PTCB Certified Pharmacy Technician Exam (PTCE) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: What does PPE stand for?

Pre-Planning Exercise
Professional Performance Evaluation
Personal Protective Equipment (Correct answer)
Post-Production Equipment

Correct answer: Personal Protective Equipment

PPE refers to equipment worn to minimize exposure to hazards, including helmets, gloves, eye protection, and safety boots.

Question 2: An order reads: Morphine 2 mg IV q4h PRN pain. The vial contains 10 mg/mL. How many mL per dose?

2 mL
0.5 mL
0.1 mL
0.2 mL (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 0.2 mL

2 mg ÷ 10 mg/mL = 0.2 mL per dose.

Question 3: ExCPT certification is awarded by which organization?

NHA (Correct answer)
ACPE
PTCB
ASHP

Correct answer: NHA

The National Healthcareer Association (NHA) administers the ExCPT exam and awards certification to qualifying pharmacy technicians.

Question 4: Fluoxetine (Prozac) belongs to which antidepressant drug class?

Tricyclic antidepressants
SNRIs
SSRIs (Correct answer)
MAOIs

Correct answer: SSRIs

Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) that increases serotonin availability in the brain.

Question 5: What is a drug contraindication?

A positive drug interaction
A condition that makes a particular treatment inadvisable (Correct answer)
A dosage calculation
A drug recommendation

Correct answer: A condition that makes a particular treatment inadvisable

A contraindication is a specific situation where a drug should not be used because it may be harmful to the patient.

Question 6: A pharmacy technician's CPhT certification has lapsed. What must they do before using the CPhT credential again?

Complete the PTCB reinstatement process and meet CE requirements (Correct answer)
Complete an ASHP-accredited program
Apply to the state board for a new license
Retake the PTCE exam

Correct answer: Complete the PTCB reinstatement process and meet CE requirements

PTCB requires lapsed certificants to complete a reinstatement process, which includes meeting continuing education requirements.

Question 7: A prescription reads 'Metformin 500mg #60 Sig: 1 tab BID.' What is the days supply?

45 days
15 days
60 days
30 days (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 30 days

BID means twice daily (2 tablets/day); 60 tablets ÷ 2 = 30 days supply.

Question 8: Under the Poison Prevention Packaging Act (PPPA), which product is exempt from child-resistant packaging requirements?

Aspirin tablets
Iron supplement capsules
Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets (Correct answer)
Oral contraceptives in manufacturer dispensers

Correct answer: Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets

Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets are specifically exempt from child-resistant packaging under PPPA due to the need for rapid emergency access.

Question 9: Which inventory control method sets a fixed quantity to reorder each time stock reaches a predetermined level?

Fixed-quantity reorder system (Correct answer)
Periodic order system
ABC analysis method
Just-in-time system

Correct answer: Fixed-quantity reorder system

The fixed-quantity reorder system triggers an order of the same amount whenever inventory falls to the reorder point.

Question 10: A pharmacy technician notices a patient has been on a high-dose opioid for 90 days without a dose review. Which action is most appropriate?

Dispense the refill as usual
Alert the pharmacist to review the patient's therapy (Correct answer)
Reduce the dose before dispensing
Contact the patient's insurance company

Correct answer: Alert the pharmacist to review the patient's therapy

The technician should alert the pharmacist, who can review appropriateness and contact the prescriber if a dose reassessment is warranted.

Question 11: Which of the following is required on a valid prescription?

Prescriber's DEA number only
Drug name and quantity only
Patient name, drug name, strength, directions, and prescriber signature (Correct answer)
Patient name and phone number only

Correct answer: Patient name, drug name, strength, directions, and prescriber signature

A valid prescription must include patient name, drug name and strength, quantity, directions for use, and the prescriber's name and signature.

Question 12: A CPhT working in a mail-order pharmacy would most often focus on which task?

Processing high-volume prescription refills for chronic conditions (Correct answer)
Compounding sterile IV preparations
Managing unit-dose carts for inpatients
Counseling patients on new medications

Correct answer: Processing high-volume prescription refills for chronic conditions

Mail-order pharmacies specialize in high-volume dispensing of maintenance medications for chronic conditions, often with automated filling systems.

Question 13: What does 'PRN' mean on a prescription?

At bedtime
As needed (Correct answer)
Before meals
Twice daily

Correct answer: As needed

PRN comes from Latin 'pro re nata' meaning 'as needed.'

