Certified Patient Care Technician (CPCT/A) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A patient is on a 1,500 mL fluid restriction for 24 hours. They have already consumed 900 mL by 2 PM. How much fluid may the patient have for the rest of the day?

400 mL
600 mL (Correct answer)
700 mL
500 mL

Correct answer: 600 mL

1,500 mL minus 900 mL consumed equals 600 mL remaining for the rest of the day.

Question 2: When caring for a patient in contact precautions, the PCT must:

Only wear gloves when directly touching the patient
Place a surgical mask on the patient before entering
Wear a gown and gloves upon entering the room (Correct answer)
Wear an N95 respirator and gown

Correct answer: Wear a gown and gloves upon entering the room

Contact precautions require both gown and gloves to be donned before entering the room to prevent transmission of organisms via touch.

Question 3: A patient's skin appears jaundiced. This finding is most commonly associated with:

Liver or gallbladder dysfunction (Correct answer)
Cardiovascular disease
Chronic kidney disease
Respiratory failure

Correct answer: Liver or gallbladder dysfunction

Jaundice results from elevated bilirubin, which is processed by the liver; liver or biliary disease typically causes yellowing of skin and sclerae.

Question 4: Which of the following is the safest method to identify a patient before a procedure?

Ask the patient their room number
Check the name on the door outside the room
Ask the patient to state their full name and date of birth and match to the armband (Correct answer)
Verify with a family member present in the room

Correct answer: Ask the patient to state their full name and date of birth and match to the armband

Using at least two patient identifiers—name and date of birth matched to the armband—is the Joint Commission–required standard for safe patient identification.

Question 5: The PASS acronym is used when operating a fire extinguisher. What does it stand for?

Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep (Correct answer)
Press, Arm, Squeeze, Scan
Push, Activate, Spray, Stop
Pull, Apply, Scan, Spray

Correct answer: Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

PASS stands for Pull the pin, Aim at the base of the fire, Squeeze the handle, and Sweep from side to side.

Question 6: Which sign indicates that a nasogastric tube feeding is being tolerated poorly?

Gastric residual volume of 30 mL
Urine output of 50 mL/hour
Abdominal distension and nausea (Correct answer)
Normal bowel sounds

Correct answer: Abdominal distension and nausea

Abdominal distension, nausea, and vomiting are signs of feeding intolerance that must be reported to the nurse promptly.

Question 7: Which type of isolation precaution is required for a patient with active tuberculosis?

Droplet precautions
Airborne precautions (Correct answer)
Contact precautions
Standard precautions only

Correct answer: Airborne precautions

Tuberculosis is transmitted via airborne particles and requires airborne precautions, including a negative-pressure room and N95 respirator.

Question 8: Which one of the following lab staff is referred to as a clinical laboratory scientist?

MLT
Phlebotomist
Medical technologist (Correct answer)
Clinical laboratory technician

Correct answer: Medical technologist

A Medical Technologist (MT) or Medical Laboratory Scientist (MLS) is a highly trained professional responsible for performing complex diagnostic tests, analyzing results, and often overseeing other laboratory personnel. The term 'Clinical Laboratory Scientist' is frequently used interchangeably with or as an updated title for a Medical Technologist, reflecting the scientific rigor and expertise required for the role.

Question 9: After delivering a shock with an AED, what should immediately follow?

Resume CPR immediately, starting with chest compressions (Correct answer)
Deliver a second shock
Remove the AED pads
Check for a pulse for 1 minute

Correct answer: Resume CPR immediately, starting with chest compressions

After AED shock delivery, CPR should be resumed immediately beginning with compressions without pausing to check for a pulse.

Question 10: Which of the following specimens must be kept warm (at body temperature) after collection?

Cold agglutinin specimen
Cryoglobulin specimen (Correct answer)
CBC sample
Routine chemistry panel

Correct answer: Cryoglobulin specimen

Cryoglobulin specimens must be kept at 37°C (body temperature) because cryoglobulins precipitate at cooler temperatures, which would affect test results.

Question 11: What is the correct order of draw when collecting multiple tubes during venipuncture?

Lavender, red, green, blood cultures
Blood cultures, red/SST, green, lavender (Correct answer)
Red, lavender, blood cultures, green
Blood cultures, green, lavender, red

Correct answer: Blood cultures, red/SST, green, lavender

The correct order of draw is blood cultures first, then red/SST, followed by green (heparin), then lavender (EDTA) to prevent cross-contamination of additives.

Question 12: What is the correct technique for moving a patient up in bed using a draw sheet?

Use two caregivers, fan-fold the sheet, and slide on the count of three (Correct answer)
Lift the patient alone from the head of the bed
Use a mechanical lift for all patient repositioning
Pull the patient by the arms toward the head of the bed

Correct answer: Use two caregivers, fan-fold the sheet, and slide on the count of three

Using two caregivers with a draw sheet reduces shear forces and injury risk for both the patient and the caregivers.

