COKO Pharmacology Fundamentals 2 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: A kinesiologist notices a client taking a beta-blocker reports an unusually low resting heart rate. Which pharmacodynamic concept explains this effect?
- Agonism at beta-adrenergic receptors
- Antagonism at beta-adrenergic receptors (Correct answer)
- Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
- Blockade of calcium channels in skeletal muscle
Correct answer: Antagonism at beta-adrenergic receptors
Beta-blockers act as antagonists at beta-adrenergic receptors, reducing heart rate by blocking sympathetic stimulation.
Question 2: Which term describes the concentration of a drug required to produce 50% of its maximum possible effect?
- Therapeutic index
- EC50 (Correct answer)
- LD50
- Bioavailability
Correct answer: EC50
EC50 (effective concentration 50%) is the drug concentration producing half of the maximal response.
Question 3: A client on warfarin begins taking a new NSAID. The kinesiologist should be aware that this combination may increase risk of:
- Hypertension
- Bleeding (Correct answer)
- Muscle cramps
- Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: Bleeding
NSAIDs can displace warfarin from plasma proteins and inhibit platelet aggregation, significantly increasing bleeding risk.
Question 4: Which phase of pharmacokinetics involves the conversion of a drug to more water-soluble metabolites primarily in the liver?
- Absorption
- Distribution
- Metabolism (Correct answer)
- Excretion
Correct answer: Metabolism
Metabolism (biotransformation), mainly hepatic, converts lipophilic drugs into more polar metabolites for easier elimination.
Question 5: A client using a corticosteroid inhaler for asthma asks about systemic side effects. Which effect is most relevant for exercise programming?
- Hypotension
- Muscle weakness and reduced bone density (Correct answer)
- Bradycardia
- Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: Muscle weakness and reduced bone density
Long-term corticosteroid use can cause myopathy and osteoporosis, directly affecting exercise capacity and fracture risk.
Question 6: Which route of drug administration provides 100% bioavailability by bypassing first-pass metabolism?
- Oral
- Sublingual
- Intravenous (Correct answer)
- Transdermal
Correct answer: Intravenous
Intravenous administration delivers the drug directly into systemic circulation, ensuring complete (100%) bioavailability.
Question 7: A kinesiologist's client takes metformin for type 2 diabetes. During prolonged exercise, which concern is most pharmacologically relevant?
- Rebound hypertension
- Hypoglycemia risk is lower than with insulin secretagogues (Correct answer)
- Increased bleeding risk
- Cardiac arrhythmia
Correct answer: Hypoglycemia risk is lower than with insulin secretagogues
Metformin lowers blood glucose without stimulating insulin release, so hypoglycemia risk during exercise is lower compared to sulfonylureas or insulin.
COKO Pharmacology Fundamentals 2
A kinesiologist notices a client taking a beta-blocker reports an unusually low resting heart rate.
Which pharmacodynamic concept explains this effect?