CPC Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CPC facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which coding system is used to report diagnoses on inpatient hospital claims? → ICD-10-CM
2. Which code set uses a seven-character alphanumeric structure? → ICD-10-PCS
3. Which document provides a summary of the patient's hospital stay? → Discharge summary
4. Subsequent hospital care codes (99231–99233) require how many of the three key components to meet the documented level? → At least 2 of 3 key components
5. When a patient undergoes a procedure and an adverse effect occurs due to a correctly administered drug, the coder should: → Sequence the nature of the adverse effect first, then add a code for the drug
6. Which modifier is used when a cardiologist provides only the professional (interpretation) component of an echocardiogram performed in a hospital setting? → Modifier -26
7. Which federal act established the national do-not-pay list and requires providers to screen employees against exclusion databases? → Social Security Act Section 1128
8. When a physician performs bilateral destruction of hemorrhoids by infrared photocoagulation, which modifier is used? → No modifier needed — single CPT code covers bilateral destruction
9. Which anatomical term describes a position closer to the point of attachment of a limb? → Proximal
10. Which HCPCS Level II code series covers enteral and parenteral nutrition supplies? → B codes
11. Which modifier is appended when a malignant lesion excision requires a more complex closure than simple repair? → Report the excision code and a separate wound repair code
12. Under HIPAA, which type of information is classified as Protected Health Information (PHI)? → A patient's name combined with their diagnosis
13. What is the purpose of the anesthesia conversion factor? → It translates total anesthesia units into a dollar reimbursement amount
14. An adjacent tissue transfer (Z-plasty) is performed to repair a defect of 12 sq cm on the trunk. Which CPT code applies? → 14000
15. Which organization maintains the ICD-10-CM code set in the United States? → CDC's National Center for Health Statistics (NCHS)
16. Which HCPCS/CPT code describes a low-dose CT scan (LDCT) for lung cancer screening? → 71271
17. What does the anesthesia modifier AA signify on a claim? → Anesthesia services performed personally by an anesthesiologist
18. Which CPT code describes a total abdominal colectomy without proctectomy with creation of an ileostomy? → 44150
19. Which E/M category is unique in that the level of service is NOT selected based on either Medical Decision Making (MDM) or total time? → Emergency Department Services
20. A physician performs a transthoracic echocardiogram (TTE) with Doppler and color flow mapping, complete study. Which CPT code applies? → 93306
21. A coder notices that the discharge summary is missing from the medical record 24 hours after patient discharge. What is the most appropriate action? → Query the attending physician for the missing document
22. Which CPT code is used for immunohistochemistry (IHC) staining for each antibody reported? → 88342
23. When a free flap requires microvascular anastomosis, which add-on code is also reported? → 69990
24. Which CPT range covers anesthesia for procedures on the perineum? → 00900–00952
25. A patient receives a hospital bed with a pressure-reducing mattress. Which HCPCS Level II letter category covers this item? → E
26. When coding an encounter for a patient with a confirmed HIV infection being treated for pneumonia, which code is sequenced first? → The HIV code (B20)
27. Which federal agency oversees the Medicare and Medicaid programs and enforces compliance with their billing requirements? → Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
28. When a physician performs ultrasound-guided aspiration of a cyst and then interprets the imaging, which components are separately reportable? → The aspiration and the guidance/imaging interpretation separately
29. A radiologist provides only the technical component of an X-ray in a hospital-owned facility. Which modifier should the facility report? → -TC
30. Which element is NOT one of the seven core components of an effective compliance program per OIG guidance? → Mandatory profit-sharing with compliance staff