Question 13: Mr. Jones weighs 72 kg in dry form. At the end of the last therapy, he weighed 73 kg. He is 75.5 kg today. Assume that 500 ml total for the rinse back and prime. What is Mr. Jones' objective for today's fluid removal?

2.5 liters or 2500 ml
4.5 liters or 4500 ml
4.0 liters or 4000 ml (Correct answer)
3.0 liters or 3000 ml

Correct answer: 4.0 liters or 4000 ml

To calculate the fluid removal objective, first determine the excess weight: 75.5 kg (current) - 72 kg (dry weight) = 3.5 kg. Since 1 kg of fluid equals 1 liter, this is 3.5 liters. Then, add the volume for rinse back and prime, which is 500 ml or 0.5 liters. The total fluid removal objective is 3.5 liters + 0.5 liters = 4.0 liters.

Question 14: What does the RACE acronym stand for in fire safety?

Remove, Alert, Contain, Exit
Remove, Activate, Confine, Extinguish/Evacuate (Correct answer)
Rescue, Alert, Contain, Extinguish
Report, Assist, Call, Evacuate

Correct answer: Remove, Activate, Confine, Extinguish/Evacuate

RACE stands for Remove patients from danger, Activate the alarm, Confine the fire, and Extinguish or Evacuate.

Question 15: Which site should be avoided for venipuncture in a patient with a mastectomy on the left side?

Either foot
Right arm
Left arm (Correct answer)
Right hand

Correct answer: Left arm

The arm on the same side as a mastectomy should be avoided because lymph node removal impairs circulation and increases the risk of infection and lymphedema.

Question 16: Which color-coded tube top is used to collect blood for a complete blood count (CBC)?

Lavender (purple) (Correct answer)
Blue
Green
Red

Correct answer: Lavender (purple)

Lavender-top tubes contain EDTA, an anticoagulant that preserves cellular components, making them ideal for CBC testing.

Question 17: The skin's avascular layer is called the?

None are correct
Subcutaneous
Epidermis (Correct answer)
Dermis

Correct answer: Epidermis

The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin and is characterized as avascular, meaning it does not contain its own blood vessels. Instead, it receives essential nutrients and oxygen through diffusion from the underlying dermal layer, which is rich in capillaries. This anatomical feature explains why superficial cuts to the skin often do not bleed.

Question 18: Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for venipuncture at a specific site?

Site has an IV line infusing fluids (Correct answer)
Site was used 24 hours ago
Patient expresses mild discomfort
Patient has small veins

Correct answer: Site has an IV line infusing fluids

Drawing blood from an arm with an IV infusion can dilute the sample and produce inaccurate results; the IV must be stopped for at least 2 minutes or the opposite arm used.

Question 19: Which laboratory test requires a fasting specimen from the patient?

Complete blood count (CBC)
Blood type and crossmatch
Prothrombin time (PT)
Fasting blood glucose (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Fasting blood glucose

Fasting blood glucose requires the patient to fast for at least 8 hours because recent food intake raises blood sugar levels and produces inaccurate results.

Question 20: A sample would not be accepted for analysis if it met three of the following criteria. What somebody wouldn't?

A bilirubin specimen is icteric. (Correct answer)
A specimen of fasting glucose is lipemic.
A CBC specimen contains clots.
A sample of electrolytes is hemolyzed.

Correct answer: A bilirubin specimen is icteric.

A bilirubin specimen being icteric simply means it appears yellow, which is an expected characteristic when bilirubin levels are elevated. This condition does not compromise the accuracy of bilirubin analysis. In contrast, a clotted CBC, a lipemic fasting glucose, or a hemolyzed electrolyte sample would all be rejected because these conditions directly interfere with the integrity and reliability of the test results.

Question 21: What is the correct order of steps when removing contaminated PPE?

Mask, eye protection, gloves, gown, hand hygiene
Gloves, gown, mask, eye protection, hand hygiene
Gown, gloves, eye protection, mask, hand hygiene
Gloves, gown, eye protection, mask, hand hygiene (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Gloves, gown, eye protection, mask, hand hygiene

CDC guidelines specify removing gloves first, then gown, then eye protection, then mask to minimize self-contamination, followed by hand hygiene.

Question 22: What is the most accurate method for measuring core body temperature?

Axillary thermometer
Oral thermometer
Rectal thermometer (Correct answer)
Temporal artery thermometer

Correct answer: Rectal thermometer

Rectal temperature measurement is considered the most accurate reflection of core body temperature.

Question 23: Which tube color is used for a complete blood count (CBC)?

Light blue (sodium citrate)
Green (lithium heparin)
Lavender/purple (EDTA) (Correct answer)
Red/gold (SST)

Correct answer: Lavender/purple (EDTA)

The lavender/purple top tube contains EDTA, which preserves cell morphology and is required for CBCs.

Question 24: A patient's blood pressure reading is 148/92 mmHg. How should the PCT correctly document this finding?

