CPHRM Risk Analysis 3 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Which risk analysis method is specifically designed to evaluate the causes and effects of individual component failures in a system and rate them by Risk Priority Number (RPN)?
- Root Cause Analysis (RCA)
- Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA) (Correct answer)
- Bow-tie analysis
- Hazard and Operability Study (HAZOP)
Correct answer: Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA)
FMEA proactively identifies potential failure modes, their effects, and calculates an RPN (Severity × Occurrence × Detection) to prioritize corrective actions.
Question 2: In conducting a Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA), the Risk Priority Number (RPN) is calculated by multiplying:
- Likelihood × Impact × Cost
- Severity × Occurrence × Detection (Correct answer)
- Frequency × Detectability × Controllability
- Probability × Harm × Reversibility
Correct answer: Severity × Occurrence × Detection
RPN = Severity × Occurrence × Detection, with each factor typically scored 1–10, producing scores from 1 to 1,000.
Question 3: A healthcare organization wants to prioritize risk reduction efforts by focusing resources on the few causes responsible for the majority of incidents. Which analytical tool BEST supports this goal?
- Swiss cheese model
- Scenario analysis
- Bow-tie diagram
- Pareto analysis (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Pareto analysis
Pareto analysis applies the 80/20 rule to identify the vital few causes that account for most adverse events, guiding resource allocation.
Question 4: Which concept in risk analysis refers to defenses, barriers, and safeguards that, when all have gaps simultaneously, allow an adverse event to occur?
- Domino theory
- Swiss cheese model (Correct answer)
- Bow-tie model
- Haddon matrix
Correct answer: Swiss cheese model
The Swiss cheese model (Reason's model) illustrates how latent and active failures in multiple system layers must align for an accident to happen.
Question 5: When performing a proactive risk assessment on a new infusion pump workflow, the FIRST step should be:
- Calculate the RPN for each failure mode
- Map or diagram the entire process step by step (Correct answer)
- Assign severity scores to known failure modes
- Implement controls for the highest-risk steps
Correct answer: Map or diagram the entire process step by step
Process mapping is the foundational first step, ensuring all steps and decision points are identified before failure modes and their effects are analyzed.
Question 6: A risk manager identifies a risk with high severity but very low probability. According to standard risk matrix principles, this risk would MOST likely be categorized as:
- Low priority — probability outweighs severity
- Acceptable risk needing no further action
- Moderate to high priority requiring monitoring and contingency planning (Correct answer)
- Transferred risk suitable for insurance only
Correct answer: Moderate to high priority requiring monitoring and contingency planning
High-severity, low-probability risks typically fall into a moderate-to-high zone requiring contingency plans because consequences would be catastrophic if realized.
Question 7: Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of a 'heat map' in risk analysis?
- To display the aggregated risk scores of identified risks on a color-coded matrix (Correct answer)
- To visualize geographic distribution of patient falls
- To track temperature-related environmental hazards
- To map staff workload density across departments
Correct answer: To display the aggregated risk scores of identified risks on a color-coded matrix
A heat map plots risks on a likelihood-vs.-consequence matrix using color coding (green/yellow/red) to allow quick visual prioritization.
Which risk analysis method is specifically designed to evaluate the causes and effects of individual component failures in a system and rate them by Risk Priority Number (RPN)?