Question 14: How long must a pharmacy retain records for Schedule II controlled substances under federal law?

1 year
2 years (Correct answer)
5 years
7 years

Correct answer: 2 years

Federal DEA regulations require pharmacies to retain Schedule II controlled substance records for a minimum of 2 years.

Question 15: Which of the following is a key reason pharmacy technicians verify a patient's date of birth when processing a prescription?

To determine insurance eligibility
To calculate the days supply
To confirm the correct patient is receiving the medication (Correct answer)
To verify the prescriber's license

Correct answer: To confirm the correct patient is receiving the medication

Verifying a patient's date of birth confirms identity and ensures the prescription is being dispensed to the correct individual, preventing medication errors.

Question 16: What does 'BID' mean on a prescription?

Before individual doses
Before increasing dose
By intramuscular delivery
Twice daily (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Twice daily

'BID' comes from the Latin 'bis in die,' meaning twice daily.

Question 17: What does 'PO' mean on a prescription?

By mouth (per os) (Correct answer)
Pharmacy only
As prescribed by physician's order
By phone order

Correct answer: By mouth (per os)

'PO' comes from the Latin 'per os,' meaning by mouth, indicating the oral route of administration.

Question 18: Electronic prescribing for controlled substances (EPCS) must comply with which federal regulation?

FDA 21 CFR Part 211
USP Chapter 800
DEA 21 CFR Part 1311 (Correct answer)
HIPAA Privacy Rule 45 CFR Part 164

Correct answer: DEA 21 CFR Part 1311

DEA 21 CFR Part 1311 establishes the requirements for the electronic prescribing of controlled substances (EPCS), including identity proofing and two-factor authentication.

Question 19: Which of the following represents a correct first-air principle when working inside a laminar airflow workbench (LAFW)?

Place large items at the back of the LAFW to allow airflow around them
Open ampules toward the HEPA filter to direct glass fragments away from the worker
Keep all items at least 3 inches from the sides and front edge of the LAFW
Never allow any object to interrupt the unidirectional airflow path between the HEPA filter and an open critical site (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Never allow any object to interrupt the unidirectional airflow path between the HEPA filter and an open critical site

First-air is the uncontaminated air directly from the HEPA filter; no object, including hands, should block this air from reaching an open vial, needle, or syringe tip.

Question 20: Which safety program do many hospital pharmacy departments implement to reduce medication errors and near-misses?

DEA Form 222 tracking
NABP e-Profile system
USP <661> container testing
ISMP Medication Error Reporting Program (MERP) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: ISMP Medication Error Reporting Program (MERP)

ISMP's MERP allows healthcare professionals to report medication errors and near-misses to improve safety practices across the industry.

Question 21: What does the abbreviation REMS stand for in drug safety?

Regulated Error Monitoring System
Rapid Emergency Medication Supply
Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (Correct answer)
Retail Error Management Standard

Correct answer: Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy

REMS (Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy) programs are FDA-required safety plans for drugs with serious risks that require special management.

Question 22: Under HIPAA, which of the following is considered protected health information (PHI)?

Patient name combined with diagnosis (Correct answer)
De-identified statistical health data
Aggregate prescription trend reports
Anonymous patient survey responses

Correct answer: Patient name combined with diagnosis

PHI is any individually identifiable health information, including a patient name combined with medical or prescription information.

Question 23: Which federal law requires pharmacies to maintain a written policy and procedure for medication therapy management (MTM) services?

Medicare Modernization Act (MMA) (Correct answer)
Drug Quality and Security Act
Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act
HIPAA

Correct answer: Medicare Modernization Act (MMA)

The Medicare Modernization Act of 2003 established the Part D benefit and required MTM programs for eligible beneficiaries.

Question 24: Under USP <797>, which category of compounded sterile preparations (CSPs) has a permitted BUD of up to 45 days?

Immediate-use CSPs
Category 2 CSPs stored at controlled cold temperature (Correct answer)
Category 2 CSPs stored at room temperature
Category 1 CSPs

Correct answer: Category 2 CSPs stored at controlled cold temperature

Category 2 CSPs stored at controlled cold temperature (2–8 °C) may have a BUD of up to 45 days per USP <797> (2023 revision).

Question 25: What does the NDC number on a prescription label identify?