Systolic 148, Diastolic 92 millimeters
BP 148/92 mmHg (Correct answer)
148 over 92
148/92

Correct answer: BP 148/92 mmHg

Blood pressure should be documented as 'BP 148/92 mmHg' using standard clinical abbreviation and unit notation.

Question 25: Which of the following body systems includes the trachea, bronchi, and alveoli?

Digestive system
Lymphatic system
Cardiovascular system
Respiratory system (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Respiratory system

The trachea, bronchi, and alveoli are all structures of the respiratory system involved in gas exchange.

Question 26: What is the correct angle for needle insertion during venipuncture?

15 to 30 degrees (Correct answer)
45 to 60 degrees
5 to 10 degrees
70 to 90 degrees

Correct answer: 15 to 30 degrees

A 15 to 30 degree angle is recommended for venipuncture to allow the needle to enter the vein without passing through it.

Question 27: When performing perineal care on a female patient, the cleaning direction should be:

Side to side only
Front to back (urethra to anus) (Correct answer)
Back to front
Circular motion from the center out

Correct answer: Front to back (urethra to anus)

Front-to-back cleaning prevents introducing fecal bacteria from the rectal area into the urethral meatus, reducing UTI risk.

Question 28: The Joint Commission's National Patient Safety Goal regarding patient identification requires:

Using at least two patient identifiers before any procedure (Correct answer)
Identifying patients by room number and bed
Asking only the patient's name
Verifying identification with a photo ID only

Correct answer: Using at least two patient identifiers before any procedure

At least two patient identifiers (e.g., name and date of birth) must be used before providing care, treatment, or services.

Question 29: During hemodialysis, a conductivity alert rings. Which of these events should the technician have anticipated?

Electrical power source interrupted.
Dialysate flow rate has increased.
The blood pump has stopped.
Dialyzer was bypassed. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Dialyzer was bypassed.

A conductivity alert during hemodialysis indicates an issue with the dialysate's electrolyte concentration. When the dialyzer is bypassed, the dialysate flow path changes, which can lead to an altered conductivity reading and trigger the alarm. This is a common operational event that technicians should anticipate.

Question 30: A patient who is NPO (nothing by mouth) asks the PCT for a glass of water. The PCT should:

Explain the NPO restriction and offer mouth care to relieve dryness (Correct answer)
Give ice chips instead
Check with a family member before deciding
Provide a small amount since water is not food

Correct answer: Explain the NPO restriction and offer mouth care to relieve dryness

NPO orders prohibit all oral intake including water; the PCT should explain this and offer oral hygiene to help with discomfort.

Question 31: Regarding confidentiality, a PCT may share patient information with:

The media for a newsworthy case
Family members without the patient's permission
Members of the care team directly involved in the patient's care (Correct answer)
The patient's neighbor who asks about their condition

Correct answer: Members of the care team directly involved in the patient's care

HIPAA permits sharing patient information only with members of the treatment team on a need-to-know basis to provide care.

Question 32: When applying ECG electrodes, where should the V1 precordial lead be placed?

2nd intercostal space, right sternal border
4th intercostal space, right sternal border (Correct answer)
4th intercostal space, left sternal border
5th intercostal space, left midaxillary line

Correct answer: 4th intercostal space, right sternal border

V1 is placed at the 4th intercostal space along the right sternal border.

Question 33: How many times should a skin puncture site be wiped with an alcohol swab before the procedure?

Three times with fresh swabs
Once in an inward circular motion
Twice in the same direction
Once in a circular outward motion (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Once in a circular outward motion

The site should be cleaned once using a circular outward motion with a 70% isopropyl alcohol swab, then allowed to air dry to ensure antisepsis.

Question 34: What does a light blue-top tube contain, and what test is it used for?

EDTA; used for CBC
Sodium citrate; used for coagulation studies (Correct answer)
Heparin; used for electrolytes
Clot activator; used for chemistry panels

Correct answer: Sodium citrate; used for coagulation studies

Light blue-top tubes contain sodium citrate, an anticoagulant that binds calcium to prevent clotting, making them essential for PT, PTT, and INR coagulation tests.

Question 35: What does the acronym 'SST' stand for in phlebotomy?

Standard Serum Tube
Serum Separator Tube (Correct answer)
Sterile Specimen Tube
Sodium Sample Tube

Correct answer: Serum Separator Tube

SST stands for Serum Separator Tube, which contains a gel that separates serum from blood cells after centrifugation.

Question 36: Which of the following is an example of a restraint alternative that should be tried before applying physical restraints?

Raising all four side rails
Medicating the patient for sedation
Offering a bed alarm and frequent reorientation (Correct answer)
Applying wrist restraints prophylactically

Correct answer: Offering a bed alarm and frequent reorientation

Bed alarms, frequent reorientation, and close observation are restraint alternatives that should be exhausted before physical restraints are applied.

Question 37: When a patient is found to have no pulse and is not breathing, the PCT should call a code AND begin CPR. How long should pulse checks interrupt compressions?

