligibility dates and bring early refill requests to the pharmacist's attention.

Question 86: Under the Ryan Haight Online Pharmacy Consumer Protection Act, a prescriber must have conducted at least how many in-person evaluations before prescribing a controlled substance via telemedicine?

At least two
None, as long as the prescription is valid
At least one (Correct answer)
At least three

Correct answer: At least one

The Ryan Haight Act generally requires at least one prior in-person medical evaluation before a controlled substance can be prescribed via the internet, with limited exceptions.

Question 87: Which of the following best describes 'shrinkage' in pharmacy inventory?

Reduction in tablet size due to manufacturing changes
Reduction in order frequency from the wholesaler
Loss of inventory due to theft, error, or spoilage not accounted for by sales (Correct answer)
Decrease in a medication's potency over time

Correct answer: Loss of inventory due to theft, error, or spoilage not accounted for by sales

Shrinkage refers to inventory losses that cannot be attributed to legitimate sales, including theft, dispensing errors, and spoilage.

Question 88: Which federal agency regulates controlled substances dispensed in a pharmacy?

DEA (Correct answer)
CDC
FDA
CMS

Correct answer: DEA

The Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) regulates the handling, dispensing, and record-keeping of controlled substances.

Question 89: How long must a pharmacy retain records for Schedule II controlled substances under federal law?

7 years
2 years (Correct answer)
1 year
5 years

Correct answer: 2 years

Federal DEA regulations require pharmacies to retain Schedule II controlled substance records for a minimum of 2 years.

Question 90: Telepharmacy allows pharmacy technicians to work under remote pharmacist supervision primarily to serve which population?

Urban hospital patients with complex needs
Mail-order customers who prefer online consultations
Patients in rural or underserved areas lacking local pharmacy access (Correct answer)
Specialty drug patients requiring clinical monitoring

Correct answer: Patients in rural or underserved areas lacking local pharmacy access

Telepharmacy extends pharmacy services to rural and underserved communities where a full-time on-site pharmacist may not be feasible.

PTCB Certified Pharmacy Technician Exam (PTCE)

The PTCE is the national certification exam administered by the Pharmacy Technician Certification Board (PTCB), testing pharmacy technicians across four domains: Medications, Federal Requirements, Patient Safety and Quality Assurance, and Order Entry and Processing. The 2026 blueprint (v1.4, effective January 6, 2026) adds DSCSA content and rebalances domain weights.

Questions

110 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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