PTCB Certified Pharmacy Technician Exam (PTCE) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: What is the purpose of the 'Five Rights' in medication administration?

To prevent medication errors: right patient, drug, dose, route, time (Correct answer)
To organize inventory
To determine pricing
To classify medications

Correct answer: To prevent medication errors: right patient, drug, dose, route, time

The Five Rights serve as a safety checklist to prevent medication errors during every administration.

Question 2: Which of the following best describes the technician's role in a pharmacy's quality assurance (QA) program?

Technicians independently audit the pharmacist's dispensing accuracy
Technicians participate by reporting errors, near-misses, and process issues to support continuous improvement (Correct answer)
Technicians are solely responsible for patient satisfaction surveys
Technicians are excluded from QA activities

Correct answer: Technicians participate by reporting errors, near-misses, and process issues to support continuous improvement

Pharmacy technicians are integral QA contributors by identifying and reporting errors and near-misses to help prevent future dispensing mistakes.

Question 3: Which of the following is a key reason pharmacy technicians verify a patient's date of birth when processing a prescription?

To calculate the days supply
To verify the prescriber's license
To confirm the correct patient is receiving the medication (Correct answer)
To determine insurance eligibility

Correct answer: To confirm the correct patient is receiving the medication

Verifying a patient's date of birth confirms identity and ensures the prescription is being dispensed to the correct individual, preventing medication errors.

Question 4: Amphotericin B for injection must NOT be reconstituted with normal saline because:

The osmolarity becomes too high for IV administration
Electrolytes cause the colloidal dispersion to precipitate (Correct answer)
Saline raises the pH beyond stability limits
Saline accelerates oxidation of the drug

Correct answer: Electrolytes cause the colloidal dispersion to precipitate

Amphotericin B forms a colloidal dispersion that precipitates in the presence of electrolytes like sodium chloride.

Question 5: How long must a pharmacy retain records for Schedule II controlled substances under federal law?

5 years
7 years
1 year
2 years (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 2 years

Federal DEA regulations require pharmacies to retain Schedule II controlled substance records for a minimum of 2 years.

Question 6: Which look-alike drug pair is on ISMP's list of commonly confused drug names?

Lisinopril and losartan
Atorvastatin and rosuvastatin
Metformin and metronidazole
Hydroxyzine and hydralazine (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hydroxyzine and hydralazine

Hydroxyzine (antihistamine/anxiolytic) and hydralazine (antihypertensive) are an ISMP-identified LASA pair with different indications and risks.

Question 7: What is the difference between generic and brand-name drugs?

Generic drugs are less effective
Generic drugs have the same active ingredient but different name and typically lower cost (Correct answer)
There is no difference
Brand names are always better

Correct answer: Generic drugs have the same active ingredient but different name and typically lower cost

Generic drugs contain the same active ingredients, dosage, and route as brand-name drugs but are marketed under their chemical name at lower cost after patent expiration.

Question 8: What does PPE stand for?

Pre-Planning Exercise
Professional Performance Evaluation
Post-Production Equipment
Personal Protective Equipment (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Personal Protective Equipment

PPE refers to equipment worn to minimize exposure to hazards, including helmets, gloves, eye protection, and safety boots.

Question 9: Which career path would allow a CPhT to specialize in educating patients about diabetes medications and devices?

Nuclear pharmacy technician
Certified Diabetes Educator (CDE) with pharmacy background (Correct answer)
Sterile compounding technician
Pharmacy informaticist

Correct answer: Certified Diabetes Educator (CDE) with pharmacy background

A pharmacy technician can pursue additional certification as a Certified Diabetes Educator to focus on patient education regarding diabetes management.

Question 10: Which of the following is required on a valid prescription?

Patient name and phone number only
Prescriber's DEA number only
Patient name, drug name, strength, directions, and prescriber signature (Correct answer)
Drug name and quantity only

Correct answer: Patient name, drug name, strength, directions, and prescriber signature

A valid prescription must include patient name, drug name and strength, quantity, directions for use, and the prescriber's name and signature.

Question 11: What does the NDC number on a prescription label identify?

The prescriber's national ID number
The pharmacy's state license number
A specific drug product including manufacturer, product, and package size (Correct answer)
The patient's insurance claim number

Correct answer: A specific drug product including manufacturer, product, and package size

The National Drug Code (NDC) is a unique 10–11 digit identifier assigned by the FDA that specifies the drug manufacturer, product, and package size.

Question 12: What is the minimum number of hours typically required for an ASHP-accredited pharmacy technician program's structured externship?

80 hours
120 hours
200 hours
160 hours (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 160 hours

ASHP-accredited programs require a minimum of 160 hours of structured externship/practice experience.

Question 13: What is a unit dose dispensing system?

Packaging each individual dose separately for single administration (Correct answer)
Dispensing medications in large bulk containers
Distributing a one-month supply at a time
Counting tablets by the unit per prescription

Correct answer: Packaging each individual dose separately for single administration

A unit dose system packages each individual dose separately, reducing medication errors and streamlining administration, most commonly used in hospital settings.

Question 14: What distinguishes a compounding pharmacy from a standard retail pharmacy?

It customizes drug formulations to meet individual patient needs not available commercially (Correct answer)
It dispenses only FDA-approved commercially manufactured products
It focuses exclusively on controlled substance dispensing
It operates only within hospital systems

Correct answer: It customizes drug formulations to meet individual patient needs not available commercially

Compounding pharmacies create customized medications — such as altered doses, forms, or combinations — for patients with specific medical needs.

Question 15: If a prescription reads 'Take 1 tablet TID × 10 days,' how many tablets should be dispensed?