The prescriber's national ID number
A specific drug product including manufacturer, product, and package size (Correct answer)
The pharmacy's state license number
The patient's insurance claim number

Correct answer: A specific drug product including manufacturer, product, and package size

The National Drug Code (NDC) is a unique 10–11 digit identifier assigned by the FDA that specifies the drug manufacturer, product, and package size.

Question 26: A patient is prescribed both warfarin and aspirin. What is the primary safety concern with this combination?

Increased bleeding risk due to additive anticoagulant effects (Correct answer)
Elevated blood pressure
Reduced efficacy of both drugs
Risk of serotonin syndrome

Correct answer: Increased bleeding risk due to additive anticoagulant effects

Warfarin and aspirin together significantly increase bleeding risk, as aspirin inhibits platelet function while warfarin inhibits clotting factor synthesis.

Question 27: Which piece of equipment is used to measure small volumes of liquid (0.1–1 mL) most accurately during non-sterile compounding?

Syringe (Correct answer)
Conical graduate
Cylindrical graduate
Beaker

Correct answer: Syringe

Syringes are more accurate than graduates for volumes under 1 mL due to their narrow bore and precise graduations.

Question 28: What is a total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solution?

An IV antibiotic combination
A sterile IV mixture providing complete nutrition including proteins, lipids, dextrose, vitamins, and electrolytes (Correct answer)
An oral supplement for malnourished patients
A tube feeding formula

Correct answer: A sterile IV mixture providing complete nutrition including proteins, lipids, dextrose, vitamins, and electrolytes

TPN is a sterile IV admixture that provides complete nutritional support for patients who cannot eat, including amino acids, dextrose, lipids, electrolytes, and vitamins.

Question 29: Why did the ISMP recommend replacing the abbreviation 'QD' with 'once daily' in prescription writing?

'QD' could be misread as 'QID' (four times daily), causing dangerous dosing errors (Correct answer)
'QD' conflicts with DEA scheduling codes
'QD' was a brand name abbreviation
'QD' is difficult to type in electronic systems

Correct answer: 'QD' could be misread as 'QID' (four times daily), causing dangerous dosing errors

The ISMP identified 'QD' as a dangerous abbreviation because it can be misread as 'QID' (four times daily) or 'OD' (right eye), so writing 'once daily' eliminates ambiguity.

Question 30: Which of the following is the BEST example of protecting patient confidentiality at the pharmacy counter?

Using a low voice, privacy screen, and discretion when handling sensitive prescriptions (Correct answer)
Sharing a patient's medication list with another customer who asks
Leaving prescription bags visible on the counter sorted alphabetically
Announcing the patient's name and medication loudly so they can hear you

Correct answer: Using a low voice, privacy screen, and discretion when handling sensitive prescriptions

Lowering the voice, using privacy screens, and exercising discretion are practical HIPAA safeguards at the point of dispensing.

Question 31: Under the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act (CMEA), how many grams of pseudoephedrine can an individual purchase per day?

3.6 grams (Correct answer)
7.5 grams
5.0 grams
9.0 grams

Correct answer: 3.6 grams

CMEA limits pseudoephedrine purchases to 3.6 grams per day and 9 grams per 30-day period.

Question 32: Which look-alike drug pair is on ISMP's list of commonly confused drug names?

Lisinopril and losartan
Metformin and metronidazole
Hydroxyzine and hydralazine (Correct answer)
Atorvastatin and rosuvastatin

Correct answer: Hydroxyzine and hydralazine

Hydroxyzine (antihistamine/anxiolytic) and hydralazine (antihypertensive) are an ISMP-identified LASA pair with different indications and risks.

Question 33: What type of hood is used to prepare chemotherapy (hazardous) drugs?

Horizontal flow hood
Biological safety cabinet (BSC) (Correct answer)
Laminar airflow workbench (LAFW)
Standard pharmacy counter

Correct answer: Biological safety cabinet (BSC)

A biological safety cabinet (BSC) is used for hazardous drug preparation because it protects both the product and the technician from exposure to toxic agents.

Question 34: Which provision of the Affordable Care Act (ACA) required insurance plans to cover contraceptives without cost-sharing?

Essential health benefits requirement
Medicaid expansion clause
Preventive services mandate (Correct answer)
Individual mandate provision

Correct answer: Preventive services mandate

The ACA's preventive services mandate required most health plans to cover FDA-approved contraceptives and other preventive services at no cost to the patient.