1 full minute to confirm absence of pulse
No longer than 30 seconds
No longer than 10 seconds (Correct answer)
Until another rescuer arrives

Correct answer: No longer than 10 seconds

Pulse checks should interrupt compressions for no more than 10 seconds to minimize no-flow time during CPR.

Question 38: A PCT sustains a needlestick injury. What is the FIRST action to take?

Wash the site thoroughly with soap and water (Correct answer)
Complete an incident report
Report to the charge nurse immediately
Apply a tourniquet above the injury site

Correct answer: Wash the site thoroughly with soap and water

The immediate first action after a needlestick is to wash the wound thoroughly with soap and water to reduce infection risk.

Question 39: Standard precautions apply to:

Airborne pathogens only
Only patients with known infections
Patients in isolation rooms only
Blood and body fluids from all patients (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Blood and body fluids from all patients

Standard precautions treat blood and all body fluids from every patient as potentially infectious, regardless of diagnosis.

Question 40: Even when adequate technique is utilized, which of the following arterial puncture complications occurs most frequently?

Hematoma
Arteriospasm (Correct answer)
Infection
Thrombus formation

Correct answer: Arteriospasm

Arteriospasm, or the involuntary constriction of an artery, is frequently cited as the most common complication of arterial puncture, even when proper technique is employed. This spasm can make the procedure more difficult, cause pain, and potentially impede blood flow, highlighting its prevalence despite careful execution.

Question 41: A patient with a latex allergy needs a blood draw. Which action is most important before the procedure?

Pre-medicate with diphenhydramine
Use latex-free gloves and latex-free tourniquet (Correct answer)
Notify infection control before proceeding
Avoid the antecubital fossa entirely

Correct answer: Use latex-free gloves and latex-free tourniquet

All latex-containing supplies must be replaced with latex-free alternatives to prevent an allergic reaction.

Question 42: What is the normal range for adult resting heart rate in beats per minute?

120-140 bpm
60-100 bpm (Correct answer)
40-60 bpm
100-120 bpm

Correct answer: 60-100 bpm

A normal adult resting heart rate is 60-100 beats per minute.

Question 43: A patient's blood sample shows hemolysis. Which of the following could be a cause?

Using a small-gauge needle with a syringe (Correct answer)
Labeling the tube before collection
Using a large-bore needle
Collecting blood from a warm site

Correct answer: Using a small-gauge needle with a syringe

Using a small-gauge needle with a syringe can cause hemolysis because the narrow lumen creates shear forces that rupture red blood cells.

Question 44: The brain and spinal cord make up the peripheral nervous system.

False (Correct answer)
True

Correct answer: False

This statement is false. The brain and spinal cord together form the Central Nervous System (CNS), which is the main control center of the body. The Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) consists of all the nerves that extend outside the CNS, connecting it to the rest of the body, including muscles, organs, and sensory receptors.

Question 45: A patient asks the PCT about the results of their lab work. The best response is:

Explain that the doctor will discuss results with them and notify the nurse of the request (Correct answer)
Look up the results and explain them in simple terms
Tell the patient to ask the PCT supervisor
Tell the patient the results as seen on the chart

Correct answer: Explain that the doctor will discuss results with them and notify the nurse of the request

Interpreting and communicating lab results is outside PCT scope; the nurse or provider should be notified to address the patient's request.

Question 46: An apical pulse is measured by placing a stethoscope at which anatomical location?

Xiphoid process
Left midclavicular line, 5th intercostal space (Correct answer)
Right axillary line, 4th intercostal space
Right sternal border, 2nd intercostal space

Correct answer: Left midclavicular line, 5th intercostal space

The apical pulse is auscultated at the point of maximal impulse: left midclavicular line at the 5th intercostal space.

Question 47: Which action by the PCT best prevents catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?

Changing the catheter every 48 hours
Maintaining a closed drainage system and perineal care (Correct answer)
Irrigating the catheter with sterile saline daily
Keeping the drainage bag above bladder level

Correct answer: Maintaining a closed drainage system and perineal care

Maintaining a closed drainage system and performing routine perineal hygiene are the primary evidence-based measures to prevent CAUTIs.

Question 48: Citrate inhibits thrombin, which stops bleeding.

True
False (Correct answer)

Correct answer: False

This statement is false. Citrate acts as an anticoagulant by binding to calcium ions, which are crucial cofactors in the coagulation cascade, thereby preventing blood from clotting. It does not directly inhibit thrombin, nor does it stop bleeding once it has started; rather, it prevents the initial formation of a clot in collected blood samples.

Question 49: When assisting a patient who has had a stroke with left-sided weakness, the PCT should dress the patient by:

Having the patient perform all dressing independently
Dressing the right (strong) side first, then the left
Dressing the left (weak) side first, then the right (Correct answer)
Dressing starting with the torso before any extremity

Correct answer: Dressing the left (weak) side first, then the right

Dressing the affected (weaker) side first reduces joint stress and makes it easier to maneuver clothing over the limb with limited range of motion.

