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Obstetrics and Gynecology Flashcards

7 cards from real COMLEX-USA practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

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  1. A 28-year-old woman at 38 weeks gestation presents with severe headache, visual disturbances, and blood pressure of 158/105 mmHg. Urine dipstick shows 3+ proteinuria. Which is the definitive treatment?

    Answer: Delivery of the fetus

    Delivery of the fetus and placenta is the only definitive treatment for preeclampsia, as the placenta is the underlying cause.

  2. A 24-year-old woman presents with 6 weeks of amenorrhea, vaginal bleeding, and left lower quadrant pain. Beta-hCG is 1,500 mIU/mL and transvaginal ultrasound shows no intrauterine gestational sac. She is hemodynamically stable. Which is the most appropriate management?

    Answer: Methotrexate administration

    Methotrexate is indicated for hemodynamically stable ectopic pregnancy with beta-hCG <5,000 mIU/mL and no fetal cardiac activity on ultrasound.

  3. A nulliparous woman delivers vaginally at term and has 700 mL of blood loss within the first hour after placental delivery. The uterus is boggy on exam. What is the most common cause of this complication?

    Answer: Uterine atony

    Uterine atony accounts for approximately 80% of postpartum hemorrhage cases and is the most common cause.

  4. A 32-year-old nulliparous woman presents with cyclic pelvic pain, progressive dysmenorrhea, and dyspareunia. CA-125 is mildly elevated. What is the gold standard for diagnosis?

    Answer: Diagnostic laparoscopy with biopsy

    Diagnostic laparoscopy with histological confirmation of ectopic endometrial tissue is the gold standard for diagnosing endometriosis.

  5. A 36-week pregnant woman has a positive Group B Streptococcus vaginal-rectal culture. Which antibiotic should be administered intrapartum for prophylaxis?

    Answer: IV penicillin G or ampicillin

    IV penicillin G is first-line intrapartum GBS prophylaxis, with ampicillin as an acceptable alternative.

  6. A 26-year-old woman has irregular periods, hirsutism, and obesity. Transvaginal ultrasound shows bilateral ovaries with 14 follicles each (< 10 mm). Testosterone is mildly elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Polycystic ovary syndrome

    PCOS is diagnosed by Rotterdam criteria: oligo-anovulation, clinical or biochemical hyperandrogenism, and polycystic ovarian morphology (≥12 follicles per ovary).

  7. A 34-year-old woman at 30 weeks gestation has painless vaginal bleeding. Ultrasound shows the placenta completely covering the internal cervical os. She is currently stable. What is the most appropriate management?

    Answer: Pelvic rest, hospitalization, and planned delivery at 36–37 weeks

    Stable placenta previa at 30 weeks is managed conservatively with pelvic rest and monitoring, with planned cesarean at 36–37 weeks.