Question 35: Which ASHP document outlines the minimum required competencies and training standards for pharmacy technician practice?

DEA Title 21 CFR Part 1301
OBRA '90 Counseling Requirements
ASHP Model Curriculum for Pharmacy Technician Education and Training (Correct answer)
USP <795> Nonsterile Compounding

Correct answer: ASHP Model Curriculum for Pharmacy Technician Education and Training

ASHP's Model Curriculum defines core competencies for pharmacy technician education programs to ensure standardized training nationwide.

Question 36: A pharmacy receives a phone call from a physician wishing to authorize an emergency oral Schedule II prescription. Under federal law, what must the pharmacy do?

Refuse; CII prescriptions cannot be called in under any circumstances
Accept and retain only the verbal order with no follow-up required
Dispense the emergency quantity and require a written prescription within 7 days (Correct answer)
Dispense only a 3-day supply and require a written prescription within 3 days

Correct answer: Dispense the emergency quantity and require a written prescription within 7 days

Federal law permits an emergency oral CII prescription when specific criteria are met; the prescriber must furnish a written follow-up prescription within 7 days.

Question 37: Which of the following best describes the purpose of a medication guide (MedGuide) required by the FDA?

To list the drug's inactive ingredients for allergy purposes
To replace the pharmacist's counseling obligation
To inform patients of serious risks associated with certain medications (Correct answer)
To provide billing codes for insurers

Correct answer: To inform patients of serious risks associated with certain medications

FDA-required MedGuides are patient-directed documents that communicate serious or important risks for certain high-risk drugs.

Question 38: What is the difference between generic and brand-name drugs?

Brand names are always better
Generic drugs are less effective
There is no difference
Generic drugs have the same active ingredient but different name and typically lower cost (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Generic drugs have the same active ingredient but different name and typically lower cost

Generic drugs contain the same active ingredients, dosage, and route as brand-name drugs but are marketed under their chemical name at lower cost after patent expiration.

Question 39: A pharmacy technician may perform all of the following EXCEPT:

Process insurance claims
Count and package medications
Enter prescription data into the computer system
Counsel a patient on drug interactions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Counsel a patient on drug interactions

Patient counseling on drug interactions is within the pharmacist's scope of practice, not the technician's.

Question 40: What does 'therapeutic substitution' mean in pharmacy practice?

Dispensing a generic version of the exact drug prescribed
Changing the dosage form of the prescribed drug
Dispensing a different drug in the same therapeutic class as prescribed (Correct answer)
Substituting a brand drug when generic is unavailable

Correct answer: Dispensing a different drug in the same therapeutic class as prescribed

Therapeutic substitution involves dispensing a chemically different but pharmacologically similar drug, which generally requires prescriber authorization.

Question 41: When a pharmacy technician is unsure whether a prescriber's order is appropriate, the correct action is to:

Call the prescriber to discuss clinical appropriateness
Use professional judgment and fill the order
Flag the order and bring it to the pharmacist's attention (Correct answer)
Decline to fill and document the reason without consulting the pharmacist

Correct answer: Flag the order and bring it to the pharmacist's attention

All clinical questions and order concerns must be escalated to the pharmacist, who is licensed to evaluate and act on them.

Question 42: What does 'NKA' mean on a patient profile?

Not Kept Active
Non-Kidney Administration
No Known Allergies (Correct answer)
New Known Allergen

Correct answer: No Known Allergies

NKA stands for 'No Known Allergies,' indicating the patient has no documented drug, food, or environmental allergies on record.

Question 43: What is the primary reason a pharmacy must perform a risk assessment before compounding a preparation that is commercially available?

To determine the correct BUD
To choose between USP <795> and USP <797>
To establish the compounding fee
To justify that the compounded preparation meets a specific patient need not met by the commercial product (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To justify that the compounded preparation meets a specific patient need not met by the commercial product

Federal and state regulations require documented justification showing a patient-specific need that the commercial product cannot fulfill.

Question 44: What does 'DAW' stand for on a prescription?

Drug Administration Warning
Drug Approval Waiver
Do Allow Waiver
Dispense As Written (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Dispense As Written

DAW stands for 'Dispense As Written,' indicating the prescriber wants the brand-name drug dispensed rather than a generic substitute.

Question 45: Which law requires manufacturers to include a Medication Guide with certain high-risk prescription drugs?