Question 50: Heparin works to stop blood coagulation by?

Activating calcium
Binding calcium
It does not stop clotting.
Inhibiting thrombin (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Inhibiting thrombin

Heparin functions as an anticoagulant primarily by enhancing the activity of antithrombin III, a natural inhibitor of coagulation. This complex then effectively inactivates several key clotting factors, most notably thrombin (Factor IIa) and Factor Xa. By inhibiting thrombin, heparin prevents the conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin, thereby stopping the formation of a stable blood clot.

Question 51: When obtaining a patient's weight using a standing scale, which action ensures accuracy?

Allow the patient to hold the scale rail for stability during measurement
Zero the scale before the patient steps on and have them remove shoes (Correct answer)
Record weight from the previous measurement if the patient refuses
Weigh the patient fully clothed including shoes for consistency

Correct answer: Zero the scale before the patient steps on and have them remove shoes

Zeroing the scale and removing footwear ensures an accurate weight measurement free from clothing or equipment artifacts.

Question 52: Which sign or symptom should prompt a PCT to IMMEDIATELY stop a patient's tube feeding and notify the nurse?

Residual gastric volume of 50 mL at a scheduled check
The feeding rate is slightly faster than ordered
Patient reports mild bloating 30 minutes after feeding starts
Patient begins coughing forcefully and shows signs of respiratory distress (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Patient begins coughing forcefully and shows signs of respiratory distress

Coughing and respiratory distress during tube feeding suggest aspiration, a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate action.

Question 53: When counting respirations, which factor is most important for accuracy?

Telling the patient to breathe normally
Asking the patient to hold still
Using a pulse oximeter simultaneously
Counting for a full 60 seconds without the patient's knowledge (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Counting for a full 60 seconds without the patient's knowledge

Counting respirations without the patient's knowledge prevents conscious alteration of breathing patterns.

Question 54: A pulse oximetry reading of 91% SpO2 in a patient with no chronic lung disease indicates:

Normal oxygenation
Mild hypoxemia requiring monitoring (Correct answer)
No action needed
Acceptable for sleep

Correct answer: Mild hypoxemia requiring monitoring

A SpO2 below 95% in a patient without chronic lung disease suggests mild hypoxemia and requires clinical attention.

Question 55: What is the purpose of allowing complete chest recoil between CPR compressions?

To check for a pulse
To deliver a rescue breath
To allow the rescuer to rest
To allow the heart to refill with blood for the next compression (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To allow the heart to refill with blood for the next compression

Full chest recoil allows negative pressure to draw blood back into the ventricles so subsequent compressions can eject blood forward.

Question 56: What is the correct order for donning (putting on) PPE?

Gloves, gown, mask, eye protection
Gown, mask, eye protection, gloves (Correct answer)
Eye protection, gloves, gown, mask
Mask, gloves, gown, eye protection

Correct answer: Gown, mask, eye protection, gloves

The correct donning order is gown first, then mask, then eye protection, then gloves last.

Question 57: Which of the following situations might be a problem for a doctor?

setting hospital affirmative action policy
balancing the cost of treatment against the advantage of the treatment (Correct answer)
planning a professional development conference for allied staff
scheduling office staff vacations

Correct answer: balancing the cost of treatment against the advantage of the treatment

Doctors face a significant challenge in balancing the potential benefits of a medical treatment against its financial cost to the patient and healthcare system. This ethical dilemma requires careful consideration to ensure patients receive effective care without undue financial burden. Other options relate to administrative or policy roles, which are typically not the primary professional problem for a doctor in direct patient care.

Question 58: The purpose of the SBAR communication tool is to:

Schedule procedures in the correct order
Document nursing assessments in the chart
Track medication administration times
Provide a structured format for reporting patient status to the care team (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Provide a structured format for reporting patient status to the care team

SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) standardizes clinical communication to reduce errors during handoffs and urgent reports.

Question 59: Where is the preferred site for a heelstick procedure in newborns?

The big toe
Center of the heel
Posterior curve of the heel
Lateral or medial plantar surface of the heel (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Lateral or medial plantar surface of the heel

The lateral or medial plantar surface of the heel is preferred for heelsticks because it avoids bone, nerves, and major blood vessels.

Question 60: A 24-hour urine collection is started at 7:00 AM. The FIRST urine of the collection period should be:

Saved as the start of the collection
Tested immediately with a dipstick
Collected into a separate container
Discarded and the timer begins with the next void (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Discarded and the timer begins with the next void

The first void is discarded to empty the bladder completely, and the 24-hour collection period begins with the next void.

Question 61: Which type of specimen collection device is used for capillary blood collection from a fingerstick?

Syringe
Lancet (Correct answer)
Butterfly needle
Vacutainer

Correct answer: Lancet

A lancet is used to puncture the skin for capillary blood collection via fingerstick or heelstick procedures.

Question 62: Which of the following patient care items is considered 'non-critical' and requires only low-level disinfection?

