CPC Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CPC facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which code set uses a seven-character alphanumeric structure? → ICD-10-PCS
2. Which document provides a summary of the patient's hospital stay? → Discharge summary
3. Which modifier is used when a cardiologist provides only the professional (interpretation) component of an echocardiogram performed in a hospital setting? → Modifier -26
4. When a physician performs bilateral destruction of hemorrhoids by infrared photocoagulation, which modifier is used? → No modifier needed — single CPT code covers bilateral destruction
5. Which CPT code describes a total abdominal colectomy without proctectomy with creation of an ileostomy? → 44150
6. Which E/M category is unique in that the level of service is NOT selected based on either Medical Decision Making (MDM) or total time? → Emergency Department Services
7. A physician performs a transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE) with Doppler and color flow mapping, complete study. Which CPT code applies? → 93306
8. Which CPT code is used for a 24-hour ambulatory blood pressure monitoring with recording, scanning analysis, interpretation, and report? → 93784
9. Which CPT code describes the complete service for a stress echocardiogram (exercise or pharmacological)? → 93350
10. What is included in a complete patient health record? → Demographics, clinical history, progress notes, and test results.
11. Which body system includes the kidneys and bladder? → Urinary system
12. What is the largest organ in the human body? → Skin
13. Which modifier should be used by an anesthesiologist to report the medical direction of two, three, or four concurrent anesthesia procedures? → QK
14. Which CPT code describes a percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) with stent placement in a single coronary vessel? → 92928
15. What is the CPT coding system? → A system for documenting medical procedures and services
16. Which CPT code describes arthrocentesis (aspiration) of a major joint such as the knee? → 20610
17. A patient is taken to surgery emergently for a ruptured appendix with generalized peritonitis. Which CPT code represents this appendectomy? → 44960
18. Which part of the brain is responsible for balance and coordination? → Cerebellum
19. A patient presents with upper GI bleeding and undergoes an EGD with hemostasis using thermal cautery. Which CPT code is appropriate? → 43255
20. Which organization maintains the CPT code set? → AMA
21. A coder is assigning a code for spinal fusion. Which component is NOT separately reported when included in the primary fusion procedure? → Bone graft harvested from the same incision site
22. What is the role of the history and physical (H&P) report? → Initial evaluation and clinical background.
23. A patient receives a series of 10 physical therapy visits. Which CPT code describes therapeutic exercises? → 97110
24. Which regulation restricts physician self-referrals? → Stark Law
25. A patient presents for the destruction of 18 actinic keratoses on their face and scalp using cryosurgery. What is the appropriate CPT code for this procedure? → 17004
26. Which federal agency is responsible for enforcing HIPAA regulations? → OCR
27. Which term refers to inflammation of the liver? → Hepatitis
28. A 55-year-old male undergoes initial open repair of a reducible indirect inguinal hernia. Which CPT code is most appropriate? → 49505
29. Why is compliance training important for coding professionals? → To ensure ethical and legal coding practices.
30. A 45-year-old patient undergoes open repair of a reducible umbilical hernia. Which CPT code is most appropriate? → 49585