FDA Regulations under 21 CFR Part 208 (Correct answer)
Drug Listing Act
OBRA-90
Hatch-Waxman Act

Correct answer: FDA Regulations under 21 CFR Part 208

21 CFR Part 208 requires Medication Guides for drugs that FDA determines pose serious risk if used incorrectly, ensuring patients receive specific written safety information.

Question 46: A pharmacy technician is preparing a 2% salicylic acid ointment using fusion. Which step is MOST critical to product uniformity?

Cooling the base before adding salicylic acid
Heating the drug and base separately, then combining
Filtering the final product through gauze
Adding the drug to the fully melted base with constant stirring during cooling (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Adding the drug to the fully melted base with constant stirring during cooling

Constant stirring while the mixture cools prevents drug particle settling and ensures uniform distribution.

Question 47: Which organization maintains the National Coordinating Council for Medication Error Reporting and Prevention (NCC MERP) error taxonomy?

ISMP
USP
FDA
NCC MERP itself (Correct answer)

Correct answer: NCC MERP itself

NCC MERP is an independent council that maintains its own medication error taxonomy and reporting standards.

Question 48: A technician is preparing a 1 L bag of TPN. The order calls for 250 mEq of sodium chloride. NaCl 23.4% solution contains 4 mEq/mL. How many mL of NaCl 23.4% is needed?

42.5 mL
62.5 mL (Correct answer)
100 mL
125 mL

Correct answer: 62.5 mL

250 mEq ÷ 4 mEq/mL = 62.5 mL of NaCl 23.4% solution.

Question 49: A pharmacist needs to make 200 mL of a 1% hydrocortisone cream from 2.5% stock cream. How many grams of stock cream are needed?

50 g
20 g
80 g (Correct answer)
40 g

Correct answer: 80 g

C1V1 = C2V2: 2.5 × V1 = 1 × 200; V1 = 80 g of stock cream.

Question 50: Which drug class does warfarin belong to?

Antiplatelet agents
Direct thrombin inhibitors
Thrombolytics
Vitamin K antagonists (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Vitamin K antagonists

Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that inhibits clotting factor synthesis dependent on vitamin K.

Question 51: Schedule III and IV prescriptions are valid for refills for how long from the date written?

90 days
30 days
6 months (Correct answer)
12 months

Correct answer: 6 months

Schedule III and IV prescriptions expire 6 months from the date written and may be refilled up to 5 times within that period.

Question 52: What is the difference between generic and brand-name drugs?

Generic drugs have the same active ingredient but different name and typically lower cost (Correct answer)
Brand names are always better
There is no difference
Generic drugs are less effective

Correct answer: Generic drugs have the same active ingredient but different name and typically lower cost

Generic drugs contain the same active ingredients, dosage, and route as brand-name drugs but are marketed under their chemical name at lower cost after patent expiration.

Question 53: What does 'DAW' stand for on a prescription?

Daily Allowed Withdrawal
Dose Adjustment Warning
Drug Authorization Waiver
Dispense As Written (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Dispense As Written

DAW (Dispense As Written) indicates the prescriber requires the brand-name drug and no generic substitution is allowed.

Question 54: What is the primary responsibility of a Certified Pharmacy Technician?

Administering vaccines.
Assisting pharmacists in dispensing medications. (Correct answer)
Diagnosing medical conditions.
Prescribing medications to patients.

Correct answer: Assisting pharmacists in dispensing medications.

The primary responsibility of a Certified Pharmacy Technician (CPhT) is to assist licensed pharmacists in various aspects of pharmacy operations. This includes tasks related to preparing and dispensing medications, managing inventory, and interacting with patients, all under the direct supervision of a pharmacist. CPhTs do not prescribe, diagnose, or administer vaccines.

Question 55: What does the term 'central fill pharmacy' refer to?

A pharmacy that exclusively fills compounded medications
A pharmacy that only fills controlled substances
A pharmacy located inside a hospital's central unit
A hub facility that processes and fills prescriptions on behalf of multiple retail locations (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A hub facility that processes and fills prescriptions on behalf of multiple retail locations

Central fill pharmacies use automated systems to fill prescriptions in bulk for multiple retail stores, improving efficiency and accuracy.

Question 56: For Schedule II controlled substances, prescriptions are typically valid for how long after the date written?

90 days
6 months
12 months
30 days (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 30 days

Schedule II prescriptions are valid for 30 days from the date written in most states due to their high abuse potential and strict DEA regulations.