Blood pressure cuffs (Correct answer)
Urinary catheters
Cardiac catheters
Surgical instruments

Correct answer: Blood pressure cuffs

Non-critical items (like blood pressure cuffs) contact only intact skin and require low-level disinfection according to the Spaulding classification.

Question 63: Which position places the patient flat on their back?

Prone
Supine (Correct answer)
Lateral recumbent
Fowler's

Correct answer: Supine

The supine position places the patient lying flat on their back, facing upward.

Question 64: Which of the following is a non-shockable cardiac rhythm that CPR aims to support until advanced care arrives?

Ventricular fibrillation
Pulseless ventricular tachycardia
Atrial fibrillation with pulse
Pulseless electrical activity (PEA) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Pulseless electrical activity (PEA)

Pulseless electrical activity (PEA) shows organized electrical activity on a monitor but no palpable pulse; it is non-shockable and managed with CPR plus treatment of reversible causes.

Question 65: A patient in droplet precautions requires transport to radiology. The patient should wear:

An N95 respirator
No mask if transport is brief
A surgical mask (Correct answer)
A gown and gloves only

Correct answer: A surgical mask

During transport, patients on droplet precautions should wear a surgical mask to contain respiratory droplets and protect others.

Question 66: When collecting a blood culture specimen, which site preparation technique is used?

Soap and water followed by alcohol
No antiseptic to avoid contamination
70% isopropyl alcohol only
Povidone-iodine or chlorhexidine after alcohol (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Povidone-iodine or chlorhexidine after alcohol

Blood culture sites require a two-step process: 70% alcohol followed by povidone-iodine or chlorhexidine to achieve higher-level antisepsis and minimize contamination.

Question 67: What should be done if a patient faints (syncope) during a blood draw?

Remove the needle, apply pressure, and lower the patient's head (Correct answer)
Apply a cold compress and keep the needle in place
Ask the patient to take deep breaths while continuing the draw
Continue collecting the sample quickly

Correct answer: Remove the needle, apply pressure, and lower the patient's head

The needle must be removed immediately to prevent injury, pressure applied to stop bleeding, and the patient's head lowered to restore cerebral blood flow.

Question 68: When measuring blood pressure, the top (higher) number represents:

Mean arterial pressure
Systolic pressure (Correct answer)
Diastolic pressure
Pulse pressure

Correct answer: Systolic pressure

The systolic pressure is the higher number, representing the force exerted when the heart contracts and pumps blood.

Question 69: What does 'QNS' mean on a laboratory specimen rejection label?

Quality Not Satisfactory
Quick Notification Specimen
Quality Needs Submission
Quantity Not Sufficient (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Quantity Not Sufficient

QNS stands for Quantity Not Sufficient, indicating the collected specimen volume is too low to perform the required laboratory test.

Question 70: Which finding in a patient's wound should be reported to the nurse immediately?

Serous drainage that is clear and thin
Wound edges that are approximated and dry
Purulent green drainage with a foul odor (Correct answer)
Slight pink discoloration at wound edges on day 2

Correct answer: Purulent green drainage with a foul odor

Purulent, foul-smelling drainage indicates wound infection and requires immediate nursing assessment and possible intervention.

Question 71: Which action by the PCT helps prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP) in an intubated patient?

Performing oral care with chlorhexidine as directed (Correct answer)
Suctioning the airway every 30 minutes prophylactically
Keeping the head of bed flat at all times
Humidifying the room air with a bedside humidifier

Correct answer: Performing oral care with chlorhexidine as directed

Regular oral care with chlorhexidine reduces oropharyngeal bacteria that can migrate into the lungs of intubated patients, lowering VAP risk.

Question 72: When removing contaminated PPE, which item should be removed first?

Gown
Gloves (Correct answer)
Mask or respirator
Eye protection

Correct answer: Gloves

Gloves should be removed first because they are the most contaminated item and removing them first prevents self-contamination during doffing.

Question 73: An elderly patient is confused and trying to climb out of bed. The PCT's first action should be to:

Reorient the patient, lower the bed, raise side rails, and stay with them while notifying the nurse (Correct answer)
Apply soft wrist restraints immediately
Administer PRN sedation as ordered
Ask security to remain at the bedside

Correct answer: Reorient the patient, lower the bed, raise side rails, and stay with them while notifying the nurse

The least-restrictive intervention—reorientation, lowering the bed for safety, and notifying the nurse—should be attempted before considering restraints.

Question 74: The suffix '-ectomy' means:

Surgical opening
Surgical removal (Correct answer)
Inflammation of
Surgical repair

Correct answer: Surgical removal

'-ectomy' means surgical removal, as in appendectomy (removal of the appendix) or tonsillectomy.

Question 75: When providing oral care to an unconscious patient, the patient should be positioned in which manner?

Side-lying (lateral) with the head turned to the side (Correct answer)
Flat supine with head hyperextended
Prone position
High Fowler's position at 90°

Correct answer: Side-lying (lateral) with the head turned to the side

A side-lying position with the head turned toward the dependent side allows secretions and water to drain out, reducing aspiration risk.

