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Mixed Deck — All CPE Topics Flashcards

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  1. When calibrating a computerized polygraph (CPST), the examiner confirms the analog-to-digital (A/D) conversion sampling rate. A minimum adequate sampling rate for polygraph physiological signals is approximately:

    Answer: 60 samples per second

    Polygraph physiological signals (0.05–20 Hz range) require at least twice the highest frequency of interest; 60 samples/second is a practical minimum for accurate reproduction.

  2. Which of the following is a legal requirement for conducting a polygraph test?

    Answer: The examiner must be licensed in the state where the test is being conducted

    Many states have specific licensing requirements for polygraph examiners to ensure they meet professional standards and qualifications. This legal mandate helps regulate the practice, ensuring examiners are properly trained, adhere to established protocols, and maintain a level of credibility. Licensing protects the public by ensuring examinations are conducted by competent and ethical professionals.

  3. A polygraph question that uses a double negative, such as 'Did you not falsify any records?', should be avoided because:

    Answer: The grammatical structure creates cognitive confusion, making the question unsuitable for reliable testing

    Double-negative phrasing introduces ambiguity about whether a 'yes' or 'no' answer indicates admission or denial, making the question impossible to score accurately.

  4. In computerized polygraph systems, what is the typical minimum sampling rate recommended for accurate physiological data capture?

    Answer: 50 Hz

    A minimum sampling rate of 50 Hz (50 samples per second) is generally recommended by the American Polygraph Association for computerized polygraph systems to ensure accurate data capture.

  5. What is the relationship between theory and practice in Question Formulation?

    Answer: Theory provides the foundation; practice applies it to real situations

    Theory provides the conceptual foundation and principles, while practice involves applying those concepts to real-world situations. Both are essential for competence.

  6. The 'upper respiratory' pneumograph component is placed at which anatomical location?

    Answer: Around the thoracic (chest) region

    The upper (thoracic) pneumograph tube is placed around the chest to measure thoracic breathing effort, while a second tube monitors abdominal movement.

  7. Which APA ethical standard requires examiners to maintain accurate and complete records of all examinations conducted?

    Answer: Standard of record-keeping

    The APA's record-keeping standard obligates examiners to maintain thorough, accurate examination documentation.

  8. What is the primary purpose of the 'eyes-open/eyes-closed' or 'sit quietly' instruction given before chart collection?

    Answer: To establish a stable physiological baseline and reduce spontaneous movement

    Requiring the subject to sit quietly before each chart establishes a stable baseline, making it easier to detect deviations caused by relevant questions or countermeasure activity.

  9. Which organization publishes the Model Policy on Polygraph Examiner Training and Accreditation used by many state licensing boards?

    Answer: American Polygraph Association

    The American Polygraph Association publishes model policies on training and accreditation that many state licensing boards adopt or use as a framework.

  10. What does the cardiorespiratory channel on a computerized polygraph system primarily measure?

    Answer: Relative blood pressure and pulse rate changes

    The cardiorespiratory channel measures relative changes in blood pressure and pulse rate using an inflated cuff typically placed on the upper arm.

  11. When an investigation involves multiple crimes (e.g., theft and assault), best practice recommends:

    Answer: Conducting separate focused examinations for each issue rather than a single multi-issue test

    Separate focused examinations maintain diagnostic accuracy for each issue because mixing multiple independent crimes in one test dilutes physiological responses and complicates scoring.

  12. An examiner applying for a position with a federal law enforcement agency can expect the pre-employment polygraph to include questions about which of the following?

    Answer: Prior illegal drug use and undetected criminal behavior

    Federal law enforcement pre-employment polygraphs typically cover prior illegal drug use and undisclosed criminal conduct to assess suitability for positions of public trust.

  13. According to best practices in question formulation, relevant questions should be phrased in the:

    Answer: Past tense, referencing the specific time frame of the alleged act

    Relevant questions are framed in past tense and anchored to the specific incident's time frame to focus the examinee's cognition on the actual event under investigation.

  14. In a federal security clearance polygraph report, what is typically required regarding the disclosure of examination topics that are classified?

    Answer: The report must follow classification handling protocols, potentially using a classified addendum

    Federal security clearance reports involving classified topics must follow proper classification handling, which may include a separately controlled classified addendum.

  15. In the context of polygraph careers, what does the term 'PCSOT' stand for?

    Answer: Post-Conviction Sex Offender Testing

    PCSOT stands for Post-Conviction Sex Offender Testing, a specialized polygraph application used in supervision and treatment of convicted sex offenders.

  16. What statistical metric is used to quantify the trade-off between sensitivity and specificity in polygraph diagnostic accuracy studies?

    Answer: Area Under the ROC Curve (AUC)

    The Area Under the ROC Curve (AUC) summarizes a test's diagnostic accuracy by capturing the balance between true positive rate (sensitivity) and false positive rate across decision thresholds.

  17. What is the recommended practice when an examinee shows consistent 'no reaction' (flat-line) tracings across all questions in a polygraph chart?

    Answer: Investigate potential countermeasures, medication effects, or sensor placement issues before continuing

    Flat-line or globally suppressed tracings may indicate deliberate countermeasures, pharmacological suppression, or equipment problems, all of which must be investigated before interpreting or continuing the examination.

  18. What is the most effective way to prevent healthcare-associated infections?

    Answer: Proper hand hygiene

    Hand hygiene (washing with soap and water or using alcohol-based hand rub) is the single most effective measure for preventing the spread of infections in healthcare settings.

  19. What standardized procedure do most polygraph examiners use to verify instrument accuracy before each examination?

    Answer: A mechanical or electronic calibration check against a known signal source

    Calibration against a known signal source (mechanical or electronic reference) allows the examiner to confirm the instrument is measuring accurately before use.

  20. Which of the following disclosures in an informed consent form is specifically required by APA standards before a polygraph examination begins?

    Answer: The nature of the exam, how results will be used, and who will receive them

    APA standards require the consent form to disclose the purpose of the examination, how results will be used, and all parties who will receive the results.