Question 57: A pharmacy receives a prescription for a Schedule III controlled substance. How many total refills are permitted?

No refills allowed
Unlimited refills within 1 year
5 refills within 6 months (Correct answer)
3 refills within 6 months

Correct answer: 5 refills within 6 months

Schedule III and IV controlled substances may be refilled up to 5 times within 6 months of the original issue date.

Question 58: Which metric does ISMP use to categorize the severity of a medication error?

FDA MedWatch severity grades
NCC MERP index categories A–I (Correct answer)
WHO adverse event scale
Harm index scale 1–10

Correct answer: NCC MERP index categories A–I

ISMP uses the NCC MERP Index for Categorizing Medication Errors, which ranges from Category A (no error) through Category I (death).

Question 59: A pharmacy technician accidentally drops a vial of chemotherapy agent on the floor. What is the FIRST step?

Clean it up with paper towels immediately
Continue working and report it at the end of shift
Alert all staff and follow hazardous spill protocol (Correct answer)
Call the manufacturer for instructions

Correct answer: Alert all staff and follow hazardous spill protocol

Hazardous drug spills require immediate activation of the facility's spill protocol to protect staff and patients.

Question 60: A Spanish-speaking patient cannot read the English prescription label. The pharmacy technician should:

Skip the label explanation and assume the patient will figure it out
Ask the patient to find an English-speaking family member on their own
Notify the pharmacist so that translated materials or interpreter services can be arranged (Correct answer)
Write the instructions by hand in Spanish using basic knowledge

Correct answer: Notify the pharmacist so that translated materials or interpreter services can be arranged

Language barriers must be addressed through proper interpreter services or translated materials coordinated by the pharmacy team.

Question 61: Tramadol (Ultram) is classified as which DEA schedule?

Schedule III
Schedule V
Schedule II
Schedule IV (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Schedule IV

Tramadol was placed in Schedule IV by the DEA effective August 2014.

Question 62: What does 'QID' mean on a prescription?

Four times daily (Correct answer)
Every other day
Quantity in dispenser
Twice daily

Correct answer: Four times daily

'QID' comes from the Latin 'quater in die,' meaning four times daily.

Question 63: Which solution is isotonic and most compatible with blood?

Lactated Ringer's Solution
5% Dextrose in Water (D5W)
Normal Saline (0.9% NaCl) (Correct answer)
Sterile Water for Injection

Correct answer: Normal Saline (0.9% NaCl)

Normal Saline (0.9% NaCl) is isotonic with blood, meaning it has the same osmolality as red blood cells and is widely used as a diluent and IV fluid.

Question 64: Which information is required on a prescription dispensing label per federal law?

Drug manufacturer name and lot number
Prescriber's phone number and DEA number
Patient insurance ID and copay amount
Patient name, pharmacy name/address, drug name and strength, directions, prescriber name, and date dispensed (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Patient name, pharmacy name/address, drug name and strength, directions, prescriber name, and date dispensed

Federal law requires dispensing labels to include patient name, pharmacy name and address, drug name and strength, quantity, directions, prescriber name, and the date dispensed.

Question 65: What ISO classification is required for the direct compounding area in sterile preparations?

ISO 8
ISO 10
ISO 3
ISO 5 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: ISO 5

USP <797> requires an ISO 5 environment for the direct compounding area where sterile products are actually prepared, achieved within a LAFW or BSC.

Question 66: Which accrediting body is most commonly associated with hospital pharmacy practice standards in the US?

ASHP
PTCB
NABP
The Joint Commission (TJC) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The Joint Commission (TJC)

The Joint Commission accredits hospitals and evaluates pharmacy practices as part of its comprehensive healthcare facility standards.

Question 67: What does 'QID' mean in prescription abbreviations?

Twice a day
Once a day
Four times a day (Correct answer)
Every other day

Correct answer: Four times a day

QID stands for 'quater in die' (Latin), meaning four times a day.

Question 68: A technician is compounding a preparation that calls for 'qs ad 120 mL.' The preparation already contains 85 mL of liquid ingredients. How much solvent should be added?

205 mL
85 mL
120 mL
35 mL (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 35 mL

'Qs ad 120 mL' means add sufficient quantity of solvent to make the total volume 120 mL; 120 − 85 = 35 mL.