Question 76: What does the 'C-A-B' sequence stand for in the current adult CPR guidelines?

Circulation, Airway, Baseline
Chest, Abdomen, Back
Check, Activate, Breathe
Compressions, Airway, Breathing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Compressions, Airway, Breathing

The current AHA CPR sequence prioritizes Compressions first, then opening the Airway, then providing Breathing (rescue breaths).

Question 77: When caring for a patient in contact precautions, the PCT should wear:

N95 respirator and gloves only
Gown and gloves when entering the room (Correct answer)
Full PPE including N95, gown, gloves, and face shield at all times
Surgical mask and eye protection only

Correct answer: Gown and gloves when entering the room

Contact precautions require a gown and gloves upon entering the patient's room to prevent transmission via touch.

Question 78: When collecting a clean-catch midstream urine specimen, the patient should be instructed to:

Collect a random sample at any point
Clean the urethral area, discard the first stream, then collect the midstream (Correct answer)
Use a regular cup without cleaning
Collect the first stream of urine only

Correct answer: Clean the urethral area, discard the first stream, then collect the midstream

Cleaning the urethral area and discarding the first stream reduces contamination from periurethral bacteria in the midstream urine culture specimen.

Question 79: For adult CPR, chest compressions should depress the sternum at least how deep?

1.5 inches (3.8 cm)
2 inches (5 cm) (Correct answer)
1 inch (2.5 cm)
3 inches (7.5 cm)

Correct answer: 2 inches (5 cm)

AHA guidelines require chest compressions to be at least 2 inches (5 cm) deep but not exceeding 2.4 inches to generate effective cardiac output.

Question 80: A conscious adult patient is clutching their throat and cannot speak, cough, or breathe. What should the PCT do?

Lay the patient flat and call for help only
Perform rescue breathing
Perform abdominal thrusts (Heimlich maneuver) (Correct answer)
Begin chest compressions

Correct answer: Perform abdominal thrusts (Heimlich maneuver)

The universal choking sign combined with inability to speak or breathe indicates severe airway obstruction requiring immediate abdominal thrusts.

Question 81: Which vein is most commonly used for venipuncture in adults?

Brachial vein
Median cubital vein (Correct answer)
Basilic vein
Cephalic vein

Correct answer: Median cubital vein

The median cubital vein is preferred for venipuncture because it is large, well-anchored, and poses the least risk of injury to surrounding structures.

Question 82: The Heimlich maneuver is used to relieve which condition?

Anaphylactic shock
Airway obstruction by a foreign body (Correct answer)
Cardiac arrest
Fainting

Correct answer: Airway obstruction by a foreign body

The Heimlich maneuver uses abdominal thrusts to expel a foreign body blocking the airway.

Question 83: A patient experiences cardiac arrest while receiving hemodialysis. Which of these steps needs to be completed first?

Apply a precordial thump to the patient.
Return the patient’s blood.
Stop ultrafiltration.
Call for help. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Call for help.

In any medical emergency, the immediate priority is to ensure patient safety and activate the emergency response system. Calling for help (e.g., Code Blue) is the crucial first step to bring additional trained personnel and resources to manage the cardiac arrest. Other actions, while important, follow after help has been summoned.

Question 84: Under HIPAA, a PCT may share a patient's protected health information (PHI) with:

A hospital administrator conducting a staffing review
The patient's adult sibling who calls requesting an update
A medical student rotating on a different unit
A nurse on the same care team treating that patient (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A nurse on the same care team treating that patient

PHI may be shared with members of the care team directly involved in treating the patient (treatment exception).

Question 85: Which of the following describes the correct order for putting on (donning) PPE?

Gloves, gown, mask, eye protection
Eye protection, gown, gloves, mask
Gown, mask, eye protection, gloves (Correct answer)
Mask, gloves, gown, eye protection

Correct answer: Gown, mask, eye protection, gloves

The CDC-recommended donning order is gown first, then mask/respirator, then eye protection, then gloves.

Question 86: Which of the following brand and generic names are mismatched?

Prazosin/Minipress
Tizanidine/Zanaflex
Miglitol/Glucophage (Correct answer)
Gabapentin/Neurontin

Correct answer: Miglitol/Glucophage

Glucophage is the brand name for the generic drug metformin, which is widely used to treat type 2 diabetes. Miglitol is a different generic medication, an alpha-glucosidase inhibitor, whose brand name is Glyset. Therefore, pairing Miglitol with Glucophage incorrectly matches two distinct drugs.

Question 87: When assisting a patient to transfer from bed to wheelchair, the wheelchair should be positioned:

On the patient's stronger side at a 45-degree angle to the bed (Correct answer)
At the foot of the bed parallel to it
On the patient's weaker side to provide support
Directly in front of the bed at a 90-degree angle

Correct answer: On the patient's stronger side at a 45-degree angle to the bed

Positioning the wheelchair on the patient's stronger side at 45° allows the patient to pivot using their stronger limbs for a safer, more controlled transfer.