10 tablets
15 tablets
30 tablets (Correct answer)
20 tablets

Correct answer: 30 tablets

TID means three times daily; 3 tablets/day × 10 days = 30 tablets total.

Question 16: Under the Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA), which product is exempt from child-resistant packaging requirements?

Oral contraceptives in manufacturer dispensers
Aspirin tablets
Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets (Correct answer)
Iron supplement capsules

Correct answer: Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets

Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets are specifically exempt from child-resistant packaging under PPPA due to the need for rapid emergency access.

Question 17: A compound requires 1:500 dilution of epinephrine. If the final volume is 1,000 mL, how many mL of concentrate are needed?

2 mL (Correct answer)
5 mL
0.5 mL
0.2 mL

Correct answer: 2 mL

1:500 means 1 mL per 500 mL; 1,000 mL ÷ 500 = 2 mL of concentrate.

Question 18: A patient is picking up a prescription for venlafaxine. This medication belongs to which antidepressant class?

MAOI
SNRI (Correct answer)
Tricyclic antidepressant
SSRI

Correct answer: SNRI

Venlafaxine is a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) that blocks reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine.

Question 19: A technician is compounding a preparation that calls for 'qs ad 120 mL.' The preparation already contains 85 mL of liquid ingredients. How much solvent should be added?

205 mL
85 mL
120 mL
35 mL (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 35 mL

'Qs ad 120 mL' means add sufficient quantity of solvent to make the total volume 120 mL; 120 − 85 = 35 mL.

Question 20: What is the most effective way to prevent healthcare-associated infections?

Proper hand hygiene (Correct answer)
Taking antibiotics
Cleaning the floor
Wearing gloves at all times

Correct answer: Proper hand hygiene

Hand hygiene (washing with soap and water or using alcohol-based hand rub) is the single most effective measure for preventing the spread of infections in healthcare settings.

Question 21: Which record must a pharmacy maintain for all dispensed Schedule II controlled substances?

Monthly inventory submitted to the state board
DEA Form 222 or CSOS electronic records for ordering and a perpetual inventory log (Correct answer)
A general prescription log only
Only the patient's signature at pickup

Correct answer: DEA Form 222 or CSOS electronic records for ordering and a perpetual inventory log

Schedule II ordering requires DEA Form 222 or CSOS records, and pharmacies must maintain a perpetual inventory for accountability.

Question 22: When a prescriber writes 'brand necessary' or 'dispense as written' on a prescription, what must the pharmacy do?

Dispense the generic equivalent
Contact the prescriber to confirm
Dispense only the brand-name drug (Correct answer)
Dispense whichever is cheaper

Correct answer: Dispense only the brand-name drug

A 'dispense as written' instruction legally requires the pharmacy to dispense the brand-name product without substituting a generic.

Question 23: An automated dispensing cabinet (ADC) discrepancy involving a Schedule II drug must be resolved within:

72 hours
24 hours per most state and facility policies (Correct answer)
30 days
7 days

Correct answer: 24 hours per most state and facility policies

Most state regulations and institutional policies require CII discrepancies in ADCs to be investigated and resolved within 24 hours to prevent diversion.

Question 24: What type of continuing education is required for recertification?

General business management training.
Any courses related to healthcare.
Advanced medical degree programs.
Courses focused on pharmacy-related topics, including law and patient safety. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Courses focused on pharmacy-related topics, including law and patient safety.

For recertification, pharmacy technicians are required to complete continuing education (CE) hours that are specifically relevant to pharmacy practice. These courses must cover topics such as pharmacy law, patient safety, and other clinical or operational aspects of pharmacy. This ensures ongoing competency and keeps technicians updated on the latest developments and regulations in the field.

Question 25: What does 'QID' mean in prescription abbreviations?

Twice a day
Four times a day (Correct answer)
Once a day
Every other day

Correct answer: Four times a day

QID stands for 'quater in die' (Latin), meaning four times a day.

Question 26: Which organization publishes the Orange Book, which lists FDA-approved drug products and their therapeutic equivalence?

FDA (Correct answer)
DEA
USP
CMS

Correct answer: FDA

The FDA publishes the Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations (Orange Book) to guide generic substitution decisions.

Question 27: What is the primary reason a pharmacy must perform a risk assessment before compounding a preparation that is commercially available?

To justify that the compounded preparation meets a specific patient need not met by the commercial product (Correct answer)
To determine the correct BUD
To establish the compounding fee
To choose between USP <795> and USP <797>

Correct answer: To justify that the compounded preparation meets a specific patient need not met by the commercial product

Federal and state regulations require documented justification showing a patient-specific need that the commercial product cannot fulfill.

Question 28: What does 'DAW' stand for on a prescription?

Drug Approval Waiver
Drug Administration Warning
Dispense As Written (Correct answer)
Do Allow Waiver

Correct answer: Dispense As Written

DAW stands for 'Dispense As Written,' indicating the prescriber wants the brand-name drug dispensed rather than a generic substitute.

Question 29: Which DEA form is used to report the theft or significant loss of controlled substances?

DEA Form 106 (Correct answer)
DEA Form 41
DEA Form 363
DEA Form 222

Correct answer: DEA Form 106

DEA Form 106 (Report of Theft or Significant Loss of Controlled Substances) must be submitted to the DEA when controlled substances are stolen or significantly lost.

PTCB Certified Pharmacy Technician Exam (PTCE)

The PTCE is the national certification exam administered by the Pharmacy Technician Certification Board (PTCB), testing pharmacy technicians across four domains: Medications, Federal Requirements, Patient Safety and Quality Assurance, and Order Entry and Processing. The 2026 blueprint (v1.4, effective January 6, 2026) adds DSCSA content and rebalances domain weights.

Questions

35 min

Time Limit

70%

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