Question 69: Osmolarity is a critical parameter when compounding ophthalmic preparations because:

Osmolarity determines the viscosity of the eye drop
The cornea absorbs only iso-osmotic drugs
Hypertonic solutions are required to promote drug absorption into the eye
Solutions outside the isotonic range (approximately 285–310 mOsm/L) cause irritation or damage to ocular tissue (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Solutions outside the isotonic range (approximately 285–310 mOsm/L) cause irritation or damage to ocular tissue

Ophthalmic preparations must be near isotonic (approximately 285–310 mOsm/L) to avoid pain, irritation, and cellular damage to the delicate eye tissues.

Question 70: Which federal agency must be notified when a pharmacy discovers a significant loss of Schedule II controlled substances?

DEA (Correct answer)
CDC
FDA
CMS

Correct answer: DEA

Significant losses of Schedule II controlled substances must be reported to the DEA using Form 106.

Question 71: A 503A pharmacy may compound which of the following WITHOUT a patient-specific prescription?

Large-scale batch compounding for interstate distribution
Office-use compounding for any licensed practitioner who requests it
Anticipatory compounding in limited quantities based on historical prescribing patterns (Correct answer)
Any drug on the FDA drug shortage list

Correct answer: Anticipatory compounding in limited quantities based on historical prescribing patterns

503A pharmacies may prepare a small supply of a compounded preparation in anticipation of prescriptions based on documented history of such prescriptions.

Question 72: A technician adds 10 mL of a 50% dextrose solution to 90 mL of sterile water for injection. What is the final dextrose concentration?

45%
5% (Correct answer)
10%
25%

Correct answer: 5%

Dextrose mass = 10 mL × 0.50 = 5 g; final volume = 100 mL; concentration = 5 g/100 mL = 5%.

Question 73: A caregiver picking up a pediatric amoxicillin suspension asks how to measure the dose accurately. The technician should provide:

An oral syringe or calibrated dosing cup from the pharmacy (Correct answer)
A tablespoon for larger doses
A dropper from any other medication bottle
A household teaspoon from the kitchen

Correct answer: An oral syringe or calibrated dosing cup from the pharmacy

Calibrated oral syringes or dosing cups ensure accurate measurement; household spoons vary widely in volume.

Question 74: What does the abbreviation 'SIG' refer to on a prescription?

A patient safety information guide
Directions for use (from the Latin 'signa') (Correct answer)
The prescriber's signature
Strength indication guide

Correct answer: Directions for use (from the Latin 'signa')

'SIG' derives from the Latin 'signa' meaning 'write' or 'label,' and refers to the patient directions that appear on the dispensing label.

Question 75: What is a unit dose dispensing system?

Counting tablets by the unit per prescription
Dispensing medications in large bulk containers
Packaging each individual dose separately for single administration (Correct answer)
Distributing a one-month supply at a time

Correct answer: Packaging each individual dose separately for single administration

A unit dose system packages each individual dose separately, reducing medication errors and streamlining administration, most commonly used in hospital settings.

Question 76: What does 'PRN' mean on a prescription?

Per registered nurse
Per routine notes
Prior to next refill
As needed (Correct answer)

Correct answer: As needed

'PRN' comes from the Latin 'pro re nata,' meaning 'as needed' or 'as the situation demands,' indicating the patient takes the medication only when required.

Question 77: What is aseptic technique?

A process for labeling medications
Procedures used to prevent microbial contamination of sterile products (Correct answer)
A calculation method for IV infusions
A method for counting tablets accurately

Correct answer: Procedures used to prevent microbial contamination of sterile products

Aseptic technique refers to procedures and practices used to prevent microbial contamination when preparing sterile pharmaceutical products.

Question 78: When a prescriber writes 'brand necessary' or 'dispense as written' on a prescription, what must the pharmacy do?

Dispense only the brand-name drug (Correct answer)
Contact the prescriber to confirm
Dispense whichever is cheaper
Dispense the generic equivalent

Correct answer: Dispense only the brand-name drug

A 'dispense as written' instruction legally requires the pharmacy to dispense the brand-name product without substituting a generic.

Question 79: What does 'STAT' mean on a prescription or medication order?

Substitute tablet after trial
Short-term administration time
Immediately (Correct answer)
Standard treatment and therapy

Correct answer: Immediately

'STAT' comes from the Latin 'statim,' meaning immediately, and indicates the medication must be dispensed and administered without delay.