Question 88: What does the medical abbreviation 'PRN' mean in a medication order?

Post-renal nephropathy
As needed (Correct answer)
Per routine nursing
Prescribed regularly, nightly

Correct answer: As needed

PRN (pro re nata, Latin) means 'as needed,' indicating the medication should be given only when specific conditions are met.

Question 89: What is the purpose of inverting blood collection tubes after drawing blood?

To mix the blood with tube additives (Correct answer)
To activate the gel separator
To separate serum from cells
To prevent clot formation in all tubes

Correct answer: To mix the blood with tube additives

Gently inverting tubes mixes the blood with the additives (such as anticoagulants or clot activators) to ensure proper specimen integrity.

Question 90: Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with muscle cramps, cardiac arrhythmias, and weakness in post-surgical patients?

Hypermagnesemia
Hyponatremia
Hypokalemia (Correct answer)
Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: Hypokalemia

Hypokalemia (low potassium) commonly causes muscle cramps, weakness, and dangerous cardiac arrhythmias.

Question 91: The normal resting respiratory rate for an adult is:

12–20 breaths per minute (Correct answer)
30–36 breaths per minute
22–28 breaths per minute
6–10 breaths per minute

Correct answer: 12–20 breaths per minute

A normal adult respiratory rate at rest is 12–20 breaths per minute; values outside this range require prompt nursing notification.

Question 92: A patient's pulse is described as 'thready.' What does this mean?

Slow and irregular
Regular and strong
Weak and easily obliterated (Correct answer)
Fast and bounding

Correct answer: Weak and easily obliterated

A thready pulse is weak, fine, and easily obliterated with slight pressure, often indicating low cardiac output.

Question 93: During two-rescuer adult CPR, what is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio?

15:1
15:2
30:1
30:2 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 30:2

Both single- and two-rescuer adult CPR uses a 30:2 compression-to-ventilation ratio per AHA guidelines.

Question 94: What is the minimum number of times a lavender-top tube should be inverted after collection?

8 to 10 times (Correct answer)
5 to 6 times
2 to 3 times
15 times

Correct answer: 8 to 10 times

Lavender-top tubes should be gently inverted 8 to 10 times to ensure EDTA is fully mixed with the blood and prevent clotting.

Question 95: Which of the following actions is an example of active listening?

Finishing the patient's sentences
Nodding and maintaining eye contact while the patient speaks (Correct answer)
Documenting while the patient speaks without looking up
Interrupting to offer advice

Correct answer: Nodding and maintaining eye contact while the patient speaks

Active listening involves giving full attention through nonverbal cues like nodding and maintaining eye contact to show engagement.

Question 96: Which of the following is an example of maintaining a patient's dignity during personal care?

Exposing only the body part being cleaned and keeping the rest covered (Correct answer)
Discussing the patient's condition with a coworker in the room
Leaving the door open to monitor the patient from the hallway
Performing care quickly without explaining each step

Correct answer: Exposing only the body part being cleaned and keeping the rest covered

Draping and exposing only what is necessary during personal care protects the patient's privacy and upholds their dignity.

Question 97: A patient falls while ambulating with PCT assistance. After ensuring patient safety, what is the PCT's next priority?

Help the patient back to bed and continue the ambulation session later
Ask a coworker to witness the scene before moving the patient
Assess the patient for injury and document vital signs independently
Complete an incident report and notify the nurse immediately (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Complete an incident report and notify the nurse immediately

After stabilizing the patient, the nurse must be notified immediately and an incident report must be filed per facility policy.

Question 98: What is the proper disposal method for used needles after venipuncture?

Wrap in gauze and place in biohazard bag
Bend the needle before disposal
Place uncapped needle directly into a sharps container (Correct answer)
Recap the needle and place in regular trash

Correct answer: Place uncapped needle directly into a sharps container

Used needles must be immediately discarded uncapped into an approved sharps container to prevent needlestick injuries and comply with OSHA standards.

Question 99: How long should a tourniquet remain applied during venipuncture?

No longer than 1 minute (Correct answer)
No longer than 5 minutes
Up to 10 minutes
No longer than 3 minutes

Correct answer: No longer than 1 minute

A tourniquet should not remain in place for more than 1 minute to prevent hemoconcentration and falsely elevated lab values.

Question 100: A PCT observes a colleague not washing hands between patient rooms. The most appropriate action is to:

Report it to the infection control department immediately
Confront the colleague loudly at the nursing station
Ignore it to maintain a positive work environment
Remind the colleague that hand hygiene is required between patients (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Remind the colleague that hand hygiene is required between patients

Politely reminding the colleague addresses the safety issue immediately and promotes a culture of accountability.

Certified Patient Care Technician (CPCT/A)

The CPCT/A certification validates the skills and knowledge required to assist nurses and other healthcare professionals in providing direct patient care in various healthcare settings.

100

Questions

120 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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