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Obstetrics and Gynecology Flashcards

7 cards from real COMLEX-USA practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Obstetrics and Gynecology flashcards as text

  1. A 21-year-old woman presents with vaginal itching, dysuria, and a frothy, malodorous yellow-green discharge. Wet prep shows motile pear-shaped organisms. What is the treatment of choice?

    Answer: Metronidazole 2 g orally single dose

    Trichomonas vaginalis infection is treated with single-dose oral metronidazole 2g, with concurrent partner treatment required.

  2. Electronic fetal monitoring at 38 weeks shows late decelerations after each contraction with absent variability and baseline FHR of 140 bpm. What is the most appropriate management?

    Answer: Immediate cesarean delivery

    Late decelerations with absent variability represent a Category III (ominous) fetal heart rate pattern requiring immediate delivery.

  3. A 19-year-old woman at 18 weeks gestation presents with painless cervical dilation to 4 cm and no uterine contractions. Membranes are intact. Which diagnosis is most likely?

    Answer: Cervical insufficiency

    Cervical insufficiency (incompetent cervix) presents with painless cervical dilation in the second trimester without uterine contractions.

  4. A 27-year-old woman at 10 weeks gestation has beta-hCG of 185,000 mIU/mL, vaginal bleeding, and a uterine ultrasound showing a 'snowstorm' appearance with no fetal parts. After uterine evacuation, what must be closely monitored?

    Answer: Serial beta-hCG for gestational trophoblastic neoplasia

    Complete hydatidiform moles require serial beta-hCG surveillance after evacuation because 15–20% progress to gestational trophoblastic neoplasia.

  5. A 55-year-old woman presents with abdominal bloating, early satiety, and increased girth for 3 months. CA-125 is 480 U/mL. CT shows bilateral adnexal masses with peritoneal implants. Which histological subtype of ovarian cancer is most common?

    Answer: High-grade serous adenocarcinoma

    High-grade serous adenocarcinoma accounts for approximately 70% of epithelial ovarian cancers and is the most common and deadly subtype.

  6. At a 24-week prenatal visit, a 1-hour 50g glucose challenge test returns 158 mg/dL. What is the next appropriate step?

    Answer: Perform a 3-hour 100g oral glucose tolerance test

    An abnormal 1-hour GCT (≥140 mg/dL) is a screening result only; a 3-hour 100g OGTT is required for diagnostic confirmation of gestational diabetes.

  7. A 23-year-old competitive marathon runner presents with 4 months of secondary amenorrhea. Labs show low FSH, low LH, low estradiol, and normal prolactin. TSH is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Hypothalamic amenorrhea

    Hypothalamic amenorrhea from excessive exercise causes suppression of GnRH, resulting in low FSH, low LH, and low estradiol, unlike POI (elevated FSH) or PCOS (elevated LH/androgens).