Question 80: Which beyond-use date (BUD) applies to a non-sterile compounded preparation stored at room temperature that contains water?

30 days
1 year
14 days (Correct answer)
6 months

Correct answer: 14 days

USP <795> specifies that aqueous oral formulations compounded from commercial products have a BUD of 14 days when refrigerated, but shorter at room temperature.

Question 81: Which DEA registration form must a pharmacy complete to order Schedule II controlled substances?

DEA Form 222 or CSOS electronic equivalent (Correct answer)
DEA Form 363
DEA Form 106
DEA Form 41

Correct answer: DEA Form 222 or CSOS electronic equivalent

DEA Form 222 (or its electronic equivalent via CSOS) is required for ordering Schedule I and II controlled substances from a distributor.

Question 82: During a weekly controlled substance count, a technician finds 4 extra tablets of alprazolam 1 mg. What is this called?

A shortage
A transfer error
A diversion
An overage/gain (Correct answer)

Correct answer: An overage/gain

Having more of a controlled substance than the record shows is called an overage or gain and must be investigated.

Question 83: What does 'BUD' stand for in sterile compounding?

Biological Unit Determination
Base Unit Dilution
Beyond-Use Date (Correct answer)
Basic Unit Dosing

Correct answer: Beyond-Use Date

BUD (Beyond-Use Date) is the date and time after which a compounded sterile preparation should not be used, based on storage conditions and sterility requirements.

Question 84: A physician orders dopamine 400 mg in 250 mL D5W to infuse at 5 mcg/kg/min for a 70 kg patient. What is the infusion rate in mL/hr?

26.25 mL/hr (Correct answer)
52.5 mL/hr
13.1 mL/hr
105 mL/hr

Correct answer: 26.25 mL/hr

Concentration = 400,000 mcg/250 mL = 1,600 mcg/mL; dose = 5 × 70 = 350 mcg/min; rate = 350/1600 × 60 = 13.125 mL/hr.

Question 85: Which act created the National Drug Code (NDC) numbering system for all commercially distributed drugs?

Drug Listing Act of 1972 (Correct answer)
Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951
Pure Food and Drug Act of 1906
Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962

Correct answer: Drug Listing Act of 1972

The Drug Listing Act of 1972 required all commercially distributed drug products to register with the FDA using a unique National Drug Code.

Question 86: An order is for vancomycin 15 mg/kg IV q12h. Patient weighs 68 kg. Available vials are 500 mg/10 mL. How many mL per dose?

10.2 mL
20.4 mL (Correct answer)
15 mL
30 mL

Correct answer: 20.4 mL

15 mg/kg × 68 kg = 1,020 mg; 1,020 mg ÷ 500 mg × 10 mL = 20.4 mL.

Question 87: A drug has a maintenance dose of 200 mg q6h. A patient missed one dose. Over 24 hours the patient received 600 mg total. What percentage of the ordered daily dose did the patient receive?

50%
60%
75% (Correct answer)
80%

Correct answer: 75%

Daily ordered dose = 200 mg × 4 = 800 mg; 600 mg ÷ 800 mg × 100 = 75%.

Question 88: Which organization publishes the Orange Book, which lists FDA-approved drug products and their therapeutic equivalence?

CMS
DEA
USP
FDA (Correct answer)

Correct answer: FDA

The FDA publishes the Approved Drug Products with Therapeutic Equivalence Evaluations (Orange Book) to guide generic substitution decisions.

Question 89: Which schedule includes drugs with a high potential for abuse that may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence, with NO currently accepted medical use in the US?

Schedule III
Schedule I (Correct answer)
Schedule II
Schedule IV

Correct answer: Schedule I

Schedule I substances have a high abuse potential, no currently accepted medical use, and lack accepted safety for use under medical supervision.

Question 90: Which drug class does azithromycin belong to?

Sulfonamides
Cephalosporins
Fluoroquinolones
Macrolides (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Macrolides

Azithromycin is a macrolide antibiotic that inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit.

PTCB Certified Pharmacy Technician Exam (PTCE)

The PTCE is the national certification exam administered by the Pharmacy Technician Certification Board (PTCB), testing pharmacy technicians across four domains: Medications, Federal Requirements, Patient Safety and Quality Assurance, and Order Entry and Processing. The 2026 blueprint (v1.4, effective January 6, 2026) adds DSCSA content and rebalances domain weights.

Questions

110 min

Time Limit

70%

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